exam studies Flashcards
steady precip’n preceding a front is an indication of
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
which type of weather briefing to req. when departing within the hour if no prel. weather info has been received?
standard briefing
when is it required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused a pilot to deviate from ATC clearance?
within 48 hrs to ATC
which situation is reportable to the NTSB if aircrft is eq’d w/ ACAS system
operating on an instrument flight plan while needing to comply w. a resolution advisory to avert a substantial risk between aircraft
which symbol depicts w/ a hexagon a VOR-DME
a hexagon w/ a dot in the center and enclosed within a square
engine failure take-off run
throttle - idle brakes - apply flaps - retract mixture - idle cut off ignition - off master - off
engine failure immediately after take-off
airspeed 65 knots / 60 w/ flaps mixture - idle cut off fuel - off ignition - off flaps - as required master - off - unlatch doors
engine failure during flight
airspeed 65 knots carb heat - on fuel selector - both mixture - rich ignition switch both or start if prop stopped primer in and locked
emergency landing without engine power
airspeed 65 knots / 60 w/ flaps mixture - idle cut off fuel - off ignition - off flaps - as required master - off doors - unlatched prior to touchdown touch down - slightly tail low brakes - apply heavily
precautionary landing with engine power
flaps - 20^ airspeed - 60 selected field - fly over avionics and electrical switches off flaps - 40^ (on final appr.) airspeed - 60 master - off doors - unlatched prior to touchdown
which items are include in empty weight of aircraft
unusable fuel and undrainable oil
wingtip vortices are created when an aircraft is…
developing lift
what condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude
air temperature warmer than standard
within controlled airspace, abv 700 and blw 10,000 what is the min. distance above clouds (VFR)
1000 ft
min. distance horiz’l from clouds above 1200 AGL and above 10,000 ft (VFR)
1 mile
radius of outer area of class C air space
20 nautical miles
what happens to the fuel/air mixture when carb heat is applied
the fuel/air mixture becomes richer
setting high intensity runway lights to medium intensity click the microphone 7 times and then….
5 times in 5 seconds
in addition to the airworthiness cert., what else must be on board?
operating limitations and registration
in which airspace is aerobatic prohibited
class E below 1500’ AGL
what is density altitude
the pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature
loading a plane aft the center of gravity (cg) will cause the plane to be
unsteady at any speed
which condition would cause the altimeter to show a lower altitude than true altitude
air temperature warmer than standard
when you have strong quarterly tail winds, what is your aileron position
aileron down from the side the wind is blowing from
when you push your limits trying to maintain visual of terrain with low visibility and low ceiling
scud running
steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
what weather type briefing to request if take-off within the hour if no preliminary briefing has been received?
standard briefing
changes in the center of pressure of a wing affects the aircraft’s?
aerodynamic balance and controllability
minimum VFR visibility above 10,000 ft and above 1,200 ft AGL in Controlled airspace is ?
5 miles
when a control tower stops operation in a D airspace, what happens to that airspace designation?
airport resorts to Class E and G during hours tower is not in operation
FAA advisory circulars are available where?
ordered from Government printing office
what clouds have the greatest turbulence
Cumulonimbus
with respect to certification of aircraft what is the class?
airplane, rotor-craft, glider and balloon
who is responsible to ensure aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition?
owner and operator
what is TC
what is TH
what is WCA
true course
true heading
wind correction angle
under what condition will pressure altitude equal true altitude?
when standard atmospheric conditions exist
when does P-factor cause airplanes to yaw to left?
when at high angles of attack
when an aircraft CG is loaded aft the CG limit, one undesirable characteristic the pilot may encounter is
difficulty recovering from a stalled condition.
what minimum pilot certification is required to fly in a class B airspace?
priv. pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate log book endorsements
what condition requires max. caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing?
light, quartering tail wind
if you change your altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 is the indicated altimeter reading lower or higher
lower
during operations within controlled airspace at altitudes less than 1200 AGL, what is min. distance from clouds on the horiz’l for VFR?
2000 feet
the operating principle of float type carburetors is based on the ?
difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
to determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft the pilot should refer to the ?
Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories.
a 45 yr private pilot second class med certificate issued on Sept. 12, when does it expire ?
Sept 30, 2 years later.
on a METAR or TAF what does RA, DZ, SN mean
rain, drizzle, snow
on a METAR or TAF what does SG, UP, GR mean
snow grains, unknown precipitation, hail (greater than 1/4”)
on a METAR or TAF what does GS, PL, IC
small hail/snow pellets, ice pellets, ice crystals
what force makes an airplane turn?
the horizontal component of lift
which is true concerning the blue and magenta colours used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts
airports w/ control towers underlying Class B, C, D and E airspace are shown in blue.
under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
the pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff
after landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
When advised by the tower to do so. Not just when you reach a taxiway…
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem
becoming airborne before reaching take-off speed
in the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if?
a left turn is entered from the north heading
what is required in a class C airpspace
Mode C transponder and a two-way radio
ATC issues radar traffic info in relation to the 12 hr clock , the reference the controller uses is the aircraft’s
ground track (not true course or magnetic course)
during the pre-flight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
the pilot in command
when executing an emergency approach to land, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed?
nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgement of gliding distance and landing spot
what would decrease the stability of an air mass?
Warming from below
wind-shear in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2000 to 4000 above the surface is at least?
25 knots
which records or docs shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive
Aircraft maintenance records
typical scales on the navigation plotter are
sectional and WAC
the amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the ?
speed of the airplane
a blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts what class of airspace
class D
The CTAF/UNICOM frequency used as indicated by the “C” in a circle to the right of the UNICOM frequency is?
123.0 MHz
the presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped w/ a fixed pitch prop can be verified by adding carb heat and noting?
a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM
to properly purge water from a fuel system of an aircraft equipped w/ fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the ?
fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps
which pre-flight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight
become familiar with all available info concerning the flight
a chair type parachute must have been packed by a certified and apprpr. rated parachute rigger within the preceding how many days?
180
if the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine…?
cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
which incident involving propellers is reportable to the NTSB under Part 830?
separation of a blade in flight
when converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should ?
add westerly variation and subtract right wind correction angle
in what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single eng. airplane?
low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack
wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to?
sink below the aircraft generating turbulence
what is absolute attitude?
the vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
what should be the indication on the magn. compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the northern hemisphere
the compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring
if the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than spec’d for the engine, it will most likely cause?
detonation
taxing with strong quarterly tail winds, which aileron position should be used?
aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing
large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the body result in?
loss of muscular power
when may hazardous wind shear be expected?
in areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence
what aircraft has right of way over other ones? glider, airship or aircraft refueling other aircraft
glider
seaplane and motorboat cross, the motorboat is to the left, who has right of way?
seaplane
an appr’d chair-type parachute may be carried for emerg. use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated rigger within the preceding how many days?
120
when the course deviation indicator needle is centered during an omni receiver check using a VOR test signal, the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read?
0^FROM or 180^ TO, regardless of the pilot’s position from the VOT.
when approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall?
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
