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APS > APS Non UK Written Exam > Flashcards

APS Non UK Written Exam Flashcards

1
Q

An Approach Control Surveillance (APS) rating entitles the holder to act as an air traffic controller in the provision of an approach control service…

A

With the use of surveillance equipment

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2
Q

An Approach Control Surveillance rating has what associated endorsements?

A

SRA, PAR and TCL endorsements

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3
Q

A surveillance radar approach rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide, what?

A

Non-precision radar approaches with the use of surveillance radar equipment

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4
Q

What document specifies the privileges of air traffic controller ratings and rating endorsements of an European Union air traffic controller licence?

A

EU Regulation 2015/340

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5
Q

Which of the following are permitted to be used as a holding fix?

a) Overhead a VOR
b) Overhead a VOR with co-located DME
c) Overhead an NDB
d) An intersection of VOR radials
e) An intersection of bearings from NDBs
f) An intersection of VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME
g) An intersection of a bearing from an NDB and a distance from co-located DME

A

a) Overhead a VOR

b) Overhead a VOR with co-located DME

c) Overhead an NDB

d) An intersection of VOR radials

f) An intersection of VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME

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6
Q

What determines the ICAO approach category of aircraft?

A

The aircraft’s VAT in landing configuration as its maximum certified landing weight

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7
Q

What is the purpose of a limiting DME?

A

To limit the length of the outbound leg

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8
Q

How long does a standard holding pattern take at or below 14,000ft?

A

4 minutes

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9
Q

What is meant by an Approach Procedure with Vertical Guidance (APV)?

A

An instrument approach utilising barometric vertical guidance as well as lateral guidance but which does not meet the full requirements established for precision approach and landing operations

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10
Q

What is GNSS?

A

A generic term for all satellite navigation systems

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11
Q

The minimum decision height allowed for Localiser Performance Approaches with Vertical Guidance (LPVs) is…

A

200ft

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12
Q

’’ A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of on board self-contained systems, or a combination of these’’, is the definition of?

A

RNAV

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13
Q

What action should a controller take when a pilot reports ‘‘TCAS RA’’?

A

Acknowledge by saying ‘‘(Callsign, roger)’’

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14
Q

After a pilot has reported ‘‘TCAS RA’’ when can a controller next issue instructions to the aircraft?

A

When the pilot reports ‘‘clear of conflict’’

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15
Q

What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?

A

Pass appropriate pressure setting

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16
Q

Following an RA when does ATC resume responsibility for separation for that aircraft and any other affected by the manoeuvre?

A

When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed

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17
Q

A Radar Handover may be effected provided that…

A

Satisfactory two way speech communication is available between them

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18
Q

Prior to transfer of responsibility, the accepting controller is to be informed of, what?

A

Any level or vectoring instructions

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19
Q

If SSR is not available, a controller may transfer the identity of an aircraft to another controller by?

A

1- Direct designation of the position indication

2- Designation of the position indication in terms of direction and distance from a common reference point

3- Designation by electronic means

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20
Q

When the identity of an aircraft is transferred from one controller to another by stating the bearing and distance of the aircraft from a geographical position what is the maximum distance between aircraft and reference point permitted by ICAO?

A

No limit specified by ICAO but National Regulatory Authorities may specify limits for use in their own countries.

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21
Q

A mode C readout associated with a conspicuity squawk is to be considered?

A

Unverified

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22
Q

Aircraft may be instructed to squawk 0000, when?

A

When either Mode A or Mode C is corrupt

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23
Q

The minimum mode C accuracy tolerance which ICAO permits National Regulatory Authorities to specify for use within their own countries (and which the CAA specifies for use in the UK) is…

A

+/- 200ft

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24
Q

According to ICAO procedures, when can an aircraft be said to have vacated a level once it has acknowledged a climb or descent instruction?

A

Mode C indicated more than 300ft away from the level

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25
Q

How long is a standard 5-bar approach lighting system?

A

900m

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26
Q

On a runway with a displaced threshold with no reduction in TORA the…

A

Landing Distance Available will be less than Take Off Run Available

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27
Q

A pilot slightly below the correct glide path will see the PAPIs displaying, what?

A

1 white and 3 red lights

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28
Q

What is the definition of Aerodrome Elevation?

A

The elevation of the highest point on the landing area

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29
Q

When both SSR and PSR are available, the ‘‘identification on departure’’ method maybe used?

A

By observing the PSR return

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30
Q

When employing the turn method of identification, what size of turn is required under ICAO procedures?

A

30 degrees or more

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31
Q

According to ICAO procedures, the departing aircraft method of identification must be completed before the aircraft passes a point how far from the end of the runway?

A

1nm

32
Q

According to ICAO procedures, a position report should be passed to a pilot after identification, when?

A

1- When the pilot requests this information

2- When a pilot estimates differs significantly from the controllers estimate based on the observed position

3- When the pilot is instructed to resume own navigation after vectoring if the current instructions had diverted the aircraft from a previously assigned route

4- Immediately before termination of ATS surveillance service, if the aircraft is observed to deviate from its intended route.

33
Q

A step down fix is provided, if necessary…

A

To ensure obstacle clearance during the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure

34
Q

From the list below, select 5 precision approaches

1- ILS
2- ILS/DME
3- LOC
4- LOC/DME
5- MLS
6- VOR
7- VOR/DME
8- NDB
9- NDB/DME
10- SRA terminating at 2miles from t/d
11- SRA terminating at 1/2 mile from t/d
12- PAR
13- GNSS LNAV
14- APV
15- RNP AR APCH

A

1- ILS
2- ILS/DME
3- MLS
4- PAR
5- RNP AR APCH

35
Q

The VM(C) OCA is designed for use by…

A

Aircraft conducting a visual circuit to a runway after making an instrument approach to a different runway

36
Q

On reaching his/her decision altitude a pilot must commence a missed approach unless, what?

A

He/she has established the required visual reference

37
Q

The principle whereby airspace is not designated as purely civil or military but is considered one single continuum within which the requirements of all airspace users should be accommodated to the maximum possible extent is called?

A

Flexible use of airspace

38
Q

According to the principle of FUA any segregation of airspace should be…

A

Short term

39
Q

The body responsible for day-to-day management of airspace within FUA concept is known as the…

A

Airspace Management Cell

40
Q

A Cross Border Area is

A

A TRA or TSA which straddles one or more international boundaries

41
Q

What is the definition of Transition Altitude?

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is normally controlled by reference to altitude

42
Q

Complete the definition…

’’ The transition level is the lowest flight level available for use above the _____’’

A

Transition Altitude

43
Q

Complete the definition…

’’ The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level is called the _____’’

A

Transition Layer

44
Q

What is the QFE if the QNH is 1021 hPa and the airfield elevation is 180ft?

A

QFE 1015 hPa

(180ft / 30ft = 6)
minus 6 hPa from QNH

45
Q

According to ICAO, aircraft being vectored inside CAS should be kept a minimum of how far away from the CAS boundary?

A

Half of the separation distance required inside that area of CAS or 2.5nm whichever is greater

46
Q

Why do pilots normally use a gyro direction indicator, rather than a magnetic compass to steer by?

A

The compass is inherently inaccurate during turns

47
Q

What is the minimum distance from touchdown an aircraft should intercept the localiser during a radar vectored ILS approach?

A

5 miles

48
Q

What is the standard protected range of an ILS glide path?

A

10 miles and 8 degrees either side of the centerline

49
Q

Assuming a rate one turn, how long will an aircraft take to complete one orbit?

A

2 minutes

50
Q

When may speed control not be applied by ATC?

A

Inside 4 miles from touchdown

51
Q

To what speed limit are most civil aircraft restricted below FL 100 (or 10,000ft if TL is higher) in Classes E, F and G airspace

A

250kt IAS

52
Q

What is meant by an aircrafts minimum clean speed?

A

The minimum speed the aircraft can fly without deploying high lift devices

53
Q

When aircraft are holding for weather improvements what should the first aircraft to hold be advised about the delay?

A

No traffic delay expected

54
Q

What is meant by Runway Visual Range (RVR)?

A

A more localized assessment of the visibility in relation to a particular runway when the general met visibility is less than 1500m

55
Q

Complete this sentence…

'’On a 4F runway capable of cat2/3 operations there will be three IRVR sensing locations situated adjacent to the (_____), (_____) and (_____) of the runway’’

A

Touchdown zone, Midpoint and Stop end

56
Q

In what increments are RVR values in excess of 800m reported?

A

100m

57
Q

What system enables use of control surfaces and high lift devices, as well as, undercarriage retraction, nose wheel steering etc on most large aircraft?

A

Hydraulic system

58
Q

One undesirable effect of a late change of runway or type of approach is….

A

An unstabilised approach

59
Q

Complete the sentence…

'’An aircraft which is unable to lower its flaps will touchdown at a _____ speed than normal and have a _____ than normal landing roll’’.

A

Higher and Longer

60
Q

Extension of high lift devices has what effect on an aircraft?

A

Increases lift, increases drag, increases fuel consumption, allows the aircraft to fly at a lower speed

61
Q

What class of airspace are ATZ’s?

A

The same class as the airspace within which they are situated

62
Q

What is the definition of a Control Zone?

A

A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified level

63
Q

What is the definition of a Terminal Control Area?

A

A Control Area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes

64
Q

What is the minimum level that the lower limit of a CTA can be?

A

700ft AGL

65
Q

In which classes of airspace is separation provided between all flights?

A

Class A and B

66
Q

In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate?

A

Class B - G

67
Q

In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate without an ATC clearance?

A

Class E, F and G

68
Q

In which classes of airspace are VFR flights separated from IFR flights?

A

Class B and C

69
Q

What communication equipment must be carried by all aircraft except gliders and self-launching motor gliders wishing to operate within CAS in Europe below FL195?

A

VHF RTF capable of maintaining direct two-way communication with the appropriate ATC units on the intended route using the frequencies notified or otherwise designated by the competent authority for that purpose.

70
Q

The term used to describe the coverage boundary of an RTF station is…

A

Designated Operational Coverage

71
Q

What are the 2 levels of Mode S?

A

Elementary and Enhanced

72
Q

What does the transponder code 7500 indicate?

A

Unlawful Interference

73
Q

What should ATC do, provided if practical, if an aircraft’s transponder fails whilst is flying in Transponder Mandatory Airspace?

A

Endeavour to provide for the continuation of the flight to the aerodrome of first intended landing in accordance with the flight plan

74
Q

What should ATC allow an aircraft to do if its transponder fails before it gets airborne on a flight for which the operation of a Transponder is Mandatory?

A

Prevent the aircraft from departing unless it is impractical for repairs to be effected at the aerodrome, in which case flight by the most direct route possible to the nearest aerodrome where repairs can be effected should be facilitated

75
Q

Complete the following statement

’’ After a radar failure, if standard vertical separation cannot be established immediately, emergency vertical separation of (_____) the standard separation may be used temporarily’’.

A

Half

76
Q

If the ILS LOC fails…

A

The ILS cannot be used

APS (4 decks)

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