Oral Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Types of service provided Class A-E

A

1-ATC service with or without surveillance

2- UK FIS (traffic or basic) to participating VFR flights within E

3- Alerting service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Types of service provided Class F

A

1- ATAS

2- Alerting Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Types of service provided Class G

A

1- UK FIS (DS, PS, TS or BS)

2- Alerting service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Within CAS, when does an approach control provide an ATC service to an aircraft?

A

1) Arriving aircraft released from Area control until it is transferred to aerodrome control

2) A/C arriving from OCAS until they are transferred to aerodrome control

3) Departing A/C taken from aerodrome control until
a) the are transferred to area control
b) they are clear of CAS

4) Overflying A/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

OCAS, when does an approach control unit provide an ATC service to an aircraft?

A

1) Arriving A/C until they are handed to ADI control

2) Departing a/c are taken from ADI control until they no longer want a service or are 10minutes away from aerodrome

3) Overflying a/c until they no longer want a service or are 10 minutes away from aerodrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Do a/c inside an ATZ have to comply with instructions from ATC ?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What T/I is passed in Class C?

A

VFR on other VFR flights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What T/I is passed Class D?

A

IFR on VFR
VFR on IFR, VFR, SVFR
SVFR on VFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What T/I is passed Class E?

A

as far as practicable
IFR on VFR
VFR on IFR and VFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What information do approach provide aerodrome with?

A

1) data on relevant flights, type (IFR/VFR) level and ETA of arriving aircraft

2) the order of transfer

3) delay times for IFR departing a/c and reasons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What information do approach provide area with on IFR flights?

A

1) Lowest level available at the hold

2) average time interval between approaches

3) Revision of EAT issued by area when approach calculates a variation of 5 minutes or more

4) arrival times over holding points if they vary by 3 minutes or more

5) missed approaches when co-ordination is required

6) departure times of A/C

7) information relating to overdue a/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is coordinated between approach and aerodrome?

A

1) Arriving a/c, landing clearance if required

2) Arriving a/c which are to be cleared to visual holding points

3) A/c routeing through the traffic circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When can Approach transfer control of an IFR flight making a visual approach to Aerodrome?

A

1) When a/c is number 1 or when a/c are on final and have been provided with appropriate
separation

2) A/c in traffic circuit

3) A/c approaching visually below all cloud when aerodrome vis 10km or more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When can aerodrome issue instructions that would reduce separation to arriving A/C?

A

When the A/C is operating with visual reference to the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the met limits to give a VFR clearance?

A

5km and/or 1500ft cloud ceiling
Except Police, HLE, SAR, power, pipe and rail track inspection flights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long is an ATIS?

A

Should not exceed 30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When can a pilot perform a visual approach?

A

1) Reported cloud ceiling is at or above the beginning of the initial approach segment OR

2) Pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach that the vis will permit a visual
approach and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should a controller not clear an A/C for a visual approach?

A

When the RVR is less than 800m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What messages are passed to A/C holding for weather improvement?

A

To first A/C “no traffic delay determined”

To subsequent A/C “ Delay not determined (x) A/C holding for weather improvement”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When the need arises to divert an A/C due to weather what action is taken?

A

1) Hold A/C in the vicinity
2) Contact ACC watch supervisor
3) Obtain Clearance instructions for A/C
4) Pass diversion message to A/C
5) If required pass Alternate weather report
6) Advise operating company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

After a diverted A/C has landed an arrival signal shall be sent to?

A

1) The aerodrome of departure
2) The point of first intended landing
3) The ACCs serving the route
4) LTCC route charges section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What shall an ATC clearance to a departing A/C contain?

A

1) Turn after T/O
2) Track to make good before turning on to a desired heading
3) Initial level to fly
4) Time, point, and /or rate at which changes of level are made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What service is provided within CAS?

A

Radar control service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What service is provided OCAS?

A

Procedural, Deconfliction, Traffic, Basic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What type of things can an approach control unit provide?

A

1) SRA
2) Vectoring and sequencing to a final approach aid
3) Flightpath monitoring
4) ATS surveillance service to departing A/C
5) ATS surveillance service to transiting aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When can an approach controller take control of an inbound aircraft?

A

1) when it has been transferred to him by the approach controller

2) when it has been subject to a radar release from area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When do you have to pass weather to an A/C?

A

As early as practicable unless the information has already been passed by approach or the pilot has
received it through ATIS

Any changes are to be passed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is position information passed to a pilot, when inbound?

A

On each leg of the radar circuit.

At least once if coming straight in for a final approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What information is given to A/C commencing vectoring to final approach?

A

1) Type of final approach
2) Runway
3) procedure to follow in the event of radio failure if not already published

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What additional information is given to an SRA ?

A

1) angle of glide path
2) the termination range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When should A/C be established on the final approach track?

A

5nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If a pilot is to be taken through the final approach track what should be done?

A

Pilot must be informed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is typically the closing heading for an ILS?

A

40 degrees offset.

Mats part 2 may use closing headings which are less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the latest a clearance to land should be passed?

A

2nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What conditions apply to an SRA terminating at 2 miles?

A

1) Advisory heights and ranges passed every mile

2) Pilot should be instructed to check his minimum descent height one mile before advisory heights
are discontinued

3) Advisory heights shall be discontinued at the one above the highest OCH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What conditions apply to an SRA terminating at less than 2 miles?

A

1) Advisory heights and ranges shall be passed at each half mile

2) Transmission shall not be interrupted for intervals of more than 5 seconds within 4 miles

3) Minimum descent height check at 2 miles

4) Advisory heights shall be discontinued at the one above the highest OCH or at 1 mile whichever
is sooner

5) The controller shall have no other responsibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When should an A/C be instructed to carry out a missed approach?

A

1) Approach or Aerodrome instruct it
2) When no landing clearance is received before 2 miles
3) When the A/C is dangerously positioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When should an A/C be advised to carry out a missed approach?

A

1) If it reaches a position from which it appears that a successful approach cannot be completed

2) If it is not visible on the situation display for any significant interval within the last 2 miles

3) The position or identification of the A/C is in doubt during any portion of the final approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When is RVR used?

A

When the met report gives vis less than 1500m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the two types of RVR?

A

IRVR and Human observer method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the increments of RVR reporting?

A

0-400m in 25 metre steps
400-800m in 50 metre steps
800-1500m in 100 metre steps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the duration of IRVR reporting?

A

1) when met report shows vis less 1500m

2) Whenever the IRVR display indicating an RVR value equal to or less than the maximum for that
system

3) Whenever shallow fog is reported and during the period for which it is forecast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When is the IRVR system deemed unserviceable?

A

When the stop end is the only transmissometer available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the frequency of human RVR checks?

A

Half hourly or where there is light traffic 15 minutes before ETA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which A/C are told about RVR?

A

Arriving A/C until they have landed

Departing A/C until they have taken off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the speed limit below FL100?

A

250kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where does this speed limit not apply?

A

1) A and B
2) IFR C
3) VFR C when exempted by the unit and mats part 2
4) Class D when exempted by unit and in mats part 2
5) test flights
6) A/C in flying displays approved by CAA
7) A/C subject to written permission from CAA
8) State A/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Day VFR rules (At and Above FL100 -B-G)

A

1500m Horizontal
1000ft Vertical
8km Vis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

By Day VFR rules
(Below FL100, above 3000ft AMSL or above 1000ft
terrain whichever is higher)

A

1500m Horizontal
1000ft Vertical
5km Vis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the weather limits for a SVFR clearance?

A

Fixed Wing 1500m Vis and 600ft Ceiling
Heli 800m and 600ft Ceiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Who is separated?

A

1) All in class A
2) IFR in C,D and E
3) IFR and VFR in C
4) IFR and SVFR
5) SVFR except where reductions are authorised by CAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When can separation be increased?

A

1) When pilot wants
2) When controller wants
3) When CAA wants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When can separation be reduced in the vicinity of aerodromes?

A

1) When the controller can continuously see both OR
2) both pilots can see each other OR
3) One A/C is following another and can maintain own sep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When else can separation be reduced

A

When SAR Is escorting other A/C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What happens when there is a loss of separation?

A

1) Regain minima
2) Pass ETI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How is essential traffic Information passed?

A

1) Direction
2) Type
3) Cruising level of conflicting A/C and ETA
4) Any alternative clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When can a controller authorise a VMC climb?

A

1) If in D-G at or below FL100
2) Daytime
3) VMC
4) Pilots agree
5) ETI is passed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What types of Horizontal separation are there?

A

1) Lateral
2) Longitudinal
3) ATS surveillance separation

59
Q

What is an exact reporting point?

A

1) Overhead VOR
2) Overhead NDB
3) VOR radials OR VOR radial and NDB bearing
4) VOR DME

60
Q

What are the departure separations?

A

1 minute- 45 degree diverging tracks immediately after T/O

2 minute- first A/C is 40 knots faster and no manoeuvres will reduce sep

5 minute- first A/C is 20 knots faster and no manoeuvres will reduce sep

5 minute- 5 minute sep is maintained and then the will be vertically, radar or track (30 degree) separated

10 minutes

61
Q

What is used for separation using surveillance information?

A

PSR returns

62
Q

When can SSR only horizontal separation be used?

A

1) In accordance with Mats part 2
2) To overcome temporary deficiencies within PSR cover
3) Immediately after PSR failure for the minimum time necessary to establish procedural
separation

63
Q

Contents of a clearance…

A

1) Aircraft identification
2) Clearance limit
3) Route
4) Levels
5) other instructions

64
Q

What is transfer of control?

A

When a flight operating in accordance with co-ordination has reach the position or level agreed
between relevant units

65
Q

When does transfer of control take place?

A

1) At an agreed reporting point
2) On an estimate for an FIR boundary
3) At or passing an agreed level

66
Q

What is EAT?

A

Expected Approach Time.

Time at which ATC expects an arriving A/C following a delay will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing.

67
Q

When is delay not determined used ?

A

When something other than weather is causing an unknown delay. Not to be used when changing
runways

68
Q

What is said to the first A/C holding for weather?

A

No traffic delay

69
Q

What is the parameters for something to be considered a formation ?

A

Class A-D and IFR E
MIL-1nm lat and long within 100ft vert of leader
Civil- 0.5 lat and long within 100ft vert of leader
OR as agreed following pre tact
OR as detailed in an ACN

Class F/G and VFR E
MIL-1nm lat and long within 100ft vert of leader
Civil- 0.5 lat and long within 100ft vert of leader
OR as agreed following pre tact 3nm lat and long and/or up to 1000ft vertically
OR as detailed in an ACN

70
Q

What does a surveillance service comprise of?

A

1) Separation of arriving, dep and en route traffic
2) Vectoring
3) Position information
4) Monitoring traffic
5) Assistance to A/C crossing CAS

71
Q

What shall a controller do before providing any of the other services ?

A

1) Identify the A/C
2) Have the identity transferred

72
Q

What else can a surveillance system be used to provide even if the A/C is not identified ?

A

1) Information on the position of the A/C likely to constitute a hazard

2) Avoiding action

3) Information about the observed weather for pilots and other controllers

4) Assistance to A/C in emergency

73
Q

When shall pilots be informed of a service change?

A

1) OCAS
2) Entering CAS
3) Changing from IFR to VFR or vice versa within Class E
4) VFR entering B-D from Class E or vice versa
5) Leaving CAS unless pilots are provided with advance notice (5-10 nm or 3000-6000 ft prior)

74
Q

Who can Radar Control service be provided to?

A

1- IFR
2- SVFR
3- and VFR B-D

75
Q

Are pilots required to comply with instructions?

(IFR, SVFR and VFR)?

A

Yes however VFR and SVFR will advise if the cannot comply

76
Q

What methods are there to identify using PSR ?

A

1) Turn Method
2) Departing A/C method
3) Position Report method

77
Q

What is the turn method?

A

A period of track observation with an acknowledged execution of 30 degrees or more heading
change

78
Q

What is a the position report method?

A

1) Over exact reporting point on situation display

2) At a distance not exceeding 30 miles on a radial from a VOR/DME

3) Over a notified visual reference point provided the flight is 3000ft or less above the surface

79
Q

What methods can be used to identify when using SSR?

A

1) Observing pilots compliance with an instruction to set a four digit code

2) Recognising a validated four digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign.

3) Observing ident

80
Q

What are the two levels of Mode S?

A

Elementary and Enhanced

81
Q

How may a controller transfer the identity of an A/C when only PSR is available ?

A

1) Direct designation (pointing)

2) Distance and direction from a common reference point. Must be within 3nm of position stated
and the distance from the reference must not exceed 30nm if A/C flying along ATS route or
direction in degrees otherwise 15nm

3) Electronic means

82
Q

When should pilots be informed of their position?

A

1) Following ident from the turn method

2) Pilot asks

3) A/C is off the correct track

4) A/C estimate differs significantly from the controllers estimate when using surveillance systems

5) When the pilot is told to RON following vectoring if considered necessary

83
Q

How is position information passed?

A

1) Well known geographical position, bearing and distance

2) Magnetic track and distance to a location on the situation display

3) Latitude and longitude

4) Distance from touchdown if on final

84
Q

If the intentions are not known between Mode C transponding A/C ?

A

1) Minimum separation in Class A-D IFR and Class B/C VFR is 5000ft

2) Unverified mode C data may be used provided a minimum of 5000ft is A-D. Returns must not
merge

3) Class E returns must not merge unless pilot says he intends to avoid the other A/C without
assistance

85
Q

How is Mode C verified?

A

When the readout is 200ft or less from the report made by the pilot

86
Q

What happens if there is a discrepancy between report and readout ?

A

Pilot asked to confirm altimeter setting and level.
If it continues told to turn off Mode C
If not possible then select A0000

87
Q

When is an A/C deemed to be maintaining a level ?

A

When Mode C indicates 200ft or less from the level

88
Q

When is an A/C said to have left a level?

A

When Mode C indicates a change of 400ft or more from that level and is continuing

89
Q

When can an A/C said to have reached a level?

A

When there is three successive mode C readouts indicating 200ft or less from that level

90
Q

What is a radar handover ?

A

Transfer of responsibility for an A/C from one controller to another

91
Q

When can transfer of responsibility be effected?

A

1) When there is 2 way comms

2) Identity has been transferred to the accepting controller

3) Accepting controller is informed of any instructions passed to the A/C at the stage of transfer

92
Q

What conditions are there for a radar release?

A

1) Transfer of control message is prefixed radar release

2) Details of all conflicting A/C are passed to the approach radar controller

3) Conflicting A/C are either transferred to approach radar control or identified according to the
accepting controllers decision

4) Neither the track nor level of conflicting A/C is altered without co-ordination

93
Q

How can you validate Mode A?

A

Data displayed corresponds to code assigned
1) Squawk assigned code
2) Squawk ident
3) Matching an identified position indication with an assigned code

94
Q

What happens if the readout differs from the assigned code (Mode A) ?

A

Pilot told to squawk 0000
If code persists turn off transponder

95
Q

What is deemed valid (Mode A) ?

A

When a mode A shows a code from a unit that is capable of validating the code

96
Q

When can a controller vector a pilot OCAS?

A

1) When an emergency situation arises
2) When avoiding severe weather
3) When requested by the pilot

97
Q

How far from the CAS boundary should controllers try to keep A/C ?

A

2nm even though A/C are deemed separated from unknown A/C

98
Q

What is the minimum terrain clearance for A/C within the final approach area?

A

Achieved if levels are assigned in accordance with a procedure approved by the CAA

99
Q

What is the minimum terrain clearance for A/C within the surveillance minimum altitude area (SMAA) ?

A

Levels allocated must be in accordance with the information published on the SMAC

100
Q

What is the minimum terrain clearance for A/C within 30 miles of the radar antenna ?

A

1000ft above any fixed obstacle within 5 miles of A/C and 15 miles ahead and 20 degrees either side of the A/Cs track

101
Q

What is the minimum terrain clearance for A/C within 15 miles of the radar antenna ?

A

1000ft above any fixed obstacle within 3 miles of A/C and 10 miles ahead and 20 degrees either side of the A/Cs track

102
Q

What is the minimum terrain clearance for A/C outside of the phases above?

A

1000ft above any fixed obstacle which lies within 15 miles of the centreline of any airway or within 30 miles of the aircraft

103
Q

What is the action to take for an unknown A/C inside class D ?

A

Give IFR traffic avoidance and VFR and SVFR traffic information and if requested traffic avoidance
advice

104
Q

What is the format of traffic information ?

A

Bearing
Distance
Direction
Height

105
Q

What action is taken when there is weather clutter OCAS?

A

Try to re route. Reduce traffic information or terminate the service

106
Q

What action is taken when there is weather clutter CAS ?

A

Take aircraft around the clutter. If necessary stop using radar separation. IFR traffic in Class E can get a reduction in traffic information

107
Q

What actions are taken in a surveillance system failure ?

A

1) Inform A/C under his control
2) Apply local contingency procedures
3) Use half the separation may be used if standard separation cannot be provided (pass ETI)

108
Q

Reasons for an A/C to divert?

A

1) WX
2) Obstructions on the landing area
3) Failure of equipment
4) Failure of ground aids
5) Unacceptable delay
6) Closure of aerodrome

109
Q

When does a TA come on ?

A

45 seconds before collision

110
Q

When does a RA come on ?

A

30 seconds before collision

111
Q

How long does a controller have to file a report an occurrence ?

112
Q

What happens when a flight under deconfliction is climbing to the terrain safe level on departure or conducting an ILS/SRA?

A

Any conflicts traffic info without a deconfliction service is passed.

If the pilot asks for a deconfliction advice or the pilot considers it necessary the controller shall immediately offer advice.

1) Pass avoiding action plus terrain warning

2) For anything on an instrument approach avoiding action and terrain warning passed

3) If A/C on SRA avoiding action can be given without the terrain warning as long as the flight remains within the terrain safe area

113
Q

What is an APS rating?

A

Competent to provide an ATC service to arriving, departing and transiting A/C with the use of surveillance equipment

114
Q

What endorsements are there for APS?

A

SRA
PAR
TCL

115
Q

What is the definition of ‘Identification’ ?

A

Correlating a position indication with a specific A/C

116
Q

ILS LOC protected range?

A

17 nm 25 degrees and 25nm 10 degrees

117
Q

Glidepath protected range ?

A

10nms 8 degrees

118
Q

What is the definition of co ordination?

A

Act of negotiation between 2 or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged

119
Q

What is the definition of a basic service ?

A

Provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct
of flights. Includes Wx, serviceability of facilities, conditions at aerodromes and general airspace
activity information.

120
Q

Who can get a basic service ?

A

VFR and IFR

121
Q

Is a controller required to tell a basic service he is identified ?

122
Q

What is a basic service pilot responsible for ?

A

Terrain clearance and traffic collision avoidance

123
Q

Can a pilot change his level or heading without advising the controller (BS) ?

124
Q

What is the definition of a traffic service ?

A

Surveillance based FIS. Basic service plus specific traffic based information.

125
Q

Who can provide a traffic service ?

A

Controller with appropriate surveillance system

126
Q

Who can get a traffic service ?

A

IFR and VFR

127
Q

Is a controller required to tell a traffic service he is identified ?

A

Yes and the controller must maintain the identity. If ident lost then the pilot shall be informed and the controller shall try to re-establish identity.

128
Q

What distance from the A/C is traffic information passed? (TS)

A

5nm and 3000ft (considered relevant at 3nm)

129
Q

What is a traffic service pilot responsible for ?

A

Terrain clearance and traffic collision avoidance

130
Q

Can a pilot change his level or heading without advising the controller (TS) ?

A

Generally the pilot will inform the controller before changing routing or level

131
Q

What is the definition of a deconfliction service ?

A

Surveillance based FIS. Basic service plus headings and levels to try to achieve deconfliction minima.

132
Q

Who can provide a deconfliction service ?

A

Controller with appropriate surveillance system

133
Q

Who is deconfliction service available to ?

134
Q

What is the deconfliction minima against un co ordinated traffic ?

A

5nm 3000ft returns should not merge unless mode c is verified

135
Q

What is the deconfliction minima against co ordinated traffic or same frequency ?

A

3nm 1000ft or 500ft if approved by CAA

136
Q

What level are A/C required to be for a DS ?

A

Above unit terrain safe level

137
Q

Can a pilot change his level or heading without advising the controller ? (DS)

138
Q

When shall radar service be terminated?

A

Radar contact lost or it has been handed over to another unit

139
Q

When can radar services be reduced?

A

OCAS where controllers cannot continue to provide information on ALL unknown conflicting A/C

140
Q

When should radar services be reduced?

A

1) A/C close to edge of situation display
2) A/C close to the radar overhead
3) A/C close to weather clutter or PE
4) A/C is operating in area of high traffic density
5) A/C operating near to limits of solid radar cover
6) A/C is provided by using secondary radar only

141
Q

What is provided in an air traffic advisory route?

A

Deconfliction service if possible. Otherwise procedural service, traffic service may be provided in addition. A/C on ADRs use the semicircular rule

142
Q

What are the actions when there is a RADAR failure ?

A

1) Notify A/C
2) Establish non radar sep
3) Reduced vertical separation may be used
4) Pass essential traffic information

143
Q

When radar is back in service what action is taken ?

A

1)Re identify
2) Inform A/C
3) Validate and verify

144
Q

What is the RPS ?

A

Lowest QNH for a region H+1 to H+2