exam studies Flashcards
(214 cards)
1
Q
steady precip’n preceding a front is an indication of
A
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
2
Q
which type of weather briefing to req. when departing within the hour if no prel. weather info has been received?
A
standard briefing
3
Q
when is it required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused a pilot to deviate from ATC clearance?
A
within 48 hrs to ATC
4
Q
which situation is reportable to the NTSB if aircrft is eq’d w/ ACAS system
A
operating on an instrument flight plan while needing to comply w. a resolution advisory to avert a substantial risk between aircraft
5
Q
which symbol depicts w/ a hexagon a VOR-DME
A
a hexagon w/ a dot in the center and enclosed within a square
6
Q
engine failure take-off run
A
throttle - idle brakes - apply flaps - retract mixture - idle cut off ignition - off master - off
7
Q
engine failure immediately after take-off
A
airspeed 65 knots / 60 w/ flaps mixture - idle cut off fuel - off ignition - off flaps - as required master - off - unlatch doors
8
Q
engine failure during flight
A
airspeed 65 knots carb heat - on fuel selector - both mixture - rich ignition switch both or start if prop stopped primer in and locked
9
Q
emergency landing without engine power
A
airspeed 65 knots / 60 w/ flaps mixture - idle cut off fuel - off ignition - off flaps - as required master - off doors - unlatched prior to touchdown touch down - slightly tail low brakes - apply heavily
10
Q
precautionary landing with engine power
A
flaps - 20^ airspeed - 60 selected field - fly over avionics and electrical switches off flaps - 40^ (on final appr.) airspeed - 60 master - off doors - unlatched prior to touchdown
11
Q
which items are include in empty weight of aircraft
A
unusable fuel and undrainable oil
12
Q
wingtip vortices are created when an aircraft is…
A
developing lift
13
Q
what condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude
A
air temperature warmer than standard
14
Q
within controlled airspace, abv 700 and blw 10,000 what is the min. distance above clouds (VFR)
A
1000 ft
15
Q
min. distance horiz’l from clouds above 1200 AGL and above 10,000 ft (VFR)
A
1 mile
16
Q
radius of outer area of class C air space
A
20 nautical miles
17
Q
what happens to the fuel/air mixture when carb heat is applied
A
the fuel/air mixture becomes richer
18
Q
setting high intensity runway lights to medium intensity click the microphone 7 times and then….
A
5 times in 5 seconds
19
Q
in addition to the airworthiness cert., what else must be on board?
A
operating limitations and registration
20
Q
in which airspace is aerobatic prohibited
A
class E below 1500’ AGL
21
Q
what is density altitude
A
the pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature
22
Q
loading a plane aft the center of gravity (cg) will cause the plane to be
A
unsteady at any speed
23
Q
which condition would cause the altimeter to show a lower altitude than true altitude
A
air temperature warmer than standard
24
Q
when you have strong quarterly tail winds, what is your aileron position
A
aileron down from the side the wind is blowing from
25
when you push your limits trying to maintain visual of terrain with low visibility and low ceiling
scud running
26
steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
27
what weather type briefing to request if take-off within the hour if no preliminary briefing has been received?
standard briefing
28
changes in the center of pressure of a wing affects the aircraft's?
aerodynamic balance and controllability
29
minimum VFR visibility above 10,000 ft and above 1,200 ft AGL in Controlled airspace is ?
5 miles
30
when a control tower stops operation in a D airspace, what happens to that airspace designation?
airport resorts to Class E and G during hours tower is not in operation
31
FAA advisory circulars are available where?
ordered from Government printing office
32
what clouds have the greatest turbulence
Cumulonimbus
33
with respect to certification of aircraft what is the class?
airplane, rotor-craft, glider and balloon
34
who is responsible to ensure aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition?
owner and operator
35
what is TC
what is TH
what is WCA
true course
true heading
wind correction angle
36
under what condition will pressure altitude equal true altitude?
when standard atmospheric conditions exist
37
when does P-factor cause airplanes to yaw to left?
when at high angles of attack
38
when an aircraft CG is loaded aft the CG limit, one undesirable characteristic the pilot may encounter is
difficulty recovering from a stalled condition.
39
what minimum pilot certification is required to fly in a class B airspace?
priv. pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate log book endorsements
40
what condition requires max. caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing?
light, quartering tail wind
41
if you change your altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 is the indicated altimeter reading lower or higher
lower
42
during operations within controlled airspace at altitudes less than 1200 AGL, what is min. distance from clouds on the horiz'l for VFR?
2000 feet
43
the operating principle of float type carburetors is based on the ?
difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
44
to determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft the pilot should refer to the ?
Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories.
45
a 45 yr private pilot second class med certificate issued on Sept. 12, when does it expire ?
Sept 30, 2 years later.
46
on a METAR or TAF what does RA, DZ, SN mean
rain, drizzle, snow
47
on a METAR or TAF what does SG, UP, GR mean
snow grains, unknown precipitation, hail (greater than 1/4")
48
on a METAR or TAF what does GS, PL, IC
small hail/snow pellets, ice pellets, ice crystals
49
what force makes an airplane turn?
the horizontal component of lift
50
which is true concerning the blue and magenta colours used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts
airports w/ control towers underlying Class B, C, D and E airspace are shown in blue.
51
under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
the pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff
52
after landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
When advised by the tower to do so. Not just when you reach a taxiway...
53
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem
becoming airborne before reaching take-off speed
54
in the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if?
a left turn is entered from the north heading
55
what is required in a class C airpspace
Mode C transponder and a two-way radio
56
ATC issues radar traffic info in relation to the 12 hr clock , the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's
ground track (not true course or magnetic course)
57
during the pre-flight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?
the pilot in command
58
when executing an emergency approach to land, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed?
nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgement of gliding distance and landing spot
59
what would decrease the stability of an air mass?
Warming from below
60
wind-shear in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2000 to 4000 above the surface is at least?
25 knots
61
which records or docs shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive
Aircraft maintenance records
62
typical scales on the navigation plotter are
sectional and WAC
63
the amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the ?
speed of the airplane
64
a blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts what class of airspace
class D
65
The CTAF/UNICOM frequency used as indicated by the "C" in a circle to the right of the UNICOM frequency is?
123.0 MHz
66
the presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped w/ a fixed pitch prop can be verified by adding carb heat and noting?
a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM
67
to properly purge water from a fuel system of an aircraft equipped w/ fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the ?
fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps
68
which pre-flight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight
become familiar with all available info concerning the flight
69
a chair type parachute must have been packed by a certified and apprpr. rated parachute rigger within the preceding how many days?
180
70
if the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine...?
cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
71
which incident involving propellers is reportable to the NTSB under Part 830?
separation of a blade in flight
72
when converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should ?
add westerly variation and subtract right wind correction angle
73
in what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single eng. airplane?
low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack
74
wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to?
sink below the aircraft generating turbulence
75
what is absolute attitude?
the vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
76
what should be the indication on the magn. compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the northern hemisphere
the compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring
77
if the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than spec'd for the engine, it will most likely cause?
detonation
78
taxing with strong quarterly tail winds, which aileron position should be used?
aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing
79
large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the body result in?
loss of muscular power
80
when may hazardous wind shear be expected?
in areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence
81
what aircraft has right of way over other ones? glider, airship or aircraft refueling other aircraft
glider
82
seaplane and motorboat cross, the motorboat is to the left, who has right of way?
seaplane
83
an appr'd chair-type parachute may be carried for emerg. use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated rigger within the preceding how many days?
120
84
when the course deviation indicator needle is centered during an omni receiver check using a VOR test signal, the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read?
0^FROM or 180^ TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.
85
when approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall?
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
86
what do you request for weather info for the following morning?
an outlook briefing
87
if you change your address and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certi'n branch, how long can you exercise your privileges?
30 days after the date of the move
88
which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
become familiar with all available info concerning the flight
89
no person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding how many months?
24 calendar months
90
in the northern hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if?
an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading
91
under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
in colder than standard air temperature.
92
outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 ft AGL and below 10,000 ft MSL during daylight hours is?
1 mile
93
to monitor airport traffic. CTAF frequency is indicated by what symbol (?) when tower is not in operation
the "C" in a circle to the right of the tower frequency.
94
"From high (hot) to low (cold), look out below", means your actual (true) altitude will be ?
lower than your altimeter (indicated altitude) shows.
95
absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that?
the ceiling is at least 5,000 ft and visibility is 5 miles or more.
96
the uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air change in advance of normal spark ignition is know as?
pre-ignition
97
what are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation
98
what clouds have the greatest turbulence?
cumulonimbus
99
what feature is normally associated w/ the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
continuous updraft
100
if an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated....?
with passengers aboard
101
what should an owner or operator know about airworthiness directives (AD's)
they are mandatory
102
magnetic course is?
course referenced to magnetic north
103
a pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the ?
FAA Civil Aviation Security Div. (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.
104
on airport signs, what does "black is where you are at" mean....
a sign with yellow letters and a black background indicates where at the airport you are.
105
the basic VFR min. visibility at night for Class G,E,D and C airspace below 10,000 ft MSL in 3 staue miles. An exception to that min. is when below 1,200 ft above the surface and the visibility is at least 1 but less than 3 statue miles?
in Class G airspace clear of clouds when operating in an airport traffic pattern within 1/2 mile of the runway.
106
an airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft limit - one undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this ?
difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
107
which is true concerning blue and magenta colours used to depict airports on sectional aero. charts?
airports w/ control towers underlying Class B, C, D and E airspace are shown in blue.
108
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
70
109
a stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
smooth air
110
when may hazardous wind shear be expected
in area of low-level; temperature inversion, frontal zones and clear air turbulence.
111
the conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and
unstable, moist air
112
what information is contained in a Convective Sigmet
Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms and hail 3/4" or greater in diameter
113
which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
safety belts during take-off and landing and while en route; shoulder harness during take-off and landing
114
on the calculator side of the flight computer, distance in miles is always found on which side?
outer
115
a basic rule to remember when using the calculator side of the flight computer is?
how fast goes first in calculation
116
what minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace
2 way radio, 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter
117
when may hazardous wind shear expected?
in areas of low level temperature inversion, frontal zones and clear air turbulence.
118
of what value is the weather depiction chart to a pilot?
determining general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.
119
what procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
120
the condition that requires max. caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a ?
light, quartering tailwind
121
type of cloud with max. convective turbulence
towering cumulus
122
which initial action should a pilot make prior to entering Class C airspace?
contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
123
what feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
a stable layer of air
124
the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
125
with certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during.....
taxi, take-offs and landings
126
how many days to file a report after an accident (2-15?)
10
127
transponder inspection is how long
24 months to the end of that month ie:
| sept 1-2014 sept 30-2016
128
conviction of federal or state statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for
suspension or revocation of any cert. or rating, or authorization issued under 114 CFR part 61
129
the amount of water vapor that air can hold is dependent on?
air temperature
130
Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
131
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
1929
132
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
133
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
134
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
120 days
135
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
more susceptible to icing. (not just when there is moisture present)
136
Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
steam fog
137
Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source?
Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs).
138
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
139
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
140
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 kts per hr
141
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-controlled airport?
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
142
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is?
5 miles
143
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.
144
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
Stalled.
145
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
146
What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
Towering cumulus clouds.
147
When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
148
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
149
A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as
spatial disorientation.
150
moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to?
produce stratus type clouds
151
what feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
a stable layer of air
152
what are characteristics of a moist, UNstable air mass
Cumuliform clouds and a showery precipitation
153
during the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
dissipating
154
thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are?
squall line thunderstorms
155
what feature is normally associated w/ the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm
continuous updraft
156
what are characteristics of unstable air?
turbulence and good surface visiblility
157
clouds are divided into four families according to their ?
height range
158
what clouds have the greatest turbulence?
cumulonimbus
159
what clouds would indicate convective turbulence?
towering cumulus clouds
160
the boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a ?
front
161
what condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
air temperature warmer than standard
162
the amount of water vapour which air can hold depends on the ?
air temperature
163
clouds, fog, or dew will always form when?
water vapour condenses
164
what would decrease the stability of an air mass?
warming from below
165
what is a characteristic of stable air?
stratiform clouds
166
when may hazardous wind shear be expected?
in areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones and clear air turbulence.
167
a pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind-speed at 2,000 to 4,000 ft above the surface is at least ?
25 knots
168
one in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is ?
visible moisture
169
in which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?
freezing rain
170
what situation is most conductive to the formation of radiation fog
warm, moist air over low flatland areas on clear calm nights
171
in which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
an air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
172
what type of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
advection fog and up-slope fog
173
low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
steam fog
174
what does stratus mean?
layer
175
what does cumulus mean?
piled up
176
these two types are divided into four more groups that distinguish the clouds altitude, What are they?
High clouds 20,000ft and higher
Middle 6,500-20,000ft
Low clouds - up to 6,500ft
and vertical clouds form at many heights.
177
one of the most recognized discontinuities across a front is?
a change in temperature
178
steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of?
stratiform clouds w/ little or no turbulence.
179
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when?
the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
180
Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on?
122.0 MHz.
181
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
In colder than standard air temperature.
182
What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
Cumulonimbus.
183
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
True direction and knots.
184
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
light, quartering tailwind.
185
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
pre-ignition
186
How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?
By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).
187
The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
remain the same regardless of gross weight.
188
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
An abbreviated briefing.
189
Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
122.0
190
Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain
VOR and NDB frequencies.
191
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
14 CFR Part 43.7.
192
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
193
What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
Warming from below.
194
What are characteristics of unstable air?
Turbulence and good surface visibility.
195
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
wind direction.
196
When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and wind speed is
9900 and less than 5 knots.
197
Of what value is the Weather Depiction Chart to the pilot?
For determining general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.
198
The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
199
he visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
200
What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
201
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 knots
202
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
Aircraft maintenance records.
203
What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90 °F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55 °F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?
1,700-foot decrease.
204
The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are
3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
205
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? airship, fueling plane, glider,
glider
206
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
wind direction.
207
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
Flight over a densely populated area.
208
Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate
location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.
209
What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
210
what is true altitude?
vertical distance from sea level
211
which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
air temp. warmer than standard
212
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have
biennial flight review
213
runway 36 is what direction?
360 degrees entering from south.
214
Fog types
```
Radiation
Advection
Upslope
Precipitation-induced
Ice
```
