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Expressjet 145 > Oral Exam Guide (needs format editing) > Flashcards

Oral Exam Guide (needs format editing) Flashcards

feel free to make adjusments and fix formatting. questions directly out of oral exam guide

1
Q

What is the minimum flight crew?

A

2 PILOTS.

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2
Q

What is maximum runway slope?

A

Answer: ± 2% OF RUNWAY LENGTH.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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3
Q

What is maximum temperature for aircraft operation?

A

Answer: ISA + 35ºC.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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4
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing pressure altitude?

A

Answer: EMB-135LR and EMB-145LR: -1000 ft to 8000 ft.
EMB-145XR: -1000 ft to 10000 ft.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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5
Q

What are the minimum and maximum fuel tank temperatures?

A

Answer: -40ºC to 52ºC.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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6
Q

On a cold morning day, a GPU is not available so the APU is to be used, what is the minimum battery temperature for APU start?

A

Answer: The minimum battery temperature for APU start is -20ºC.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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7
Q

What are the APU starter limits? At what percent rotor speed would the APU automatically shut down? How long can the APU operate in the amber range?

A

Answer: After 1st Attempt: 1 MINUTE OFF. After 2nd Attempt: 1 MINUTE OFF. After 3rd Attempt: 30 MINUTES OFF. The APU will be automatically shut down at 104% rotor speed. The APU EGT may exceed 680ºC up to 717ºC (Amber) for a maximum of 5 minutes.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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8
Q

What is the maximum Electrical load on the APU above 30,000’?

A

Answer: 300 Amps above 30,000 ft..
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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9
Q

Assuming the oil temperature is -15°C, can engines be started?

A

Answer: Yes, the minimum oil temperature for starting is -40ºC.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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10
Q

What is the maximum ITT during engine start?

A

Answer: 800ºC. Temperatures above 800ºC are permitted after 57% N2.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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11
Q

If a crew has a ‘hung start’ during the 1st start attempt, what is the minimum time a crew must wait before another engine start can be attempted? What about engine start cycles 2 through 5?

A

Answer: 1 MINUTE OFF minimum after the 1st start attempt. The 2nd through 4th start attempt is 1 MINUTE ON, 1 MINUTE OFF. The 5th start attempt is 1 MINUTE ON, 5 MINUTES OFF.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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12
Q

If a cold engine is started and the oil pressure increases to 120psi, what should the crew do? What if it was 115 psi?

A

Answer: 110 psi may be exceeded during starts if oil temperature is below 21ºC. The engine must remain at IDLE until the oil pressure is less than 110 psi.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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13
Q

While taxiing out to the runway (using less than 88% N2) what is the acceptable oil pressure range

A

Answer: 34 psi to 110 psi (Green Range)
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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14
Q

What is the definition of a cold engine?

A

Answer: An engine is considered to be cold if it has been shut down for more than 90 minutes.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 1, Limitations

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15
Q

Assuming a cold engine, how long must the engine run to meet the engine warm-up limitations?

A

Answer: 4 minutes.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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16
Q

Assuming a warm engine, how long must the engine run to meet the engine warm-up limitations?

A

Answer: 2 minutes.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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17
Q

Assuming the engine was cold and the engine has run for 4 minutes, can the crew takeoff if the engine temperature is 38ºC?

A

Answer: No, to increase N2 above 83%, the engine oil temperature must be at 40ºC minimum. In lieu of this limit, it is acceptable to either to run the engine for at least 8 minutes or complete a static run-up to 88% N2, allow the engine to stabilize, check to ensure that the oil pressure is equal to or less than 83 psi.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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18
Q

What is the min./max. SAT for takeoff?

A

Answer: -40/52 ºC
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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19
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for T/O and Landing?

A

Answer: 10 KTS.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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20
Q

What limitations are imposed on using the windshield wipers?

A

Answer: 170 KIAS. Do not operate on a dry windshield.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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21
Q

What is VLO for retraction/extension? What is VLE?

A

Answer: VLO 200 KTS (retraction) 250 KTS (extension) VLE 250 KTS.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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22
Q

On the takeoff roll, the oil pressure drops to 42 psi. Is this acceptable?

A

Answer: While this is an abnormal condition, operation between 34 and 48 psi (A1E) or between 34 and 50 psi (A1P & A1/3) is permitted during takeoff and go around phases of flight.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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23
Q

On the takeoff roll the oil pressure increases to 112 psi. Is this acceptable? Would an increase to 118 psi be allowed? For how long?

A

Answer: Yes, 112 psi is permitted in all operational modes and is time limited to 5 minutes. Operation in the oil pressure amber range between 116 psi and 155 psi is permitted in all operational modes and is time limited to 2 minutes. However, total time above 110 psi may not exceed 5 minutes.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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24
Q

How long can the aircraft remain in the takeoff thrust setting? What is the maximum N1 value?

A

Answer: Takeoff thrust is time limited to 5 minutes. 100% N1.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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25
Q

How long can a vibration remain in the amber range, up to but not including 2.5 IPS during takeoff?

A

Answer: The normal range may be exceeded up to (but not including) 2.5 IPS for 5 minutes during the takeoff or go-around phases of flight.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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26
Q

After takeoff, how soon can the autopilot be engaged?

A

Answer: Minimum Engagement Height after Takeoff: 500 FT. AGL.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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27
Q

What is the maximum airspeed after takeoff without re-trimming?

A

Answer: 160 KIAS.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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28
Q

On a non-XR aircraft, if an electrical abnormal caused the aircraft to rely solely on the main batteries for electrical power, how long would the ISIS remain powered?

A

Answer: Maximum duration of the ISIS when operating only on batteries is 40 minutes. The maximum duration of battery power can be extended to 45 minutes if the pitot 3 sensor heating button is turned off when not operating in icing conditions.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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29
Q

Although the airplane is heavily automated with respect to pressurization, what are the values for maximum differential pressure/overpressure/negative pressure?

A

Answer: Maximum Differential Pressure 7.8 psi.
Maximum Differential Overpressure 8.1 psi
Maximum Differential Negative Pressure -0.3 psi
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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30
Q

The crew usually can let the aircraft automatically handle the anti-ice operations. If there was a malfunction and manual anti-icing operations became necessary, what would be the minimum and maximum temperatures limits be?

A

Answer: Minimum Temperature for Manual Anti-ice Operation -40ºC.
Maximum Temperature for Manual Anti-ice Operation 10ºC.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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31
Q

What is VA? What is the maximum airspeed for turbulent air penetration?

A 
Answer: 200 KIAS
At or below 10,000 ft. 200 KIAS.
Above 10,000 ft. 250 KIAS/0.63M,
WHICHEVER IS LOWER.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations
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32
Q

What is the min./max. SAT at FL370?

A

Answer: -65ºC/-21.5ºC.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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33
Q

The TAT is limited to what, when operating above FL250?

A

Answer: Total Air Temperature in cruise flight above 25,000 ft. is limited to -45ºC. However, if momentary deviations occur down to -50°C, no maintenance action is required.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 1, Limitations

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34
Q

Enroute the crew notices a fuel imbalance of 500 lbs. Has a limitation been exceeded? What is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed?

A

Answer: No, the maximum permitted fuel imbalance between wing tanks is 800lbs.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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35
Q

If holding in icing conditions what configuration and minimum airspeed should be used?

A

Answer: Landing Gear UP
Flaps 0º
Minimum Airspeed 200 KIAS
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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36
Q

When descending into an airport, what is the maximum flap extension altitude?

A

Answer: Maximum Altitude for Flap Extension is 20,000 FT.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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37
Q

What are the maximum flap extension speeds for flaps 9°, 18°, 22°, 45°? Is the EMB-145XR different? What if operating above 10, 000’ MSL?

A 
Answer: 9º 250 KIAS
18º 200 KIAS
22º 200 KIAS
45º non-XR 145 KIAS
45º XR 160 KIAS
Above 10,000 ft. with yaw damper disengaged:
22º XR 180 KIAS
45º XR 145 KIAS
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations
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38
Q

While on an approach what are the minimum disengagement heights?

A

Answer: Minimum During Visual Approach 200 FT. AGL.
Minimum During CAT I ILS Approach 200 FT. AGL.
Minimum During CAT II ILS Approach 85 FT. AGL
Minimum During Non-Precision Approach BEFORE LEAVING MDA
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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39
Q

When landing below what temperature would a maintenance inspection be required?

A

Answer: In the event of a landing below -40ºC, the airplane may not takeoff without a maintenance inspection.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 1, Limitations

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40
Q

When must the TSA Exterior Security inspection be conducted?

A

Answer: Before the first flight of the day for that aircraft.
Before any flight departing the US to any foreign location (except Canada).
Before any flight departing a foreign location to the US (except Canada).
Upon arrival into the US from any foreign location (except Canada).
Reference: FOM, Section 3, International Security

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41
Q

Is there a requirement to open an access panel secured with a screw fastener during the aforementioned TSA inspection?

A

Answer: No, crewmembers are not required to open any panel that requires a screw driver to open the panel.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 2, Before Start Check

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42
Q

How can an RVSM critical area be identified?

A

Answer: RVSM critical areas may be identified by markings (four yellow corners) surrounding the areas of the fuselage adjacent to the primary static ports.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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43
Q

When inspecting RVSM critical areas, what conditions would preclude flight in RVSM?

A

Answer: Creases, dents, deformations or bulges in the skin and/or deformations of the static sources. On the other hand, rub marks, dirt without obvious damage or deformation DO NOT preclude RVSM operations.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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44
Q

What requirement exists for the nose gear static discharger?

A

Answer: It must be touching the ground.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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45
Q

How many static dischargers are found on LR wings versus an XR aircraft?

A

Answer: 5 static dischargers are installed on each LR wing. 7 static dischargers (including winglets) are installed on each XR wing.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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46
Q

Can the aircraft be dispatched with missing static dischargers?

A

Answer: Yes, dispatch of an aircraft is permitted with missing static dischargers provided they are deferred in accordance with the provisions of the CDL.
Reference: EMB-145 MEL Handbook, CDL, System 23

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47
Q

Regarding tire wear, what is the minimum acceptable condition of an aircraft tire?

A

Answer: The tire should not be worn past the bottom of the tire grooves. Operating past the grooves will result in the loss of cut protection and penetration of the first ply will render the tire unsatisfactory for retread.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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48
Q

How can brake wear be checked?

A

Answer: Brake wear can be checked by inspecting the brake wear indicators from a vantage point in front of and behind the aircraft tires. Wear indicators should be no less than flush with the housing.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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49
Q

If a gear uplock hook is in the locked position, what must be done?

A

Answer: Maintenance action is required.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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50
Q

When fluid is present within the nacelle drain sight glass, what else should be checked prior to notifying maintenance?

A

Answer: The six holes located around the sight glass must be inspected for presence of leaks, stains, or other evidence of fluid. If multiple indications of a leakage are present and/or the leakage appears to be excessive or consists of flammable fluids, maintenance must be notified.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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51
Q

What would a missing safety disc next to the oxygen service panel indicate?

A

Answer: A missing disc indicates that the oxygen system has been over- pressurized during servicing.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 16, Flight Crew Oxygen.

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52
Q

How many vortex generators are installed above each wing?

A

Answer: There are 12 vortex generators installed on the upper surface of each wing.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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53
Q

How many vortilons does each wing have?

A

Answer: There are 4 vortilons on the lower surface of each wing.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 3, Exterior Inspection

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54
Q

Who calls for all checklists while on the ground?

A

Answer: The Captain.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, General

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55
Q

Who may do the Power Down Check?

A

Answer: The Power Down flow may be performed by either flight crewmember when passengers have deplaned. Upon completion of the flow, the crewmember will then complete the silent Power Down Check.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Power Down Check

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56
Q

When must a Receiving Check be accomplished?

A

Answer: The Receiving Check is accomplished when any of the following conditions are met:
 The Power Up Check was accomplished
 First flight of the day
 Crew’s first flight on the aircraft
 After maintenance
 After possible unsupervised access to the flightdeck
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Receiving Check

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57
Q

May checklist items specific to the XR only (such as “Backup Battery”) on the First Flight Check be skipped if in an LR?

A

Answer: No
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, General

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58
Q

What items must be checked as part of the Power Up Check?

A 
 Maintenance Status…Ckd
 Parking Brake Handle…Set
 Flap Handle…0
 Thrust Levers…Idle
 Gust Lock…Set
 Speed Brake Handle…Closed
 Elevator and Aileron Disconnect Handles…In
 Gear Handle…Down
 RADAR…STBY
 Hydraulic Pumps…OFF
 Circuit Breakers…Ckd
 Batteries…AUTO
 Backup Battery…As Required
 Nosewheel Steering…Disengaged
 EICAS…Ckd
 Parking Brake…ON
 Electrical…Set
 FMS…Initialize
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59
Q

May a CB be reset prior to power up?

A

Answer: If a circuit breaker is tripped on the ground, do not reset until contacting Maintenance Control to discover the cause.
Reference: FOM Section 2, Tripped Circuit Breaker Procedure

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60
Q

What emergency equipment is located in the cockpit?

A

Answer: 3 smoke goggles, 3 life jackets, 2 escape ropes, 2 flash lights 1 PBE, 1 Halon extinguisher, 1 crash ax, 1 set of fire gloves.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Receiving Check

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61
Q

What is the procedure to use if the status LED light for the CVR does not illuminate?

A

Answer: Plug a headset into the CVR panel, press the TEST button and listen for a tone.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, First Flight Check

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62
Q

Why might you start the APU at the end of the Power Up Flow, rather than waiting until 5-10 minutes prior to push?

A

Answer: If the battery voltage is below 24V but more than 19V or for passenger / crew comfort.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Power Up Check

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63
Q

What EICAS messages are shown during a fire detection test?

A

Answer: ENG 1(2) FIRE, APU FIRE, BAGG SMOKE, E1 (2) FIREDET FAIL, and APU FIREDET FAIL.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, First Flight Check

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64
Q

What is the procedure to use if, after a fire test, the BAGG EXT button remains illuminated?

A

Answer: Wait 6 seconds, then repeat the test by pressing and holding the fire detection test button for at least 2 seconds, but no longer than 10 seconds.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, First Flight Check

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65
Q

What procedure is used if the APU GEN OVLD EICAS message is presented during the APU Power Up procedure?

A

Answer: Verify the APU amperage output of the generator on the MFD electrical page. If the APU load exceeds 500 amps, turn the #1 BATT knob to OFF. Once 3 minutes have passed and the load decreases below 400 amps, whichever occurs later, turn the #1 BATT knob back to AUTO and place the Shed Bus selector to OVRD.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, APU Power Up Procedure

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66
Q

When does the CVR begin recording?

A

Answer: As soon as power is established to the aircraft.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-18, Cockpit Voice Recorder

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67
Q

What should be set in the FLIGHT ID field of the ATC/TCAS CONTROL page on the RMU?

A

Answer: ASQXXXX (ASQ and the flight number as specified in the ICAO flight plan) should be entered to ensure the ADS-B system broadcasts the correct flight ID to Air Traffic Control and ADS-B IN equipped aircraft.
Reference: Bulletin “ADS-B Operational Information

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68
Q
  1. Is takeoff in heavy snow authorized?
A

Yes, takeoff in heavy snow is authorized subject to the following restrictions:
 The aircraft, including the fuselage, must be anti-iced with undiluted Type IV fluid.
 The aircraft critical surfaces must be free of contaminants or the aircraft must be properly deiced before the application of the anti-icing fluid.
 A pre-takeoff contamination check must be accomplished within 5 minutes of takeoff.
 If a definitive fluid failure determination cannot be made using the pre-takeoff contamination check, takeoff is not authorized. The aircraft must be completely deiced and, if precipitation is still present, anti-iced again before a subsequent takeoff.
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 5, Ground Deicing and Anti-Icing Procedures

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69
Q

During operations in Ice Pellets, how is an allowance time derived?

A

Answer: An allowance time must be derived using the “Allowance Times Tables” (found in the FAA Holdover Time Guidelines) using the appropriate:
 Precipitation types and intensities
 OAT
Reference: FAA Holdover Time Guide Winter 2017-2018

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70
Q

What is a Pre-Takeoff Check?

A

Answer: This check is conducted within the aircraft’s HOT, just prior to takeoff, and is made by observing representative surfaces from inside the flightdeck, to determine that the aircraft is free of contaminants.
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 5, Ground Deicing and Anti-Icing Procedures

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71
Q

What is a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check?

A

Answer: An external tactile check conducted after the HOT has been exceeded to ensure wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminants. This check must be completed within 5 minutes prior to takeoff.
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 5, Ground Deicing and Anti-Icing Procedures

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72
Q

What are Representative Aircraft Surfaces?

A

Answer: Representative surfaces are those areas of the aircraft that are visible from the flight deck (or aircraft cabin) that, when carefully observed, allow the crew to make a reasonable determination that all critical surfaces are clear of contamination These areas include but are not limited to the following:
 The windshield wiper mechanism
 An unheated portion of the fuselage nose that is visible from the flight deck.
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 5, Ground Deicing and Anti-Icing Procedures

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73
Q

What are considered Critical Surfaces?

A

Answer: Critical surfaces are defined by the aircraft manufacturer and are considered those areas on the aircraft that are most aerodynamically sensitive to the effects of adhering winter elements. EMB series critical aircraft surfaces are defined to be:
 Upper/lower wing surfaces
 Control surfaces (e.g., ailerons, spoilers, flaps)
 Winglets
 Horizontal Stabilizer
 Vertical Stabilizer
 Engine inlet
 Fuselage
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 5, Ground Deicing and Anti-Icing Procedures

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74
Q

Is a takeoff during moderate or heavy freezing rain permitted?

A

Answer: No. There are no holdover time guidelines for moderate or heavy freezing rain, small hail or hail.
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 5, Ground Deicing and Anti-Icing Procedures

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75
Q

Which doors will cause an “ACCESS DOOR OPN” EICAS message?

A

Answer: Under cockpit access hatch, forward electronic access hatch, rear electronic access hatch.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-2, Equipment and Furnishings

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76
Q

Which doors give a MASTER CAUTION or MASTER WARNING and when?

A

Answer: Master Caution: access panels (Forward Avionics, Under Cockpit Access Hatch, Rear Avionics), Emergency Exits (over-wing), Refueling Panel Access Door), Baggage Door. Master Warning: Main Cabin Door and Service Door (anytime in flight or on the ground with ENG 1 running).
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-2, Equipment and Furnishings

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77
Q

Which doors on the MFD T/O - DOORS page are not pressurized?

A

Answer: Forward avionics compartment, fuel access panel.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-2, Equipment and Furnishings

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78
Q

How many portable Halon fire extinguishers and PBE’s does the EMB-145 contain?

A

Answer: 3 of each.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-3, Fire Extinguishers, Protective Breathing Equipment

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79
Q

What type of fire extinguisher should be used to fight burning paper?

A

Answer: An H20 fire extinguisher.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-3, Water Fire Extinguisher

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80
Q

What documents and publication are located on the flightdeck?

A

Airworthiness Certificate
 Radio Station License
 Registration Certificate
 Aircraft Noise Certification Form (If missing, contact OSC)
 AFDL (Aircraft Flight Discrepancy Log) (If missing contact OSC)
 DMIL (Deferred Maintenance Item Log)
 Normal Checklist (2) (If missing may use EFB version but recommended to be replaced at next maintenance base)
 FRG (Flightdeck Reference Guide) (If missing may use EFB version but recommended to be replaced at next maintenance base)
 QRH (Quick Reference Handbook)
 IAI (Immediate Action Items) (If missing may use EFB version but recommended to be replaced at next maintenance base)
 AeroData Backup Form
 International Documentation Package (If opened or missing, refer to MEL)
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Receiving Check

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81
Q

Can the aircraft be dispatched if the international documentation is missing?

A

Answer: Yes. Mexican Insurance is required to be in paper format onboard the aircraft only when operating to and from Mexico. Electronic International Documentation is permitted for all other countries.
Reference: NEF CP-23

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82
Q

Can the aircraft be dispatched if the FRG or any checklists be missing?

A

Answer: Yes, the EFB version may be used until the aircraft reaches a station where a replacement may be obtained.
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 2, Receiving Check

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83
Q

What parameters are checked with the Takeoff Configuration button? What threats are associated with this check?

A

Answer: Pitch trim between 4°-8 (green band), flaps between 9°-22°, parking brake not set, and spoilers stowed. The check does not ensure both engines are running.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Crew Awareness

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84
Q

During any windshear warning, should the aircraft be immediately re-configured to Gear Up/Flaps 9°?

A

Answer: No.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 5, Windshear Escape Maneuver

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85
Q

What is the protocol when encountering windshear for both the PF and PM?

A

Answer: Disengage the autopilot and initiate a go-around by pressing the go-around buttons on the thrust levers and pitch to the attitude commanded by the flight director while simultaneously applying maximum thrust. Do not change the aircraft configuration (flaps or landing gear position) UNTIL ALL WINDSHEAR presentations/ indications are no longer present and terrain contact is no longer a factor. Flight guidance must be followed initially. Flight guidance may be abandoned for pitch reference if ground contact appears imminent. In this case, the PLI (up to the stick shaker) is the maximum pitch limit. Adjust pitch attitude smoothly and in small increments to control vertical speed and attitude. Pilots should be aware that speed may decay below reference speeds and that stick forces necessary to maintain an increased pitch attitude may be well above normal. When the WSHR vertical mode is active, the altitude select function (ASEL) is not armed and, therefore, any selected altitude will not be captured. The PM should call out AGL Altitude and Trends while in windshear.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 5, Windshear Escape Maneuver

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86
Q

What will be heard if the aural warning unit test is successful?

A

Answer: If both aural warning unit channels are operating properly, the voice message “AURAL UNIT OK” is generated.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Power Up Check

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87
Q

The EICAS caution message “AURAL WARN FAIL” will only be presented when?

A

Answer: The message is displayed when both channel A and channel B of the aural warning unit have failed simultaneously.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Crew Awareness

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88
Q

How many transponders are on the EMB-145 aircraft? How can the transponder in use be changed?

A

Answer: 2; On the RMU, while the ATC/TCAS area is highlighted, press the 1/2 button to change the transponder being used.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Engine Start Check/OM Vol.2, Section 2-18, Navigation and Communication

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89
Q

A failure of an ADC would be indicated by___________.

A

Answer: A red X failure indication appearing on the airspeed tape, altitude tape, and the vertical speed pointer is removed and replaced by a red boxed VS.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Crew Awareness

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90
Q

What does an amber HDG comparator flag on the PFD/MFD indicate?

A

Answer: A difference of 6 degrees between the heading information compared by the two symbol generators.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Crew Awareness

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91
Q

When would an amber IAS comparator flag be presented?

A

Answer: When the CA and FO’s indicated airspeeds (calibrated) differ by 5 knots or more for longer than 2 seconds.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Crew Awareness

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92
Q

When would an amber ALT comparator flag be presented?

A

Answer: When the CA and FO’s indicated altitudes differ by more than 200 feet.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Crew Awareness

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93
Q

What does the message ‘CAS MSG’ indicate when presented on the PFD?

A

Answer: There is a disagreement between the IC-600s on the EICAS message displayed.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Crew Awareness

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94
Q

When does the digital flight data recorder (DFDR) begin recording?

A

Answer: When the beacon is turned on or weight off wheels
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Crew Awareness

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95
Q

What indications would be displayed on the MFD and PFD immediately following an AHRS failure?

A

Answer: ATT FAIL, HDG FAIL, HDG FAIL (on MFD if in MAP mode)
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Crew Awareness

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96
Q

When will the stick shaker activate?

A

Answer: When the aircraft symbol touches the PLI.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Stall Protection System

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97
Q

When your airspeed is in the amber band of the low speed awareness tape, what color is the PLI?

A

Answer: The PLI is red.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Stall Protection System

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98
Q

When is the stick pusher inhibited?

A

On the ground (except during the test)
 Below .5 G
 If the quick disconnect button is kept pressed
 Below 200 ft. AGL (reverts to 10 seconds after takeoff if the radio altimeters have failed)
 If either SPS cutout button has been pressed (released or, unlatched button position)
 Above 200 KIAS
 If at least one SPS channel is inoperative
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Stall Protection System

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99
Q

What does the EICAS message SPS ADVANCED indicate?

A

SPS ADVANCED indicates that Stick shaker and pusher actuation is set to lower AOAs (higher speeds) due to a system component failure.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Stall Protection System

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100
Q

When does the SPS/ICE SPEEDS message clear after flying into icing conditions?

A

Answer: Only on the ground after performing a stall test.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-4, Stall Protection System

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101
Q

When must the SPS test be performed?

A

Answer: During the CA’s Before Start flow, prior to every flight.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Before Start Check

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102
Q

Describe the normal visual indications of a DC Bus 1 failure.

A

Answer: PFD 1 and MFD 2 are blank
FMS (single FMS) or FMS 1 (dual FMS) is blank
Reference: OM Vol 2, Section 2-4 Crew Awareness

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103
Q

Describe the normal visual indications of a DC Bus 2 failure.

A

Answer: MFD 1 and PFD 2 are blank; MFD 2 has red X;
FMS 2 (dual FMS) is blank
Reference: OM Vol 2, Section 2-4 Crew Awareness

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104
Q

What indications would be displayed if Pitot Tube 1 is suddenly blocked?

A

Should the pitot tube become suddenly blocked (along with its drain hole) by ice, an insect or some other foreign material, it would probably go unnoticed in level flight. In a climb or a descent, however, an airspeed indicator relying on a blocked pitot tube would behave like an altimeter. The trapped pitot pressure is then measured against the varying static pressure and the result is displayed on the indicator

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105
Q

The EICAS message DFDR Fail is a normal message after the Power Up Flow because:

A

Answer: The Beacon is off until the CA’s Engine Start Flow. If this message is presented while the Beacon is ON, reference the QRH.
Reference: OM Vol 2, Section 2-4 Crew Awareness

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106
Q

A TCAS Resolution Advisory is indicated by

A

Vertical maneuver commands (red and green arcs) on VSI.
 Threat level symbology (red square symbol) on MFD TCAS display
 Vertical maneuver aural warning (i.e.: “Traffic, Climb, Climb”)
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 7, Supplemental Information

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107
Q

When is the ground service bus powered? What is available when using the ground service bus?

A

The ground service bus will be powered when a GPU is powered, plugged into the aircraft, but not selected, and the batteries are off.; Items available while on the ground service bus include the Passenger cabin lights, Lavatory lights, Galley lights, Courtesy lights, Cockpit dome lights, and Baggage/service compartment lights.
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 2-5, Electrical

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108
Q

Can the GPU be used to recharge the main aircraft batteries?

A

No, BC1 and BC2 open automatically when the GPU is selected and supplying power.
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 2-5, Electrica

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109
Q

What items are powered from the inverter via the 115 VAC Bus?

A

Answer: TCAS, EGPWS, and Windshear.
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 2-5, AC System

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110
Q

Which electrical bus supplies power to the ISIS on the 145XR?

A

Answer: The backup battery hot bus.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 2-5, Electrical/2-17, Flight Instruments

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111
Q

Under what conditions are shed buses powered while on the ground assuming the SHED BUS knob is not in the OFF position?

A

With GPU powering the aircraft and the shed bus switch in the auto or override position.
 With at least one generator online and the shed bus in the override position.
 With 3 or more generators online.
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 2-5, Electrical

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112
Q

What criteria must be established to have shed bus power in flight

A

At least 3 generators must be online for shed bus power in flight.
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 2-5, Electrical

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113
Q

Is DME available when is essential power mode?

A

No, but VOR or Localizer based approaches may be flown so long as DME is not required.
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 2-5, Electrical/Section 2-18, Navigation Backup Page

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114
Q

Define the EICAS master warning ELEC ESS XFR FAIL

A

Answer: The electrical system has failed to properly transfer into the essential power mode following a loss of all generators.
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 2-5, EICAS Messages

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115
Q

What does the GPU AVAIL inscription on the GPU button on the overhead panel indicate?

A

The GPU AVAIL inscription indicates that the GPU is properly connected to the aircraft receptacle and some power is available (not necessarily sufficient or stable power).
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 2-5, Controls and Indications

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116
Q

What should be the voltage range of the GPU prior to selecting it?

A

Answer: 26V to 29V
Reference: OM Vol I, Section 2, Power Up Check

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117
Q

What is the purpose of de-selecting the backup battery on the first flight of the day for XR aircraft?

A

Deselecting the backup battery button isolates the backup battery and the backup battery hot bus, which allows for a visual confirmation that the backup battery is charged. This is confirmed by observing the ISIS remaining powered when the system is isolated. If this test is done after selecting the GPU or starting the APU, the backup battery system will not isolate and the test is invalid.
Reference: OM Vol II Section 2-5

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118
Q

When may a circuit breaker be reset in flight and what protocol must be followed prior to doing so?

A

A circuit breaker must not be reset or cycled (i.e., opened or closed) unless doing so is consistent with OM/QRH procedures or unless in the judgment of the PIC, that resetting or cycling of the circuit breaker, is necessary for the safe completion of the flight. If a reset/cycle is attempted, comply with the reset/cycling procedure below.
Circuit Breaker Reset/Cycling Procedure:
 Before attempting to reset/cycle the breaker, a three-minute cool down period is required.
 If the circuit breaker trips again, DO NOT ATTEMPT ANOTHER RESET/CYCLE.
 After completion of the flight, a maintenance discrepancy shall be entered, even if the reset/cycle was successful. Note which circuit breaker tripped, the cool-down period observed, and any relevant configuration or aircraft condition at the time of the circuit breaker trip.
 Resetting the fuel pump circuits for the fuel quantity indicating system circuit breakers is prohibited

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119
Q

What happens when the ESS PWR button is pressed?

A

It forces the electrical system into Essential Power regardless of Electrical Distribution Logic (EDL).
Reference: OM, Vol 2, Section 5

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120
Q

How are the aisle pathways illuminated on the XR, and what charges it?

A

The aisle path lighting is provided from photoluminescent strips. The strips must be charged by allowing an un-obstructed exposure to the normal cabin lighting for 10 minutes on the first flight of the day.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2-4, Receiving Check, OM Vol. 2, Section 6, Emergency Lighting, Photoluminescent Escape Path Lighting System

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121
Q

How long will the emergency lighting last?

A

Answer: The batteries will provide power for approximately 15 minutes.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 6, Emergency Lighting

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122
Q

Is it possible for the flight attendant to activate emergency lighting if the cockpit emergency light switch is set to OFF?

A

Yes, the flight attendant may override the cockpit switch and turn on emergency lighting anytime.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 6, Attendant Emergency Lighting Control Button

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123
Q

Can the emergency light batteries be charged while they are in use?

A

No, the batteries are only charged when the emergency light switch is in the ARM position and the lights are not in use.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 6, Controls and Indicators

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124
Q

When do the emergency lights illuminate automatically in the ARM position?

A

During an electrical emergency with power being supplied by the dedicated batteries.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 6, Emergency Lighting

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125
Q

Will the nosewheel taxi and landing light remain illuminated following gear retraction?

A

No, the lights are automatically extinguished when the nose gear isn’t down and locked.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 6, External Lighting

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126
Q

With the emergency lights in the ARM position, why would an EMG LT NOT ARMD message be presented on the EICAS?

A

This likely indicates that the FA has activated the emergency lights from the forward attendant control panel.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 6, External Lighting

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127
Q

What is the power source of the nosewheel taxi and landing lights?

A

The nosewheel lights are shed bus powered.

Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 5, DC Distribution Tables

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128
Q

Why should the COURTESY LIGHT switch be placed OFF prior to leaving the aircraft?

A

The courtesy lights are powered by hot bus 2; should the main door stay open with the courtesy light switch ON or AUTO, BAT 2 will drain.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 6, Lighting

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129
Q

How can the flight crew determine whether the lavatory fire extinguisher has been used?

A

No cockpit indication is available. The extinguisher is inspected by MX personnel. A visual check of the trash receptacle may be used to verify if the extinguisher has discharged.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 7, Lavatory Fire Protection System

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130
Q

What occurs when the fire handle is pulled?

A

When pulled, the hydraulic, bleed air, engine lip anti-icing and fuel, shutoff valves of the associated engine are closed.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 7, Fire Extinguishing

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131
Q

How many Halon fire extinguishers are available for the engines?

A

2 Halon fire extinguishers are installed and are useable by either engine.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 7, Fire Extinguishing

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132
Q

Is engine fire protection available when the aircraft is de-powered?

A

Yes. Engine fire protection is powered by the hot battery bus.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 7, Fire Protection

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133
Q

Does the EICAS master warning message “LAV SMOKE” appear during a cockpit fire detection test?

A

NO – the lavatory smoke detector can only be tested by the flight attendant.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 7, Fire Overheat/Detection System

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134
Q

What does the EICAS master caution “E1-2 FIRE DET FAIL” mean?

A

The fire detection system of the affected engine has failed. The integrity switch has detected a low-pressure condition in the affected fire loop.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 7, Fire Overheat/Detection System

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135
Q

What messages will be presented on the EICAS after discharging halon into engine #1 using the A bottle?

A

E1 EXTBTLA INOP and E2 EXTBTLA INOP due to low bottle pressure.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 7

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136
Q

What are the indications of a successful Fire Detection Test?

A

ENG 1(2) FIRE EICAS warning message
 APU FIRE EICAS warning message
 BAGG SMOKE EICAS warning message
 E1(2) FIREDET FAIL EICAS caution message
 APU FIREDET FAIL EICAS caution message
 Master Warning and Master Caution buttons illuminated
 Both fire handles illuminated
 BAGG EXTG Button illuminated
 Aural Fire Bell
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 2; First Flight Check

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137
Q

What action is required if the BAGG EXTG button remains illuminated after the Fire Detection Test?

A

Repeat the fire detection test. Wait at least 6 seconds before pressing the test button again for at least 2 seconds.
Reference: OM Vol 1, Section 2; First Flight Check

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138
Q

What happens when the cross-feed valve is placed to LOW 1?

A

The pump turns off in tank 1 and the cross-feed valve opens.

Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 8, Fuel

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139
Q

Is a takeoff allowed with the Fuel Imbalance EICAS message displayed?

A

Yes, as long as the fuel imbalance limitation is not exceeded (800 lbs.). The EICAS message remains illuminated until the imbalance is within 100 lb. If the XFEED remains out of the OFF position below 100lbs imbalance then the FUEL EQ XFEED OPEN message will be presented.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 8, Fuel

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140
Q

What does the EICAS warning FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL mean?

A

460 lbs of fuel remains in the respective tank (less than 30 minutes).
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 8, Fuel

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141
Q

When does ventral tank transfer occur on the EMB-145XR?

A

Automatic fuel transfer from the ventral tank to the main wing tanks occurs when both wing tanks have a quantity less than 4630 lbs. each for at least 30 seconds.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 8, Ventral Tank Fuel Transfer System

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142
Q

Tank 1 has 3500 lbs. Tank 2 has 3700 lbs. How should the cross-feed switch be positioned to balance fuel?

A

The switch should be set to LOW 1 until the fuel imbalance is less than 100lbs.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 8, Cross feed Operation

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143
Q

Is it possible to transfer fuel between the main wing tanks?

A

No, fuel cannot be transferred between the two wing tanks (except by MX action).
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 8, Cross feed Operation

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144
Q

What happens if the selected fuel pump fails?

A

The remaining wing pumps are automatically switched on and start cycling until the pilot selects one of them.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 8, Engine and APU Fuel Distribution and Control

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145
Q

Is fuel cross feed available without normal DC power?

A

Yes, the valve is essentially powered.

Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 5, DC Distribution Tables

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146
Q

Can you transfer fuel from the Ventral tank and cross feed at the same time?

A

No, Cross feed operation inhibits ventral transfer.

Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 8, Fuel

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147
Q

At what fuel order would you expect to see Ventral fuel added?

A

Answer: Fuel orders over 10,470 lb.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 8, Fuel

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148
Q

When is cross feed operation permitted?

A

During all phases of operation except for takeoff and go-around.
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 8

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149
Q

Which fuel tank normally supplies fuel to the APU (assuming no cross-feed operation is taking place)?

A

The right fuel tank

Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 8

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150
Q

When should the crew advise ATC of a minimum fuel status?

A

When unanticipated circumstances may result in landing at the destination or alternate (if required) with less than reserve fuel.
Reference: FOM, Section 9-1.9, Minimum/Emergency Fuel

151
Q

When the fuel quantity indicating system is MEL’d, is the FUEL LO LEVEL EICAS message valid if illuminated

A

Yes, the FUEL LO LEVEL message illuminates based on the actual fuel in the respective fuel tank from the low-level sensor and not based on the fuel values presented on the EICAS page.
Reference: OM Vol.2, Section 8

152
Q

Is it acceptable to depart the gate with less than planned fuel?

A

The aircraft can leave the gate with less than planned (minimum takeoff fuel plus taxi) if the crew anticipates that MINF will not be compromised before takeoff.
Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2-7, Engine Start Check

153
Q

What is the fueling tolerance for ERJ aircraft?

A

The fuel loaded on the aircraft may not exceed the gate fuel figure listed on the Dispatch Release unless this amount is amended in cooperation with the Dispatcher. If during the fueling process, the fueler loads more fuel than ordered, the PIC does not have to contact Dispatch if the excess fuel amount does not exceed 400 lbs.
Reference: FOM, Section 4, Fuel

154
Q

Are Hot Fueling Operations allowed at XJT?

A

Yes; follow instructions in the QRH in the Normal Supplemental Information section.
Reference: FOM, Section 5, Fueling

155
Q

What technique may be used to determine Decision fuel over a flight planned waypoint?

A

Look at present waypoint flight planned fuel on the release and subtract Hold, Contingency and Extra fuel. This will leave you with Burn to destination plus Alternate (if required) plus Reserve.
Reference: FOM, Section 4, Fuel

156
Q

When should “minimum fuel” be declared?

A

Minimum fuel should be declared when it is determined that a landing at the destination (or alternate, as applicable) will be made with less than the planned reserve fuel listed on the Dispatch Release.
Reference: FOM, Section 9, Emergency Operations

157
Q

What are some examples of when the PIC is required to notify the dispatcher about a change from the planned release?

A
  • Route deviations adding more than 15 minutes to the ETE,
  • Altitude changes if fuel-planning computations increase the planned fuel burn causing the depletion of the Contingency (CONTG) and Statistical Contingency Fuel/Tanker (SCF/TNK) fuel not burned prior to takeoff,
  • Any change that will cause the flight to arrive at the destination or designated alternate airport with less than minimum FAR fuel reserves, a change in destination or alternate weather.
  • Any diversion to an alternate airport, unless previously discussed with the Dispatcher.
  • Any change in the intended destination or designated alternate airport.
  • Any condition that affects the safety of the flight.
    Reference: FOM, Section 4, Flight Planning
158
Q

What minimum fuel is required for takeoff when utilizing a CDR?

A

MINF for that CDR; the MINF figure is the MIN (RLS) figure minus the HOLD fuel figure based on the CDR routing.
Reference: FOM, Section 4, Dispatch/Flight Release

159
Q

When should “Emergency Fuel” be declared?

A

“Emergency Fuel” should be declared when less than 30 minutes of fuel is remaining. As a quick way to estimate 30 minutes of fuel remaining, take your FAR 45 minute reserve number (found on release) and multiply by .67. NOTE: In foreign airspace, ATC may not be familiar with the terminology, “emergency fuel.” Utilize the term “Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, Fuel.”

Reference: FOM, Section 9, Emergency Operations

160
Q

What controls the APU?

A

A FADEC.

Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 9, General

161
Q

What will the APU shut down for automatically on the ground? In flight?

A

On the ground, essentially any malfunction (Fire, after 10 seconds), in flight, anything not heat related.
Reference: OM Vol. 2, Section 9, General

162
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage for attempting an APU start?

A

19.0 V

Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Power Up Check

163
Q

What power sources may be used to start the APU?

A

Three power sources may be used to start the APU: a GPU, battery 2 alone or battery 2 assisted by the main generators. Battery 1 cannot be used for APU starting

164
Q

What will occur if a fire is detected in the APU compartment while on the ground?

A

An automatic shutdown will occur 10 seconds after a fire is detected.

165
Q

What is the procedure for stopping the APU?

A

Press the STOP button, monitor deceleration to 0% RPM. At 0% RPM, select the APU master knob to the OFF position.

166
Q

If the APU fails to start during refueling, what should be done?

A

Complete refueling prior to another start attempt. Do not attempt to start the APU before fuel hose is disconnected.

167
Q

After landing, once parked at the gate, there is no GPU available. The APU is started to supply power to the aircraft. How long must the crew wait till the engine can be shut down?

A

To prevent spurious over-currents in the electrical system, engines must not be shut down concurrently with starting the APU. A minimum one minute interval between those two procedures is required.

168
Q

Explain the start sequence of the engine

A

After selecting START, verify N2 rotation within 10 seconds and oil pressure rise. At approximately 14% N2, verify ignition on. At approximately 28.5% N2 or 12 seconds after ignition is activated, verify fuel flow and then monitor ITT for light-off (within 10 seconds of fuel flow) and verify N1 rotation. Fuel flow and ITT indications should increase at approximately 31.5% N2. Monitor ITT, N2 and oil pressure throughout the start so as not to exceed normal parameters. The engine start cycle ends at 57% N2.

169
Q

When positioning the START/STOP selector knob from STOP to START, how long should the knob be paused in the RUN position prior to START?

A

When positioning the START/STOP selector knob from STOP to START, pause for 2 seconds in the RUN position prior to selecting START.

170
Q

How is light-off recognized during engine starts?

A

Light-off occurs when the digital numbers on the ITT indicator increases

171
Q

When should the ignition be placed to ON?

A

If standing water, ice, slush or snow is present on the runway for takeoff
 When the temperature is below 10°C and the engines have been shut down for more than 90 minutes.
 As directed per the QRH

172
Q

What are the minimum oil quantities needed for takeoff?

A

The minimum recommended oil quantities for engine start are 8 quarts when leaving a hub or 7 quarts when leaving an outstation. The minimum recommended oil quantity for takeoff is 6 quarts. If the oil quantity falls below 6 quarts after engine start, contact maintenance.

173
Q

When should the engine start be aborted?

A

No light off within 10 seconds after first fuel flow indications (on ground only)
 ITT approaches start limit (start cycle is up to approximately 57% N2)
 N2 decreases or remains steady for more than 30 seconds (Hung Start)
 N2 indicates no rotation up to 10 seconds after the start command
 Any unusual noise or vibration
 Engine instruments indicate abnormal conditions
 Flames are visible from the exhaust pipe
 Oil pressure does not reach at least 34 psi after the engine reaches stabilized idle

174
Q

With what EICAS messages should the takeoff be aborted?

A 
E1 (2) ATTCS NO MRGN
 E1 (2) LOW N1
 ENG 1(2) REV DISAGREE
 ENG 1(2) REV FAIL
 ICE COND-A/I INOP
175
Q

Are any of the above messages inhibited during the takeoff roll?

A

E1 (2) ATTCS NO MRGN: inhibited during takeoff and approach/landing
 E1 (2) LOW N1: inhibited during takeoff and approach/landing
 ENG 1(2) REV DISAGREE: inhibited during takeoff and approach/landing
 ENG 1(2) REV FAIL: inhibited during takeoff and approach/landing
 ICE COND-A/I INOP: inhibited during takeoff and approach/landing
Takeoff phase is inhibited when the airplane passes V1 minus 15 KIAS; messages can appear prior to this speed

176
Q

What are indications of Severe Damage?

A

No N1 rotation, High ITT, High Vibration, High Oil Temperature, Low Oil Quantity, High Oil Pressure, E1 (2) FIRE DET FAIL messages, smoke, abnormal noise or vibration

177
Q

Although ideally there would be none, what type of fluid could be present in the sight gauge underneath the engine?

A

Oil, fuel, hydraulic, water. Even though these fluids may be present in the sight glass, unless there is fluid dripping from the holes around the sight glass mast, there is no need to call maintenance.

178
Q

Of the following thrust ratings, which is not selectable via the T/O data setting function? ALT-T/O, T/O, E-T/O, T/O-RSV

A

T/O-RSV

179
Q

What thrust ratings are available for the XR using the T/O data setting function?

A

ALT-T/O, T/O, E-T/O.

180
Q

Where can engine oil quantity be monitored?

A

MFD T/O page

181
Q

What components are located in the engine’s accessory gearbox?

A

2 Engine Driven Generators, Oil Pump, Hydraulic Pump, Fuel Pump, Permanent Magnet Alternator, Air Turbine Starter

182
Q

What happens when a thrust reverser deploys in flight?

A

The FADEC reduces the engine thrust to idle, however the thrust lever will not actually move

183
Q

What happens to the engine when the FADEC in control fails?

A

The other FADEC takes over control of the engine

184
Q

What happens when both FADECs for an engine fails?

A

An engine shutdown would occur. The engine requires at least one FADEC to operate.

185
Q

When the landing gear is lowered below 15,000’, which target thrust rating will the FADEC default to?

A

The highest thrust rating a pilot would be able to select for takeoff which is T/O for A1P and A1/3 engines and E-T/O for A1E engines. In the event the detent is passed (such as during a go-around), the FADEC for the A1P and A1/3 engines will then command T/O-RSV thrust while the A1E will still command E-T/O thrust.

186
Q

Should an Engine Start Procedure be aborted if E1(2) ATS SOV OPN EICAS message is presented

A

NO. Allow the engine to run and follow the QRH procedures

187
Q

Which hydraulic accumulator is responsible for supplying hydraulic pressure for emergency brake applications?

A

System #2 accumulator

188
Q

During normal flight, the engine driven hydraulic pump supplies a total pressure output of _______ psi.

A

3,000 psi.

189
Q

Assuming both engines running with the electric hydraulic pump knob in the AUTO position, what is the status of the electric hydraulic pumps?

A

The pump is kept in standby until the engine driven pump pressure drops below a set amount or the associated engine N2 drops below a certain value.

190
Q

Can the hydraulic system temperature be monitored on the EICAS or MFD’s?

A

No.

191
Q

The ailerons are normally actuated by which hydraulic system(s)?

A

System 1 and System 2.

192
Q

Can the hydraulic quantity for system 1 and system 2 be monitored?

A

Can the hydraulic quantity for system 1 and system 2 be monitored?

193
Q

In normal cruise flight conditions, the electric hydraulic pumps are producing a psi output of ___________.

A

0 psi

194
Q

The nose wheel steering is hydraulically powered by which hydraulic system?

A

Hydraulic System 1.

195
Q

During a hydraulic system test, what is the first step in performing the test?

A

Ensure that the nose wheel steering is disengaged by verifying the STEER INOP message is presented on the EICAS.

196
Q

On the nose landing gear tires, the tire chines are mounted outboard or inboard?

A

Outboard.

197
Q

What protections are available during normal braking?

A

Anti-skid protection, Locked Wheel protection and Touch-down protection.

198
Q

What is anti-skid protection?

A

Anti-skid protection controls the amount of hydraulic pressure applied by the pilots on the brakes. The anti-skid provides the maximum allowable braking effort for the runaway surface in use. It minimizes tire wear, optimizes braking distance, and prevents skidding. It is only not available if using the emergency brake

199
Q

What is locked wheel protection?

A

Locked wheel protection is activated for wheel speeds above 30 kts. It compares wheel speeds signals. If one wheel speed is 30% lower than that of another, a full brake pressure relief is commanded to the associated wheel, allowing wheel speed recovery. The 30% tolerance between the wheel speeds is provided to permit an amount of differential braking, for steering purposes.

200
Q

What is touch-down protection?

A

Touch-down protection inhibits brake actuation before the main wheels spin up during landing. Brake actuation will be allowed only after 3 seconds from the latest touchdown or after the wheels have spun-up to 50 kts. In bouncing landings, the countdown is reset after each runway contact

201
Q

When using the emergency brakes, do you have the anti-skid, locked wheel and touchdown protections?

A

No.

202
Q

In essential power mode, is nose wheel steering available?

A

No.

203
Q

When operating the emergency brakes, hydraulic pressure is applied to which brakes?

A

All main gear brakes

204
Q

The System 2 accumulator has enough stored hydraulic pressure to supply a total of ____ emergency actuations or ____ hours of continuous parking brake actuation? How can hydraulic pressure to the parking brake be verified?

A

6 emergency actuations or 24 hours of continuous parking brake actuation. A BRAKE ON indicating light illuminates to indicate that pressure is being applied to the wheel brakes.

205
Q

What does the Free-Fall actuator do?

A

It requires no electrical or hydraulic power to extend the landing gear. It extends the gear by mechanically actuating the Free-Fall Selector Valve, thus removing hydraulic pressure and unlocking the three landing gear uplocks via cable linkage. All three gear then gravity fall to their downlock positions.

206
Q

With a total loss of hydraulic system #1, will the landing gear deploy/operate normally?

A

No. In this case, the landing gear free fall actuator would be used to lower the gear

207
Q

When in essential power mode would you have normal braking?

A

Yes.

208
Q

Nose wheel tire rotation is stopped by ________.

A

A Mechanical snubber upon retraction.

209
Q

In essential power, how is the landing gear extended?

A

Normally.

210
Q

If the gear is not down and locked, under what conditions will the landing gear aural warning alert pilots?

A

table in OM vol 2 2-12 landing gear and brakes

211
Q

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Electrical Override switch?

A

The electrical override system is used to extend the landing gear should there be a normal landing gear extension failure. The system bypasses the LGEU (Landing Gear Electronic Unit) and directly actuates the landing gear electrovalve and the nose gear doors solenoid valve.

212
Q

What is manual reversion as it refers to the flight controls and which flight controls can function in manual reversion?

A

The ailerons and rudder are normally assisted hydraulically. Manual reversion is the actuation of the aileron and/or rudder without hydraulic assistance

213
Q

True/False. The flaps are powered by DC power

A

The ailerons and rudder are normally assisted hydraulically. Manual reversion is the actuation of the aileron and/or rudder without hydraulic assistance.

214
Q

True/False. The flaps are powered by DC power

A

True, the two flap motors responsible for flap actuation are DC powered.

215
Q

What flap settings may be used for normal landing procedures in the EMB-135/145?

A

Flaps 22° and Flaps 45°

216
Q

When will the ground spoilers open automatically?

A

When the airplane is on the ground (WOW), with wheel speed >25 knots and a low TLA.

217
Q

The EICAS message “FLAP LOW SPEED” is a result of a loss of ____

A

One of the flap motors.

218
Q

True/False: The gust lock prevents the movement of the ailerons

A

False, the gust lock restricts the elevator from moving

219
Q

The EICAS caution message “RUDDER OVERBOOST” means?

A

Both rudder systems hydraulic actuators are pressurized above 135 KIAS. Rudder hydraulic system 1 was not automatically deactivated above 135 KIAS. The QRH should be utilized

220
Q

True/False: The speedbrakes will not open if the flaps are extended to flaps 22°.

A

true

221
Q

True/False: ExpressJet allows takeoffs to be made with flap 22° selected.

A

True. Flaps 9, 18, and 22 are the approved takeoff flaps settings for ExpressJet aircraft however Flaps 22 takeoffs may not be conducted in the XR models

222
Q

What are the requirements for the speedbrakes to be open?

A

The flap lever must be at 0° or 9°, the speedbrake lever must be selected to OPEN, and a low TLA.

223
Q

True/False: Pitch trim is accomplished by positioning the horizontal stabilizer

A

True, by positioning the horizontal stabilizer

224
Q

How should the electromechanical Gust Lock be unlocked?

A

To unlock the elevator:
 Release the gust lock lever to the intermediate position.
 The GUST LOCK indication lights will illuminate during pin movement and extinguish when unlocked.
 After approximately 10 seconds, the locking pins will open and the elevators will be unlocked.
 When the GUST LOCK indication lights are extinguished, pull the control column backwards to any position between neutral and full nose up.
 Move the gust lock lever from the intermediate position to its full forward FREE position.
 The First Officer’s hand must remain on the Gust Lock during the entire unlocking procedure (e.g. do not continue the Before Takeoff flow with the Gust Lock in the intermediate position)

225
Q

How should the Flight Controls be Checked Prior to Takeoff?

A

Check full movement and freedom of the ailerons. Ten seconds after the gust lock is positioned to the full forward (FREE) position, move the control column to the full up (aft) stop, the full down (forward) stop, and back to the full up stop position. This check must be performed each time the gust lock is set to the FREE position.
WARNING: IT IS POSSIBLE TO PERFORM THE FLIGHT CONTROLS CHECK WITH THE GUST LOCK IN THE INTERMEDIATE POSITION. CREWS MUST ENSURE THE GUST LOCK IS RELEASED TO THE FULL FORWARD, FREE POSITION PRIOR TO CHECKING THE FLIGHT CONTROLS

226
Q

How would the bleeds and packs be configured for a takeoff using ALT-T/O thrust if the crew elects to shut down the APU prior to takeoff?

A

Engine bleeds open, APU bleed closed, XBleed Auto, PACKS on

227
Q

How would the bleeds and packs be configured for an icing takeoff?

A

Engine bleeds open, APU bleed closed, XBleed Auto, PACKS on.

228
Q

How would the bleeds and packs be configured for a takeoff using T/O or E-T/O thrust in non-icing conditions if the crew wants to ensure the PACKS operate during takeoff?

A

Using T/O or E-TO on engine bleeds may cause the PACKS to turn off. The crew can use the APU to power the PACKS during a non-icing takeoff. Engine bleeds closed, APU bleed open, XBleed open, PACKS on.

229
Q

With the XBLEED knob in the AUTO position, when will the XBLEED valve open automatically

A

When an engine is being started using a pneumatic source from the other side of the system. (e.g. cross bleed start, Engine #2 start using APU bleed, Engine #1 start using external air source)
All ExpressJet aircraft are “post-mod” so the statement in OM Vol. 2 regarding the XBLEED valve operating for Horizontal Stabilizer Anti-Icing DOES NOT apply

230
Q

Regarding the priority logic of the available bleed sources, if the APU bleed was selected open, what would occur after opening the engine 1 bleed valve?

A

The APU bleed valve would close

231
Q

What are the indications of a bleed leak?

A

A red ‘LEAK’ inscription appears over the button of the affected bleed. Additionally, the EICAS BLD 1(2) LEAK master warning will be presented.

232
Q

What indications would be visible on the APU bleed valve button if the APU is OFF and the APU bleed valve is selected open?

A

A white line only. The ‘OPEN’ inscription would not be visible

233
Q

While taxiing in icing conditions, is it possible for the APU bleed to be used on the ground for the PACKS while simultaneously using engine lip anti-ice protection?

A

Yes, the bleed air used for engine lip anti-ice protection does not require the engine bleed valve to be open.

234
Q

For non-icing takeoffs using T/O or E-T/O thrust, is it mandatory that the APU be used as a pneumatic source for the PACKs during takeoff?

A

No, the crew may elect to utilize an APU-off takeoff regardless of planned thrust/anti-icing configuration, for operational or fuel conservation purposes.

235
Q

What is the procedure for a cross bleed engine start?

A

The aircraft must be stopped with the parking brake set. Prior to commencing the cross-bleed start, ensure that the bleed of the operating engine is selected open, the bleed of the engine to be started is closed, the APU bleed is closed and the cross-bleed knob is AUTO or OPEN. Increase the N2 to 83% on the operating engine and position the START/STOP selector knob from STOP to START. Pause for 2 seconds in the RUN position prior to selecting START.

236
Q

How would the PACKS operate in icing conditions at 2000’ AGL in CLB thrust?

A

PACK 1 is off and PACK 2 is on.

237
Q

How would the PACKS operate during a go-around at 1100 AGL?

A

Both PACKS would turn off

238
Q

What altitude must be set in the pressurization controller?

A

The landing elevation

239
Q

What is the maximum operational altitude with one PACK inoperative?

A

FL250

240
Q

During a takeoff in icing conditions, when will pressurization begin?

A

The cabin will begin to pressurize when the thrust is set for takeoff

241
Q

What is the function of the DUMP button on the automatic pressurization controller? Will the DUMP button work if the Digital Controller is set to Manual Mode?

A

The DUMP button will de-pressurize the cabin of the aircraft to an altitude of 14,500’ MSL or to the actual altitude of the aircraft, whichever is lower.
No. The DUMP button will only work if the Digital Controller is in AUTO mode.

242
Q

What is the purpose of the pressurization/ static ports located on the lower / rear portion of the fuselage?

A

The purpose of the pressurization/static ports is to provide over- pressure/under-pressure relief should the cabin differential exceed 8.1 psi or -0.3 psi.

243
Q

What are the Ram Air Doors and when would they open?

A

NACA vents on the underside of the fuselage. Ram air doors in the “emergency” position allow ambient air to flow into the cabin but will not pressurize the cabin. They open/go to emergency position any time the aircraft is in flight with both PACKS off.

244
Q

Where are the Holdover Time Charts located?

A

In the EFB, Under “All Pilots” > “FAA Holdover Time Guide”. This document will be updated each winter

245
Q

When must a tactile (hand on wing) check be accomplished during the walk around?

A

Whenever the OAT is less than 6°C and one of the following conditions exist:
 Visible moisture is present
 Water is present on the wing
 The difference between dew point and OAT is 3°C or less
 The atmospheric conditions have been conducive to frost formation

246
Q

What anti-ice fluid must be used when operating in conditions with ice pellets adhering to the aircraft?

A

Only undiluted Type IV fluid may be used during operations in ice pellets.

247
Q

T/F During operations in Ice Pellets, the FAA TYPE IV Time Guideline may be used for HOT?

A

False, an allowance time must be derived using the Ice Pellet Allowance Times Tables

248
Q

What information must the captain collect if deicing/anti-icing occurred?

A

Fluid type, fluid product name, mixture ratio, time when the final deicing/anti-icing application began

249
Q

Is it allowable to be manually deiced while the engines are operating?

A

no

250
Q

Is it allowable to use cold forced air for loose snow removal from aircraft surfaces?

A

Yes; however, this does not replace the need for de/anti-icing procedures.

251
Q

If operating in active ground icing and an abort is accomplished after initiating a takeoff roll, is it allowable to initiate another takeoff if within the original HOT?

A

No, prior to initiating an additional takeoff, the aircraft must be deiced and, if ground icing conditions will exist for the subsequent takeoff, anti-iced.

252
Q

Who has ultimate responsibility for determining whether the aircraft is free of contamination and complies with the clean aircraft concept?

A

pic

253
Q

T/F Take off during moderate or heavy freezing rain is permitted?

A

false

254
Q

What are some indications of anti-icing fluid failure?

A

The fluid begins to appear opaque rather than transparent and glossy; the ability to discern structural details (screws, rivets, seams) through the fluid is no longer apparent

255
Q

Where can the crew find instructions on how to configure the aircraft during de-icing/anti-icing operations?

A

QRH

256
Q

What steps should be taken if the EICAS message E1(2) A/ICE FAIL is displayed while taxing in ground operations while in icing or while in cruise flight with thrust levers towards idle?

A

Advance the thrust levers to see if the EICAS message goes away and the OPEN inscriptions for the engine anti-ice valves remain open.

257
Q

When must ENG REF ANTI-ICE be selected ON when storing the takeoff data?

A

If icing conditions (temperature on the ground is ≤10ºC and visible moisture is present, or standing water, ice, slush or snow is present on taxiways or runway) are present from liftoff to 1700’ AGL.

258
Q

Where should the Ice Detection Override Knob be selected after the normal after start flow while taxing in icing conditions? How should the pneumatic panel be configured while taxiing in icing conditions?

A

ENG; For Passenger comfort, the APU may be used to supply pneumatic air for pack operation while taxiing in icing conditions; engine lip anti-ice does not require the EBVs to be selected open to operate normally

259
Q

What are some items to consider when taxiing in icing conditions?

A

PPG Windshields: windshield heat should be selected ON
 Ice Detection Override knob should be selected to ENG
o ENG 1(2) A/ICE FAIL may be present which should clear as thrust is increased
 Avoid taxiing in deep snow
 Taxi with flaps up
 Nosewheel steering should be exercised in both directions
 Maintain greater distance from aircraft ahead
 Monitor engine vibration
Reference: OM Volume 1 Section 5, Flight Operations in Icing Conditions

260
Q

What are some items to consider for takeoff in icing conditions?

A

Engine Ignition should be placed to ON if standing water, ice slush or snow is present on the runway
 If the runway condition is such that the flight crew feels the ability of the aircraft to accelerate could be degraded, select the maximum available takeoff thrust setting
 Both engine bleeds must be open

261
Q

When climbing in icing conditions, what are the preferred flight guidance control panel modes of operation?

A

FLC mode provides sufficient stall protection. If using SPD or VS modes, ensure that the airspeed does not drop below 200 KIAS or .56M

262
Q

When is the wing and horizontal stabilizer anti-ice protection inhibited?

A

On the ground with a wheel speed < 25 knots

263
Q

What differences are found in the XR anti-ice systems compared to the other EMB-135/145 variants?

A

The 145XR upper wing surface contains DC-powered clear ice detectors that function on the ground only.

264
Q

When will the clear ice detectors on the 145XR trigger a CLR ICE EICAS message?

A

On the ground only, when clear ice is detected on the upper surface of the wing.

265
Q

What is the functionality of engine lip anti-ice protection in the essential power configuration with a loss of all generators?

A

The engine lip anti-ice system operates continuously and cannot be turned off. The engine-lip anti-ice valve is DC powered and fails open.

266
Q

During essential power with a loss of all generators, is wing and stabilizer anti-ice protection available?

A

No, the Wing & Stabilizer Anti-Ice valves are DC powered and fail closed.

267
Q

During Ice Test A, where should the Ice-Detection Override knob be positioned and how long should the test switch be held on each side?

A

The Override Knob should be placed in the ALL position and the test switch must be held in each position for at least 10 seconds, and no longer than 15 seconds

268
Q

How are the bleeds configured for a takeoff in icing conditions?

A

The engine bleeds should be open and the APU bleed should be closed.

269
Q

Is it possible to use the APU bleed for air conditioning while taxiing in icing conditions?

A

Yes. The APU bleed may be used to provide air conditioning. The engine lip anti-icing bleed air is tapped off prior to the engine bleed valve. For this reason, the engine bleed may be closed during a taxi in icing conditions

270
Q

When is engine lip anti-ice required?

A

Whenever the temperature is less than or equal to 10°C and at least one form of visible moisture is present.

271
Q

What should be checked when conducting Ice Test A?

A

For each side, separately, check that the OPEN inscriptions in the deice valve buttons are illuminated and that ICE DET 1 (2) FAIL and BLD 1 (2) LOW TEMP caution messages and the ICE CONDITION advisory message are displayed on the EICAS.
Reference: OM Vol.1, Section 2, Before Takeoff Check

272
Q

What should be checked when conducting the in-fight portion of Ice Test B?

A

Select the Ice Detection Override knob to ALL for 20 seconds and check that the OPEN inscriptions in the buttons are illuminated and the NO ICE-A/ICE ON caution message is displayed on the EICAS.

273
Q

At what altitude and temperature range should the in-fight portion of Ice Test B be accomplished?

A

From 2,000’ AGL to 23,000’ MSL and a TAT less than 10°C

274
Q

What differences exist between the oxygen mask testing procedures for the CA/FO and the ACM?

A

The ACM does not have a dedicated test sliding control or a flow indicator installed on the oxygen mask storage box. The ACM test must be accomplished by momentarily placing the mask in the EMER mode while listening for the flow of oxygen through the speaker on the CA or FO side. One pilot must have their digital audio panel configured as follows: PTT yoke switch set to HOT, BOOM selected out to MASK, SPKR OFF.

275
Q

How can the crew be assured that the oxygen bottle pressure regulating shutoff valve is ON?

A

By inspecting the cylinder head located behind the FO seat in the cockpit. Reference: OM Vol. 1, Section 2, Before Start Check

276
Q

What supplies oxygen to the flight crew while wearing the oxygen mask?

A

The fixed oxygen cylinder

277
Q

What is the minimum pressure of the portable oxygen bottle allowed for dispatch?

A

1200 psi.

278
Q

What will occur if the passenger oxygen selector knob is set to MANUAL?

A

The oxygen masks will deploy immediately, regardless of cabin altitude.

279
Q

What is the purpose of the green discharge indicator on the fuselage, adjacent to the oxygen service panel?

A

The green discharge indicator provides evidence of over-servicing of the oxygen cylinder if it is missing/blown out.

280
Q

Where can crews look to determine whether sufficient oxygen is onboard for 2 or 3 crewmembers on the flightdeck?

A

Flightdeck Reference Guide: Minimum Flight Crew Oxygen Pressure table or on EFB>Company Manuals> EMB135-145. There is also a table located on the inside cover of the crew oxygen service panel

281
Q

The standby instruments receive information from which aircraft pitot/static source?

A

Pitot/Static tube 3.

282
Q

The ISIS is powered by what power source on the LR / XR?

A

The ISIS is connected to an Essential DC Bus on the LR aircraft and the Backup Hot Bus on the XR aircraft

283
Q

When does the DFDR begin recording?

A

When the red beacon is switched ON or when the airplane becomes airborne.

284
Q

What do the different colors on the low speed awareness tape mean?

A

White indicates the speed range from 1.23Vs to 1.13Vs. Amber indicates the speed range from 1.13Vs to Vs. Red indicates Vs.

285
Q

What color of the low speed awareness tape indicates stick pusher actuation?

A

The stick pusher actuates in the red range.

286
Q

The airspeed and altitude trend vectors indicate approximately how many seconds of trend indication, respectively?

A

The airspeed trend vector provides a 10-second trend indication while the altitude trend vector provides a 6-second indication.

287
Q

While flying an approach fully configured you notice that Target speed, as calculated by Aerodata, is 3 KIAS below the top of the white range on the low speed awareness tape. What would you do to fly the appropriate target speed?

A

Computed target speeds should result in speeds above the white arc on the low speed awareness tape (1.13 – 1.23 Vs). If there is a discrepancy between computed target speed and the low speed awareness tape, the low speed awareness tape shall be used to keep the aircraft at a safe flying speed for approach. If workload permits, reset the VREF speed to the top of the white arc and the target speed to 5 KIAS above VREF

288
Q

When will the low altitude awareness tape be displayed on the altimeter?

A

Below 550 feet of Radio Altitude the brown, low altitude awareness band will be displayed on the bottom of the altitude tape.

289
Q

When will the Radio Altitude be displayed in the bottom of the EADI?

A

When the aircrafts Radio Altitude is at or below 2500’.

290
Q

What would an amber RA displayed on the PFDs indicate?

A

An amber RA is displayed when a difference between the on-side and cross side radio altitude is greater than a set point which is variable with radio altitude.

291
Q

What may cause the CAT 2 annunciation to turn amber on the PFDs?

A

If all CAT 2 conditions are met, a green CAT 2 annunciation is displayed on the PFDs. If any of the required conditions for establishing CAT 2 goes invalid, the green CAT 2 will be replaced by flashing amber CAT 2 annunciation. It will flash for ten seconds and then go steady. Not to be memorized, examples of conditions required to obtain the CAT 2 annunciation: RA valid on both PFDs, Flaps 22°, LOC and GS valid on both PFDs, No Reversions being used on both PFDs, CAT II DH set >80’ & <200’ on both DCPs, Autopilot engaged, etc.

292
Q

What does the emergency button (EMER) on the digital audio panel do?

A

Disables to interphone and isolates the flightcrew by connecting the Captain directly to COM 1 and NAV 1 and the First Officer directly to COM 2 and NAV 2. ACM radio communication capability is lost.

293
Q

Will the tuning backup control head (TBCH) remain powered in essential power?

A

No, it is powered by DC Bus 2.

294
Q

How can the weather radar be brought out of FSBY on the ground?

A

The weather radar is in forced standby mode while on the ground. This forced standby mode may be overridden by pushing the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds.

295
Q

What is the function of the GAIN knob?

A

The GAIN knob can be used to vary the sensitivity of the receiver. This will also result in a variance of color intensity displayed for a radar return

296
Q

What mode can be used to display areas where all radar energy has been attenuated?

A

The REACT, or Rain Echo Attenuation Compensation Technique mode changes the background field from black to cyan. Cyan areas should be avoided. Any target detected inside a cyan area should be considered very dangerous

297
Q

Where does the standby airspeed indicator receive its pitot/static information from?

A

Pitot/Static 3 provides dynamic pressure to the standby airspeed indicator

298
Q

What are the different phases of flight of the FMS lateral deviation scale?

A

There are three phases of flight pertaining to the lateral scale of the FMS:
 Approach(APP): within 2 NM of FAF (non-precision approaches)
 Terminal(TERM): within 30 NM of departure or destination points
 Enroute(no indication): beyond 30 NM of departure and destination points

299
Q

What does the DR (Amber) annunciation on the FMS CDU mean?

A

DR (Dead Reckoning) illuminates when a loss of radio updating occurs, as well as other position sensors, for a period longer than 2 minutes

300
Q

What does the DGRAD (Amber) annunciation on the FMS CDU mean?

A

DGRAD (Degrade) illuminates when the FMS cannot guarantee the position accuracy for the present phase of flight.

301
Q

How would you perform a Hold at Present Position using the FMZ-2000?

A

A “hold-at-present-position” (PPOS) can be established if LNAV is presently captured and the crosstrack error is less than .25 NM. Stated differently, the aircraft is on course and being guided by the FMS. Depressing the “DIR” function key, selecting “PATTERN”, then “HOLD” on the “PATERN” page, and finally line-selecting “HOLD” (scratchpad) to the FROM waypoint will set up a standard holding pattern at the aircraft’s present position. Desired changes to the pattern can then be made.

302
Q

What happens to the VPI scale when transitioning to APP mode?

A

VPI scale changes from 250 feet per dot to 75 feet per dot.

303
Q

What vertical speed does FLC give you in a descent above 12,000 feet?

A

2,000 FPM.

304
Q

When pressing the TOGA buttons on the ground

A

T/O mode is activated on the flight director with 14-degrees pitch up (or 13-degrees pitch up if flaps 18 is selected). ROL and TO are displayed on the FMA

305
Q

On non-XR aircraft, above 12,000’ in FLC, the aircraft climbs at what speed?

A

270 KIAS until MACH 0.56.

306
Q

Which Display Control Panel button should be pressed to display FMS course data on the PFD?

A

fms

307
Q

The aircraft heading must be within ___° of the final approach course (front course) prior to selecting the APR or NAV mode

A

90°

308
Q

What actions will disconnect the autopilot?

A

Pilot actuation of any pitch trim switch(main or back-up), pressing the ‘AP’ or ‘YD’ button on the Flight Guidance Control Panel’, pressing the Quick Disconnect Button.

309
Q

During climb, FLC works just like:

A

IAS/Mach hold mode but with preset speeds.

310
Q

True/False: The yaw damper is automatically turned on when the autopilot is engaged.

A

true

311
Q

What pitch attitude does the GA flight guidance mode present immediately after being armed (airspeed above the white band of the low speed awareness tape)?

A

10 degrees

312
Q

The flight-guidance DES mode is programmed to function like

A

VS mode but with preset vertical speeds.

313
Q

Crews must verify the autopilot is coupled to the PF by looking at the _____.

A

Couple Arrow on the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA).

314
Q

What is the default vertical flight guidance mode?

A

PIT (pitch).

315
Q

Describe the function of the Go-Around sub-mode.

A

Assuming the aircraft is below 2,500’ RA (or below 15,000’ pressure altitude if the RA signal is invalid) the Go-Around submode is activated when one of the GA buttons is pressed. ROL/GA will be the active lateral and vertical modes with a 10° pitch-up commanded on the flight director. Transition from Go-Around sub-mode to IAS vertical mode will automatically occur:
 If, at any time, the speed is at or below 1.23 Vs
 If, 20 seconds after Go-Around engagement, the speed is higher than 170 KIAS. In this case, 170 KIAS is targeted automatically.
 If, 20 seconds after Go-Around engagement, the speed is within 5 kts of the pre-selected speed bug (the blue bug which is normally selected to Vga9), the pre-selected speed is maintained.

316
Q

What happens to the active FD modes and/or Autopilot as a result of pressing the couple button?

A

The couple button can be pressed with the Autopilot engaged or disengaged. However, if the FD is switched, the modes will drop out and the Autopilot will remain engaged and revert to basic autopilot modes (PIT and ROL).

317
Q

When should the autopilot be tested?

A

As part of the First Flight Check

318
Q

During a Resolution Advisory with the autopilot engaged, what should be your initial response

A

Turn the autopilot off

319
Q

What is a cranked wing as it relates to the EMB-135/145?

A

The wing on the EMB-135/145 is cranked meaning that the wing is twisted to provide a varying angle of incidence between the root and the tip. The wing root is set at a +3º angle of incidence, while the crank/twist of the wing places the wing tip at a -1º angle of incidence. This design characteristic provides adequate airflow over the ailerons for roll control even when the root of the wing is stalled.

320
Q

What is Mach Tuck as it relates to the EMB-135/145?

A

Mach Tuck occurs when the center of pressure moves from its normal position on the top of the wing to a point slightly aft. As the center of pressure moves to the rear, it causes the nose of the aircraft to pitch down slightly. The EMB-135/145 does not present Mach Tuck tendencies until approximately .92 Mach

321
Q

Why are the wings of the EMB-135/145 swept?

A

The primary reason for wing sweep is to reduce the velocity of the air flowing perpendicular to the wing, thus reducing drag when operating in the upper limits of the transonic region. The swept wing permits higher cruise speed performance because only a portion of the wing is exposed to the critical Mach speed. The secondary effect of wing sweep is improved lateral stability.

322
Q

What are vortex generators and are any allowed to be missing?

A

12 Vortex generators are installed on the upper wing surface forward of each aileron. They energize the boundary layer to overcome the adverse pressure associated with the shock wave. In this way, vortex generators serve to delay boundary layer separation and enhance flight control effectiveness. Some vortex generators can be missing per CDL procedures

323
Q

What is Mach trim and which aircraft have it installed?

A

Mach Trim is applicable only to 145XR aircraft. Mach Trim is designed to prevent excessive speed and control column loads. If the aircraft reaches Mach 0.84, the Mach Trim function will command a 3-second nose-up trim and disengage the autopilot if engaged. The Mach Trim function has priority over any existing trim command that is in progress but can be overridden by the quick disconnect button or stick shaker

324
Q

After a radar vector takeoff in VMC (2 engine departure), when can a turn be initiated?

A

400’ AFE.

325
Q

If a SID specifies to initiate a turn (2 engine) but an altitude is not published, what is the minimum altitude that the turn can be initiated?

A

400’ AFE

326
Q

After takeoff in IMC (2 engine) and not on a SID, when may a turn be initiated?

A

1000’ AFE

327
Q

A standard EFP must be followed and no vectors may be accepted until what altitude?

A

1000’ AFE

328
Q

A simple-special EFP must be followed until what altitude?

A

If in a radar environment, 1000’ AFE. For non-radar environments, 3000’ AFE or a safe altitude if higher

329
Q

What is Method 1?

A

Should an engine fail anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircraft’s net altitude capability will clear all obstructions by 5 SM either side of the intended route by 1000’.

330
Q

What is Method 2?

A

Method 2 requires the aircraft take off at a weight ensuring that if an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination the aircraft must be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from normal cruise altitude and the aircraft’s net driftdown altitude will clear all obstructions 5 SM either side of the route of flight by 2,000’ until reaching the diversion airport.

331
Q

If at the planned cruise altitude and an engine failure occurs, how should the aircraft be flown (configuration, speed, etc.)?

A

Set continuous thrust, if unable to hold altitude, decelerate in level flight to VFS.

332
Q

On a single engine MAP where a STANDARD EFP is shown on the LDM, what MAP procedure must be flown?

A

These runways have no special requirements. The published missed approach may be used for single-engine or balked landings. The Standard EFP is shown for informational purpose only.

333
Q

Should the aircraft be landing on a runway with a tailwind, does Aerodata automatically take this penalty into consideration (assuming no wind component is placed in the Landing Data request)?

A

No. Wind reports indicating a tailwind component must be entered in their entirety on the Landing Conditions page.

334
Q

When should RSDL ICE be selected YES on the ACARS Landing Condition page?

A

It is not necessary to select to the RSDL ICE prompt solely based on the SPS/ICE SPEEDS message. Instead, should be selected when ice has accreted on unprotected surfaces of the aircraft (representative surfaces as viewable from the flight deck; ie: unheated portions of the windshield wipers, nose of aircraft).

335
Q

When should Minimum FL and Actual LD be used?

A

MIN FL displays the minimum field length required for landing under normal conditions (not using a QRH factor). Actual Landing Distance should be used when applying a QRH multiplier.

336
Q

May a flight legally depart a runway with the following RVR values reported: TDZ RVR 500, MID RVR 500 and ROLLOUT RVR 300?

A

No, all three RVRs are controlling but one may be inoperative; minimum RVR needed for takeoff is 500’ (HIRL and CL are required).

337
Q

When landing in gusty wind conditions how should TGT and VREF be adjusted?

A

Gust factor: ½ of reported gusts (minimum 5 knots, maximum 15 knots) should be added to VREF and target speeds

338
Q

Where can guidance be found for entering an MEL into the AFDL?

A

In the FOM under Aircraft Flight Discrepancy Log – AFDL Completion.

339
Q

Can a flight crew accept a land and hold short clearance on a wet runway?

A

no

340
Q

Where can LAHSO data be found?

A

Flightdeck Reference Guide

341
Q

What must you do prior to opening the cockpit door while in flight?

A

Utilize the peephole for visual conformation

342
Q

If a pilot leaves the flight deck, above what altitude does the other pilot need to put on their O2 mask?

A

FL250

343
Q

When conducting an approach, the aircraft must be in an approved landing configuration no lower than what altitude

A

1000’ above TDZE in IMC and VMC

344
Q

When should the After Landing Procedure be accomplished?

A

When clear of the runway and Captain calls for it.

345
Q

A visual approach may be accepted when the aircraft is within how many NM of the field?

A

35 NM

346
Q

What type of ILS approach should be conducted with the visibility reported as being <4000 RVR or

A

Monitored approach (CATI or CATII)

347
Q

During a low visibility taxi (RVR < 1200) and when advised by ATC, what charts should be utilized by the crew?

A

SMGCS (Surface Movement Guidance and Control System

348
Q

During an approach, a pilot may not descend below 100’ above the touchdown zone elevation unless what is visible?

A

Red terminating or red side row bars are visible and identifiable and the at least the required flight visibility.

349
Q

What is a CDR?

A

Coded Departure Route; these are coded air traffic routes designed to mitigate potential adverse delays during periods of severe weather or higher than normal traffic volume. They include basic fuel requirements using that route, ETE, a new cruise FL, etc

350
Q

A clearance is issued to descend below MEA or MORA. What must be checked to determine a safe point to begin the descent?

A

MEA/MORA/GRID MORA

351
Q

If unable to receive a weather package, by what other means may the information be obtained?

A

Fax or a verbal WX brief (i.e.: 800-WXBRIEF) This must be coordinated with the Dispatcher. Both Captain and Dispatcher must have the same weather.

352
Q

What should be done if the incorrect names are listed on a dispatch release for a crew member?

A

Call the dispatcher to get an amendment to that release with the correct names or print new paperwork once it has been updated

353
Q

May you park an aircraft with only one marshaller guiding the aircraft?

A

Yes, the captain and first officer should clear wings and be vigilant

354
Q

Regarding a departure delay, how often should you make a PA?

A

At a minimum, every 15 minutes

355
Q

What considerations should be made during a tarmac delay of 120 minutes?

A

Make sure the passengers have water, food and lavatory access

356
Q

What considerations should be made during a tarmac delay of 180 minutes on domestic flights and within 240 minutes on international flights?

A

Passengers be at the gate and given the opportunity to deplane

357
Q

A passenger has purchased a ticket for their musical instrument. What weight should be used?

A

60 lb. (half weight)

358
Q

What should be done if the flight attendant calls while in flight and states that there is a seriously ill passenger onboard?

A

Contact Dispatch

359
Q

During an emergency, what acronym should be used to brief the flight attendant and what does each letter represent?

A

During an emergency, what acronym should be used to brief the flight attendant and what does each letter represent?

360
Q

An ASAP report should be submitted within how many hours of knowing about the event?

A

24 hours

361
Q

When should airspeed be limited to 200 KIAS during the takeoff profile?

A

When in class C or D airspace, (within 4 miles of the primary airport, until above 2,500 feet AGL

362
Q

What determines if a destination alternate is required?

A

If weather at destination 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA is less than 2000 ft. ceiling and visibility less than 3 miles. (1,2,3 rule)

363
Q

Is it possible to be dispatched if the destination weather is below the 1-2-3 rule?

A

The flight may be dispatched if Exemption 12644 can be utilized. Among other requirements, the destination weather 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA must be at least 1000 ft. ceiling and for destination airports with CAT I ILS, visibility not less than 3SM and CAT II ILS, visibility not less than 2SM. (1,1,3 or 1,1,2)

364
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When the reported weather at the departure airport is below the lowest CAT I landing minimums.

365
Q

What is our policy for currency of Jeppesen Airway Manuals?

A

Prior to duty in for each trip, pilots must determine that the proper revisions are installed on the Surface.

366
Q

A circle to land maneuver may only be conducted when the visibility and ceiling is not less than?

A

3 SM and 1000 AGL or CAT D visibility & ceiling minimums, whichever is highest

367
Q

The ERJ is under what approach category?

A

Category C. However, there may be a need to use Category D minimums due to an approach speed of 141kts or higher.

368
Q

How should a correction be made in the ADFL?

A

A Single line with an ENTERED IN ERROR notation

369
Q

What is the process for Aircraft dent documentation?

A

Contact MX if a dent/deformation is found without a placard

370
Q

What protocol must be followed if a circuit breaker is discovered to be out during the Power Up Check?

A

Do not reset the CB and contact MX.

371
Q

What are the maximum holding speeds?

A

MHA to 6000’: 200 KIAS
 6001’ to 14000’: 230 KIAS
 14001’ and above: 265 KIAS

372
Q

crew can typically get a hold of dispatch through ARINC if above what altitude?

A

FL 200

373
Q

What are some examples of IOR Required Events and where can the full list be found?

A

The full list can be found in FOM Section 9 Reportable Incidents
 Aircraft fire
 Any engine shutdown or failure during flight
 Aircraft or property damage
 Bird Strike/Wildlife
 Crew – Injury or illness
 Descent below 1000 feet AGL at the wrong airport, or below 500 feet at the wrong runway
 Go Around/Missed Approach – The IOR is filed for maintenance tracking reasons. Note any engine abnormalities or exceedances in the report.
 Hard/Overweight landing
 Lavatory water overflow
 Medical – AED or EMK use
 Passenger Injury/illness/death/intoxication/disruptive/removed
 Runway or taxiway incursion without appropriate ATC clearance
 Security – Passenger/Airport/Aircraft
 Severe turbulence
 Wind shear/Wake turbulence

374
Q

What are some examples of when ASAP reports should be submitted and where can the full list be found?

A 
The full list can be found in FOM Section 9 Reportable Incidents
 Altitude or Course Deviation
 Accident/Incident
 Stall Warning
 Unstable Approach

Expressjet 145 (17 decks)

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