oral exam guide Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four basic dynamic forces on an aircraft during flight

A

lift, drag, gravity and thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is centrifugal force

A

equal and opposite reaction (to the horiz’l component of lift)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is an ELT

A

emergency locator transmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when is true altitude and indicated the same?

A

std temperature and sea level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

min. visibility abv 1200and below 10000 Class G airspace

A

1 mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with an increase in altitude?

A

1” Hg per 1,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds

A

The stability of the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what docs are req’d on board?

A

Airworthiness cert.
Registration cert.
Owner’s manual and operating limitations
Weight and balance data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is a trough?

A

an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a ridge?

A

an elongated area of relatively high atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight?

A

A irworthiness certificate
R egistration certificate
O wner’s manual or operating limitations
W eight and balance data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What performance characteristics will be adversely affected when an aircraft has been overloaded?

A
Higher take-off speed 
Longer take- off roll
Reduced rate and angle of climb
Lower maximum altitude 
Shorter range
Reduced cruising speed
Reduced maneuverability 
Higher stalling speed
Higher landing speed 
Longer landing roll
Excessive weight on the nose wheel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What factors affect the performance of an aircraft during take-offs and landings?

A
Air density (density altitude)
Surface wind
Runway surface
Upslope or downslope of runway
Weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are PIREPs?

A
Two types (routine and urgent)
Information concerning weather as observed by pilots enroute
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

METAR

A

An hourly surface observation of conditions observed at an airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What pertinent information should a weather briefing include?

A
Adverse conditions
VFR flight not recommended 
Synopsis 
Current conditions 
Enroute forecast 
Destination forecast 
Winds aloft 
Notices to airmen (NOTAMs)
ATC delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is RVR On the METAR report

A

Runway visual range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is density altitude

A

Density altitude is pressure altitude correct for nonstandard temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the limitations of a pressure altimeter?

A

High to low or hot to cold, look out below.
Warm day …alt. Indicates lower than actual altitude.
Cold day …alt. Indicates higher than actual altitude.

Higher than standard pressure…alt. Indicates lower than actual altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define following:

Absolute altitude?

A

Vertical distance above actual ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define following:

Indicated altitude?

A

Altitude read directly from alt. After it is set to the current altimeter setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define following:

Pressure altitude?

A

Adjusted to 29.92

For computing solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, true air speed, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define following:

True altitude?

A

The vertical distance above sea level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define following:

Density altitude?

A

Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature variations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name several types of radio aids to air navigation

A

NDB - non direction radio beacon
VOR. - very high frequency omnidirectional range
VORTAC. - VHF omnidirectional range/tactical air navigation
DME. - distance measuring equipment
RNAV. - area navigation includes INS, LORAN, VOR/DME & GPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Within what frequency range do VORs operate

A

108 and 117.95 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are three common ways to navigate?

A

Pilotage
Dead reckoning
Radio navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What types of aeronautical charts are available for use in VFR navigation?

A

Sectional charts
VFR Terminal area charts (TAC)
World aeronautical charts (WAC)
VFR flyway planning charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Airspeed limitations - not marked on airspeed indicator.

A

Va - maneuvering speed
Vlo - landing gear operating speed
Vx - best angle of climb sped
Vy - best rate of climb speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

light signals - on ground
green - flashing green
red - flashing red

A

cleared for taxi
cleared for take-off
stop
taxi clear of runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

light signals - in the air
green - flashing green
red - flashing red

A

cleared to land
return for landing
yield, continue circling
unsafe, do not land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

max. speed in class B airspace

A

200 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

max. speed

under 10,000 feet

A

250 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What privileges and limitations apply to a private pilot? (14 CFR 61.113)

A

No person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as a pilot-in-command of an airctaft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.

a. may act as PIC in connection with business if it is incidental
b. may not pay less that pro rata share of expenses with passengers
c. my act as PIC of A/C used in passenger-carrying for charitable organizations
d. may be reimbursed for search and locations operations
c. may demonstrate A/C in flight to buyer if pilot is a salesman and has @ least 200 hours logged time
f. may act as PIC of A/C towing glider if they meet requirements of 61.69 (100 hrs pic in sm cat+class,logbook endorsement and proper training,currency requirments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

To act as PIC, or required flight crewmember, what must a pilot have in their possesion or ready available in the A/C?

A

a. valid pilot certificate
b. photo identification
c. current medical certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Other than High-perf and complex, what other types of A/C require specific training and endorsements?

A

High Altitude Airplane -
pressurized a/c that has a service ceiling above 25000 feet msl.
Tailwheel Airplane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Requirements to remain current as a private pilot.

A

a. flight review and logbook endorsement every 24 months by authorized instructor.
b. to carry passengers - must have made in last 90 days:
1. three takeoffs and landings as sole manipulator of the controls of same category class and type (if type rating is req)
2. tailwheel must be to full stop
3. night ops (1 hr after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise) must be to full stop in same cat, class and type (if type is req).
* may be accomplished with approved flight sim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight? (14 CFR 91.203, 91.9)

A

A - Airworthiness Certificate
R - Registration Certificate
O - Owner’s manual/op limit
W - Weight and balance data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When will an aircraft registration certificate expire?

A

a. A/C is registered in foreign country.
b. Registration of A/C is canceled at the written request of the holder of the certificate.
c. A/C is totally destroyed
d. Ownership transferred
e. Holder loses US citizenship
f. Thirty days since death of certificate holder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is an Airworthiness Certificate and how long does it remain valid? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

It is issued by the FAA only after the A/C has been inspected and found to meet the requirments of 14 CFR, and is in cond for safe op. Aircraft must meet requirements of the original type cert. It must be displayed in A/C so that it is legible to pass or crew whenever A/C is operated. Remains in effect as long as A/C receives the required maintenance and is properly registered in U.S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why do surface winds generally flow across the isobars at and angle?

A

Surface Friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What causes the winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars?

A

The Coriolis Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are “isobars”?

A

a line on a weather chart which connects areas of equal or constant barometric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere.

A

Low Pressure–inward, upward, and counterclockwise

High Pressure–outward,downward, and clockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What conditions are necessary for structural icing to occur?

A

Visible moisture and below freezing temperatures at the point moisture strikes the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the required maintenance inspections for aircraft? (14 CFR 91.409)

A

a. Annual Inspection - within the preceding 12 calendar months
b. 100-hour - if carrying any person for hire or flight instruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is HIWAS?

A

Hazardous In-flight Weather Advisory Service is a continuous broadcast of in-flight weather advisories including summarized Aviation Weather Warnings, SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, Center Weather Advisories, AIRMETs, and uregent PIREPs. Source of hazardous weather informatino which makes this data available on a continuous basis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a SIGMET (WS)?

A

(WS) advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. Issued for the six areas corresponding to the FA areas. Maximum forcast period is 4 hours. Issued when:

a. Severe icing not associated with tstorms
b. Severe Turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associate with tstorms
c. Duststorms or sandstorms lowering surface or inflight vis to below 3 miles
d. Volcanic ash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is an AIRMET (WA)?

A

(WA) Advisories of sig wthr phenomena that describe conditions at intensities lower than those which require SIGMET. Intended for use by pilots in the preflight and issued every 6 hours beginning @ 0145 UTC during Central Daylight Time,a dn @ 0245 UTC during CST. Unscheduled updates and corrections are issued as nec. AIRMET bulletin includes an outlook for conditions expected after the AIRMET valid period. Contain IFR, mountain obscuration, turbulence, strong surface winds, icing, and freezing levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is TWEB?

A

Transcribed weather broadcast includes synopsis and forcast for more than 200 routes and local vicinities. Valid for 12 hours and are issued 4 times a day @ 0200, 0800, 1400, and 2000Z in a variety of sources (TIBS, PATWAS, and more).
TWEB route forcast or vicinity forcast will not be issued if the TAF for that airport has not been issued. TWEB route forcast is for a 50NM wide corridor along a line connecting the end points of the route. Local vicinity forecast covers an area w/ a radius of 50NM. Describe sustained surface winds (25kts or greater), visibility, weather and obscurations to vision, sky conditions, mountain obscurment, and nonconvective low-level wind shear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What valuable info can be determined from Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecasts (FD)?

A

Most favorable altitude-based on winds and direction of flight.

Areas of possible icing;by noting air temps of +2°C to -20°C.

Temperature inversions.

Turbulence-by observing abrupt changes in wind direction and speed @ diff altitudes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a Convective Outlook (AC)?

A

National forecast of thunderstorms, in 2 parts; Day 1 Convective Outlook (first 24) and Day 2 Convective outlook (next 24hrs). Describes areas in which there is a slight, mod, or hight risk of severe tstorms, as well as areas of general (non-severe) tstorms. Times of issuance for day 1 are 0600Z, 1300Z, 1630Z, 2000Z, and 0100Z. The initial day 2 issueanceis @ 0830Z during standard time and 0730Z during daylight time, updated @ 1730Z. The AC is a flight planning tool used to avoid tstorms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define IFR, MVFR, and VFR.

A

IFR - Instrument Flight Rules - Ceilings less than 1000 ft and/or visibilities less than 3 miles.

MVFR - Marginal VFR - Ceiling 1000 to 3000 ft inclusive and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive.

VFR - Visual Flight Rules - No ceiling, or ceiling greater than 3000 and visibility greater than 5 miles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a Forecast Winds and Temperatures Aloft Chart (FD)?

A

A computer generated chart depicting both observed and forecast winds and temps aloft. Forecast winds and temperatures aloft are prepared for eight levels on eight seperate panels. The levels are 6000, 9000, 12000, 18000, 24000, 30000, 34000, and 39000 feet MSL. They are available daily as 12 hour progs valid @ 1200Z and 0000Z. These charts are typically used to determine winds at a proposed altitude or to select the best altitude for a proposed flight. Temperatures also can be determined from the forecast charts. interpolation must be used to determine winds and temperatures at a level between charts and data when the time period is other than the valid time of the chart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a spin?

A

When the aircraft descends in a helical path while flying at an AOA greater than the critical angle of attack. Spins result from aggravated stalls in either a slip or a skid. No stall = no spin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What causes a spin?

A

Exceeding the critical AOA while applying excessive or insufficient rudder, and to a lesser extent, aileron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What causes an airplane to stall?

A

When the critical angle of attack has been exceeded. When the AOA increases to approx 18°-20°, the air can no longer flow smoothly over the top wing surface. This can occur at any airspeed, in any attitude, with any power setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Discuss the effect on maneuvering speed of an increase or decrease of weight.

A

Maneuvering speed increases with and increase in weight and decreases with a decrease in weight. An aircraft operating at a reduced weight is more vulnerable to rapid acceleration encountered during flight through turbulence or gusts.

59
Q

Define the term Maneuvering Speed.

A

Va is the maximum speed at which abrupt control movement can be applied or at which the airplane could be flown in trubulence without exceeding design load factor limits. Below this speed the aircraft should stall before the load becomes excessive.

60
Q

What effect does an increase in load factor have on stalling speed?

A

Stalling speed will increase. An airplane can be stalled at any airspeed within limits of its structure and the strength of the pilot. The formula for determining the speed at which a wing will stall is that the stalling speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor.

61
Q

What are the different operational categories for aircraft and within which category does your aircraft fall?

A

Normal +3.8 to -1.52
Utility +4.4 to -1.76
Aerobatic +6.0 to -3.00

The Cessna 152 is certified in the utility category.

62
Q

What situations may result in load factors reaching or exceeding the maximum?

A

Level Turns - increases at a terrific rate after bank has reached 45° or 50°. Load factor in 60° bank is 2Gs, 80° bank is 5.76Gs.

Turbulence - Severe vertical gusts cause a sudden increas in angle of attack, resulting in large loads which are resisted by the inertia of the airplane.

Speed - Amount of excess load that can be imposed upon a wing depends on how fast the airplane is flying. Below maneuvering speed, the airplane will stall before the load factor can become excessive. Above, the limit load factor for which an airplane is stressed can be exceeded by abrupt or excessive application of the controls or by strong turbulence.

63
Q

For what 2 reasons in load factor important to pilots?

A

Danger of overstressing the airframe

Danger of increased stall speed - makes stalls possible at seemingly safe flight speeds.

64
Q

What is load factor?

A

The ration of the total load supported by the airplanes wing to the actual weight of the airplane and its contents. Also expressed as the ratio of given load to the pull of gravity (3 Gs is 3X the weight of the airplane imposed upon the wings due to curved flight).

65
Q

What is centrifugal force?

A

The equal and opposite reaction of the airplane to the change in direction, and it acts equal and opposite to the horizontal component of lift.

66
Q

What are the four factors that contribute to the left turning tendency of an aircraft?

A

Torque reaction of engine and propeller - equal and opposite reaction

Gyroscopic precession: the resultant action or deflection of a spinning object when a force is applied to the outer rim of iths rotational mass. If the axis of the propeller is tilted, the resulting force will be exerted 90° ahead in the direction of rotation and in the same direction as the applied force. Most noticeable in taildraggers when the tail is raised.

Corkscrewing effect of the propeller slipstream strikes the vertical tail surface on the left side pushing the tail to the right and yawing the airplane to the left.

Asymmetrical loading of the propeller (P-Factor) @ high angles of attack the bite of the downward moving propeller blade is greater than the bite of the upward moving blade. The downward moving blade is meeting the relative wind at a greater angle of attack than the upward moving blade causing greater thrust on the downward moving side forcing the airplane to the left.

67
Q

What effect does torque reaction have on an airplane on the ground and in flight?

A

In flight torque reaction is acting around the logitudinal axis, tending to make the airplane roll. To compensate, some of the older airplanes are rigged in a manner to create more lift on the wing that is bing forced downward. More modern aircraft are designed with the engine offset to counteract this effect.
On the ground during takeoff roll, and additional turning moment around the vertical axis is induced by torque reaction. As the left side of the airplane is being forced down, more weight is being placed on the left main landing gear. This results in more ground friction, or drag, on the left tire than on the right, causing a further turning moment to the left.

68
Q

What is torque effect?

A

Newtons third law - for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. As internal engine parts and the propeller are revolving in one direction, and equal force is trying to rotate the aircraft in the opposite direction. Greatest at low airspeeds with high power and high AOA.

69
Q

What are several factors which will affect both lift and drag?

A

Wing area - Lift and drag acting on a wing are roughly proportional to the wing area. A pilot can change wing area by using certain types of flaps (fowler flaps)
Shape of the airfoil - As the upper curvature is increased the lift produced increases. Lowing an aileron or flap can accomplish this. Ice or frost on a wing can disturb normal airflow, changing its camber, and disrupting its lifting capability.
Angle of attack - both lift and drag are increased when AOA is increased.
Velocity of air - increase of air passing over the wing increases lift and drag.
Air density - vary directly with the density of the air. Air density is affected by pressure, temp, and humidity.

70
Q

What is Bernoulli’s Principle?

A

The pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases. Applies to an airfoil by creating faster airflow and reduced pressure above and impact airflow for higher pressure below creating lift.

71
Q

What is the “angle of attack”?

A

The angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind: it can be changed by the pilot.

72
Q

What is a “relative wind”?

A

The direction of the airflow with respect to the wing. When a wing is moving forward and downward the relative wind moves backward and upward. The flight pathe and relative wind are always parallel but travel in opposite directions.

73
Q

What is the “angle of incidence”?

A

The angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord of the wing. It is measured by the angle at which the wing is attached to the fuselage. It is fixed and cannot be changed by the pilot.

74
Q

What is an airfoil?

A

A device which generates lift. Wings, horizontal tail surfaces, vertical tail surfaces, and propellers are airfoils.

75
Q

What flight condition will result in the sum of the opposing forces being equal?

A

Steady-state, straight and level, unaccelerated flight, the sum of the opposing forces is equal to zero.

76
Q

What are the four dynamic forces that act on an airplane during all maneuvers?

A

Lift - the upward acting force
Weight - downward acting force
Thrust - forward acting force
Drag - backward acting force

77
Q

What is a Convective Outlook Chart?

A

This chart depicts areas forecast to have thunderstorms, and is presented in two panels. The left hand panel is the Day 1 Convective Outlook, and the right hand panel is the Day 2 Convective Outlook. “Day 1” outlines areas in the continental US where thundershorms are forecasted during that period. It si issued 5 times daily (0600Z, 1300Z, 1630Z, 2000Z, and 0100Z) and all issuances are valid until 12Z the following day. The outlook issued qualifies the level of risk (SLGT, MDT, HIGH) as well as the areas of general tstorms. “Day 2” contains the same info as the Day 1 chart, and is issued twice a day (0830Z and 1730Z) in a period from 12Z the following day to 12Z the next day.

78
Q

When are spins most likely to occur?

A

Can occur in any phase of flight but are most likely to occur:

Engine failure on takeoff during climbout - pilot tries to stretch glide to landing area by increasing back pressure or makes an uncoordinated turn back to departure runway at low airspeed.

Crossed-control turn from base to final - pilot overshoots final (crosswind?) and makes uncoordinated turn at a low airspeed.

Engine failure on approach to landing - pilot tries to stretch glide to runway by increasing back pressure.

Go-around with full nose up trip - pilot applies power with full flaps and nose up trim compined with uncoordinated use of rudder.

Go-around with improper flap retraction - pilot applies power and retracts flaps rapidly resulting in a rapid sink rate followed by and instinctive increase in back pressure.

79
Q

What procedure should be used to recover from an inadvertent spin?

A

Close the throttle

Neutralize the ailerons

Apply full opposite rudder

Briskly move the elevator control forward to the neutral position (varies by a/c)

Once stall is broken the spinning will stop. Neutralize the rudder when spinning stops.

When the rudder is neutralized, gradually apply enough aft elevator pressure to return to level flight.

80
Q

What causes adverse yaw?

A

When turning an airplane the downward deflected airleron produces more lift and more drag. While the opposite aileron has less lift and less drag. This added drag attempts to pull or veer the airplanes nose in the direction of the raised wing; the opposite to that desired.

81
Q

What is ground effect?

A

Condition of improved performance the airplane experiences when it is operating near the ground. A change occurs in the three dimensional flow pattern around the airplane because the airflow around the wing is restricted by the ground surface. This reduces the wings upwash, downwash, and wingtip vortices. Must be close to the ground.

82
Q

What major problems can be caused by ground effect?

A

During landing - @ height of approx 1/10 of a wing span above the surface, drag may be 40% less than when the airplane is operating out of ground effect. Any excess speed during landing may result in significant floating.

During Takeoff - the reduced drag may allow the aircraft to takeoff below recommended speed. As airplane rises out of ground effect speed deficient the greater induced drag may result in marginal climb performance, or may settle back to the runway in extreme conditions.

83
Q

Define Empty weight

A

Airframe, engines, and all items of operating equipment that have fixed location and are permanently installed in the aircraft. Includes hydraulic fluid, unuseable fuel, and undrainable oil.

84
Q

Gross Weight

A

Maximum allowable weight of both the airplane and its contents.

85
Q

Useful load

A

Weight of the pilot, copilot, passengers, baggage, usable fuel, and drainable oil.

86
Q

Arm

A

Product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm. Moments are expressed in pound-inches.

87
Q

Center of Gravity

A

Point about which an aircraft would balance if it were possible to suspend it at that point. Expressed in inches from datum.

88
Q

Datum

A

Imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements of arm are taken. Set by manufacturer.

89
Q

What basic equation is used in all weight and balance problems to find the center of gravity location of an airplane and/or its components?

A

W.A.M.

Weight X Arm = Moment

Weight = Moment/Arm

(Total) Moment
Arm (CG) = ————
(Total) Weight

90
Q

What performance characteristics will be adversely affected when an aircraft has been overloaded?

A
Higher takeoff speed
Longer takeoff run
Reduced rate & angle of climb
Lower maximum altitude
Shorter range
Reduced Cruising speed
Reduced maneuverability
Higher stalling speed
Higher landing speed
Longer landing roll
Excessive weight on the nosewheel
91
Q

Center of Gravity

A

Point about which an aircraft would balance if it were possible to suspend it at that point. Expressed in inches from datum.

92
Q

What effect does a forward center of gravity have on an aircrafts flight characteristics?

A

Higher stall speed - stalling angle of attack is reached at a higher speed due to increased wing loading.

Slower cruise speed - increased drag; greater AOA is required to maintain altitude.

More stable - the center of gravity is farther forward from the center of pressure which increases longitudinal stability.

Greater back elevator pressure required - longer takeoff roll: higher approach speeds and problems with landing flare.

93
Q

What effect does a rearward center of gravity have on an aircrafts flight characteristics?

A

Lower stall speed - less wing loading.

Higher cruise speed - reduced drag; smaller AOA required to maintain altitude.

Less stable - stall and spin recovery more difficult; the center of gravity is closer to the center of pressure, causing longitudinal instablility.

94
Q

What are the standard weights assumed for the following when calculating weight and balance problems?

A

Crew and passengers = 170 lbs
Gasoline = 6 lbs/ gal
Oil = 7.5 lbs/ gal
Water = 8.35 lbs/ gal

95
Q

What are some of the main elements of aircraft performance?

A
Takeoff and landing distance
Rate of Climb
Ceiling
Payload
Range
Speed
Fuel Economy
96
Q

What factors affect the performance of an aircraft during takeoffs and landings?

A
Air Density (density altitude)
Surface Wind
Runway Surface
Upslope or Downslope of runway
Weight
97
Q

What effect does wind have on aircraft performance?

A

Takeoff - a headwind will increas the airplane performance by shortening the takeoff distance and increasing the angle of climb. A tailwind will decrease performance by increasing the takeoff distance and reducing the angle of climb.

Landing - a headwind will increase airplane performance by steepening the approach angle and reducing the landing distance. A tailwind will decrease performance by decreasing the approach angle and increasing the landing distance.

Cruise flight - winds aloft have somewhat the opposite effect on performance. Headwind will decrease performance by reducing ground speed, which in turn increases fuel requirements. Tailwind will increase performance by increasing the ground speed, which in turn reduces the fuel requirement for the flight.

98
Q

How does weight affect takeoff and landing performance?

A

Increased weight can have a significant effect on takeoff performance:
Higher liftoff speed
Greater mass to accelerate
Increased retarding force (drag and ground friction)
Longer takeoff distance

The effect of gross weight on landing distance is that the airplane will require a greater speed to support the airplane at the landing AOA and lift coefficient resulting in and increased landing distance.

99
Q

What effect does an increase in density altitude have on takeoff and landing performance?

A

Increased takeoff distance (greater takeoff TAS req)
Reduced rate of climb (decreased thrust and reduced acceleration)
Increased true airspeed on approach and landing (same IAS)
Increased landing roll distance.

100
Q

Define the term density altitude.

A

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

performance altitude

101
Q

How does air density affect aircraft performance?

A
Direct effect on:
Lift produced by the wings
Power output of the engine
Propeller efficiency
Drag forces
102
Q

What factors affect air density?

A

Altitude - higher = less dense
Temperature - warmer = less
Humidity - more = less dense

103
Q

How does temperature, altitude, and humidity affect density altitude?

A

Density altitude will increase when Hot, High, Humid

Density altitude will decrease when cold, low, dry.

104
Q

Vso

A

Stall speed in landing configuration; the calibrated power off stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable in the landing configuration.

105
Q

ADM Aeronautical Decision Making

A

Define a problem
Choose a course of action
Implement the decision
Evaluate the outcome

106
Q

P.A.V.E.

A

Pilot
Aircraft
enVironment
External pressures

107
Q

Minimum , the pilot flying with advanced avionics must know how to manage what three primary items?

A

course deviation indicator CDI
the navigation source
the auto pilot

108
Q
CFIT awareness (controlled flight into terrain)
6 items?
A

a. Lack of pilot currency
b. Loss of situational awareness
c. Pilot distractions and breakdown of SRM (single pilot resource management)
d. Failure to comply w/ minimum safe altitudes
breakdown in effective ADM (aeron’l decision making)
e. Insufficient planning, especially for the descent and arrival segments.

109
Q

Why checklists?

A

it is an aid to the memory and helps ensure that critical items necessary for the safe operation of aircraft are not overlooked or forgotten. Standard method for verifying aircraft configuration.

110
Q

ATOMATOFLAMES

A
airspeed indicator
tachometer
oil pressure gauge
manifold pressure gauge
altimeter
temperature gauge (liquid cooled engine)
oil temperature gauge (air cooled engine)
fuel gauge
landing gear position indicator
anti collision lights (aircraft certified after March 11 1996)
magnetic compass
ELT  (electronic location transponder)
safety belts
111
Q

VFR night equipment requirements: FLAPS

A
fuses
landing light (only if flying for hire)
anti collision lights (March 1, 1996)
position lights
source of electricity (alternator, generator)
112
Q

what deice or anti-ice equipment is your airplane equipped with?

A

Defrost-used to keep the windshield clear
Pitot heat - for pitot/static instruments
Carburetor heat - keep fuel and air flow to engine.

113
Q

different weather forecasts that you can use to prepare for flight (3)

A

area forecast
TAF
winds and temperatures aloft forecast

114
Q

Weight and balance terminology

What is the arm?

A

Arm is the horizontal distance from the reference datum to the centre of gravity of an item.

115
Q

Weight and balance terminology

The moment

A

Moment is the product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm

116
Q

Shared symptoms of Hypoxia and Carbon Monoxide poisoning?

A
Headache 
Blurry vision
Dizziness 
Drowsiness 
Nausea
117
Q

Muscle weakness and muscle pain can be from?

A

Carbon Monoxide poisoning

118
Q

Describe aircraft

A

Overwing, single engine, 360cc direct drive, fixed prop.
Text Ron Lycoming engine manufacturer
180 hp air cooled (@2700 RPM)
53 usable gallon fuel (56 total)

2 blade 76” dia. McCauley propeller

119
Q

Docs & insp.
aircraft documents
ARROW

A
Airworthiness certificate 
Registration 
Radio licence
Owners manual 
Weight and balance sheet
120
Q

Docs & insp.
Inspections
AV1ATERS50

A
Annual 12 month
VOR
100 hour
Airworthiness Directives  as required by AD
Transponder     24 calendar months
ELT.     12 calendar months
Registration    3 years 
Static source / Altimeter    12 calendar months
Preventive maintenance.    50 hours
121
Q

Docs & insp.

Pilot requirements

A
Pilot licence
Medical certificate 
Government ID (photo/signature)
Flight review every 24 months
3 take offs and landings every 90 days
122
Q

Preflight planning, what type of meteorological info to be aware of!

A

Location of fronts
Cloud layers
Freezing levels
Air temperature and pressure

123
Q

The main types of icing an aircraft may encounter?

A

Clear ice - forms after initial impact
Rime ice - forms when drops are small - stratified clouds
Mixed ice - forms when drops vary in size - intermingled w/ snow or ice particles.

124
Q

Weather reporting data types

A
Terminal forecasts 
METARs
SIGMETS
LLWAS
PIREPs
125
Q

Pertinent info in a weather briefing

A
Adverse conditions
VFR flight not recommended 
Synopsis 
Current conditions 
Enroute forecast 
Destination forecast 
Winds aloft
Notices to Airmen ( NOTAMs)
ATC delay
126
Q

What is HIWAS?

A

Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service

127
Q

Why need of winds aloft info?

A

Favourable altitude for flight
Turbulence
Temperature inversions
Areas of possible icing

128
Q

Metar

A

Hourly observations at airports

Speci - update due to weather changes

129
Q

TAF

A

Terminal aerodrome forecast within 5 miles of airport

130
Q

HIWAS

A

Hazardous inflight weather advisory service

131
Q

LIFR
IFR
MVFR
VFR

A

low
instrument
marginal
visual

132
Q

Sigmet

A

severe icing
severe turbulence
dust storms
volcanic ash

133
Q

Airmet

A
intensities lower than a Sigmet and for all pilots
3 types:
Sierra - IFR conditions
Tango - moderate winds, 30 or greater
Zulu - moderate icing, greater windshear
134
Q

benefits to winds aloft

A

favourable altitude for flight
areas of possible icing
temperature inversions
turbulence

135
Q

what instruments are effected with atmospheric pressure?

A

altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and manifold pressure gauge.

136
Q

An airplane’s aerodynamic balance and controllability are governed by changes in the ?

A

CP (center of pressure)

137
Q

VASI

A

visual approach slope indicator

138
Q

LHAND (aircraft engine)

A
Lycoming 360cc / 180 HP
Horizontally opposed
Air cooled
Naturally aspirated
Direct drive
139
Q

11 factors of an overloaded aircraft

A
higher take-off speed
longer take-off run
reduced rate of climb
lower cruise ceiling
higher stall speed
excessive weight on nose wheel
longer landing run
faster landing speed
reduced cruise speed
reduced maneuverability
shorter take-off range
140
Q

Airman documents

A
medical
pilots license
weight and balance
registration
POH (pilots operating handbook)
airworthiness certificate
141
Q

AV1AT5 - (inspections)

A
Annual inspection
VOR
100 hour inspection
Altimeter - Static Pressure system
Transponder
50 hour inspection
142
Q

Fogs

A

Radiation - only on land, small dew pt. spread, rain night prior, clear skies.
Advection - moist air moving over colder ground or water.
Upslope - moist air moving up slope (like mountain side).
Precipitation induced -
Ice - water vapour sublimates directly as ice crystals
Steam - wind pushes cold air from the land over much warmer water

143
Q

shared symptoms of Hypoxia and Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

A

headache, blurry vision, dizziness, drowsiness, nausea

144
Q

physical symptoms of Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

A

muscle weakness and muscle pain