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APS > ABES Oral Exam > Flashcards

ABES Oral Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What does STORCALE stand for?

A
  • Separate
  • Transmit
  • Other
  • Request assistance
  • Continue
  • Alternates
  • Liaise
  • Emergency
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2
Q

What is the VMC radio failure procedure?

A
  • Squawk 7600
  • Land at nearest suitable aerodrome
  • Take into account of visual aids and light signals.
  • Report arrival to ATCU asap
  • Adopt IMC procedure if can’t maintain VMC.
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3
Q

What is the IMC radio failure procedure, during an approach directed by radar?

A
  • Squawk 7600
  • Continue visually, or by means of instrument app procedures to land. If unable, carry out MAP and
    continue to holding facility for an airfield with notified instrument app and carry out such an app
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4
Q

What is the IMC radio failure procedure, not during an approach directed by radar?

A
  • Squawk 7600
  • Maintain for 7min (from time 7600 set) current speed and last assigned level (or MSA if higher)
  • Following 7min period, adjust speed and level according to current FPL and continue to landing aid serving destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports en-route
  • Arrange flight to arrive over landing aid as close to ETA as possible.
  • Arrange flight to arrive over landing aid at highest notified MSA (considering en-route terrain requirements)
  • If following a STAR, after 7min period completed, pilot should arrange descent as close as possible to
    published descent planning profile (or to arrive at IAF at minimum published level)
  • On reaching landing aid, begin descent at last acknowledged EAT (or at ETA if not EAT given)
    o Remain in holding pattern as necessary until at the minimum published holding level.
    o Rate of descent not <500ft/min.
    o If “delay not determined” given, do not attempt to land, but divert
  • Carry out notified instrument approach and land within 30mins of EAT or ETA if possible. Look out for signals
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5
Q

If an aircraft is flying on a SID has RT failure, what are the pilots actions?

A

Follow the SID profile until end of SID, then for 7minutes remain current speed and last assigned level or MSA if higher

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6
Q

What is the IMC radio failure procedure for aircraft when being vectored by Radar?

A

(If radar vectored, or RNAV offset) continue as per ATC instructions for 3min and then proceed to rejoin
current FPL route (remaining above MSA)

Comply with notified Loss of Comms procedures for destination aerodrome

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7
Q

Can an aircraft operating under a SVFR clearance enter the CTR if an RTF failure is believed to have occurred?

A

No, must remain outside, unless RTF failure occurs after having entered the CTR already.

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8
Q

When might a controller suspect an emergency situation?

A

1- Radio contact not established when expected
2- Radio contact is lost
3- Pilot reports malfunctioning of a/c or unusual behaviour of persons on board
4- Erratic behaviour of position symbol observed
5- Aircraft is overdue at an aerodrome
6- Pilot reports aircraft is short of fuel

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9
Q

Other than SSR code 7600, how else might a pilot indicate they have a Complete or Partial Radio Failure?

A

Conducting emergency triangles:
RH = Transmitter only, LH = Complete failure

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10
Q

If communication is lost, or cannot be established with an aircraft, is a radio failure the only consideration?

A

No – always consider other emergencies.

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11
Q

How would a controller identify whether an aircraft’s receiver is operating, using PSR only?

A

Instruct the aircraft to make a turn/turns. If position indication matches instructions, resume normal service

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12
Q

How would a controller identify whether an aircraft’s receiver is operating, using SSR?

A

Use the IDENT feature to determine if pilot can hear the controllers instructions

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13
Q

What procedure would you expect the pilot of an IFR aircraft following the ATS route structure to follow?

A

IMC procedure, unless overriding safety reason compels them to use the VMC procedure

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14
Q

In the event that a pilot experiences a further emergency, while squawking 7600, what should they do?

A

Squawk 7700

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15
Q

At what point can normal operations be resumed following a radio failure situation?

A

1- When it is determined that alternative action can be taken, or resuming normal ops would not impair safety

2- If communication is re-established (in which case inform unit where RT fail was initiated)

3- When positive information received that aircraft has landed (and inform unit where RT fail was initiated)

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16
Q

When can levels, previously occupied by an aircraft subject to RT fail, be re-allocated?

A
  • Following 15 minutes after the latest time the level should have been vacated.
  • The lowest level in a stack should be kept clear for 30minutes (plus time for aircraft to leave vicinity).
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17
Q

When can normal operations be resumed after pos of RT fail aircraft not determined within 30min?

A

After pertinent information about it is given to operators/pilots and they take responsibility for determining if they will resume normal operations or take alternative action

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18
Q

When might operations normal calls be required/requested?

A
  • Where flights receiving an ATS will operate in the area of one ATSU for a prolonged period.
  • Transmissions may occur following period of 30mins RT inactivity
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19
Q

When an operations normal call is not made when expected, what should be your actions? (Regarding RT failure ac)

A

Ask: “Callsign, confirm operations normal?”, and following successive unsuccessful attempts, initiate overdue action

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20
Q

What does ASSISTS stand for?

A
  • Acknowledge
  • Separate
  • Silence
  • Inform
  • Support
  • Time
  • Squawk
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21
Q

What is the definition of the Uncertainty Phase?

A

A situation where in UNCERTAINTY exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants

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22
Q

What is the definition of the Alert Phase?

A

A situation wherein APPREHENSION exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants

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23
Q

What is the definition of the Distress Phase?

A

A situation wherein there is REASONABLE CERTAINTY that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and
imminent danger or require immediate assistance

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24
Q

What needs to be coordinated with ATC regarding fuel dumping?

A

1- Route to be flown.
2- Level to be used.
3- Estimated duration of fuel dump.
4- Frequency to be monitored while fuel dumping.

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25
Q

What is the definition of a strayed aircraft?

A

An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track, or which reports it is lost

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26
Q

What is the definition of an unidentified aircraft?

A

An a/c which has been observed/reported to be operating in a given area but whose identity hasn’t been established

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27
Q

What action shall be taken by ATC regarding a strayed aircraft?

A

1- Attempt to established two-way communication

2- Inform other ATSUs as required

3- Request assistance from D&D/other units/other aircraft to establish communication

4- Notify ACC Supervisor if unlawful interference suspected

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28
Q

What action shall be taken by ATC regarding an aircraft which reports it is lost?

A

1- Treat position reports with caution

2- Use surveillance/VDF to locate aircraft

3- Advise pilot to climb if comms poor or if below cover (caution – cloud?)

4- Consider terrain clearance, advise pilot to climb

5- Request assistance from other ATSUs to determine a/c position

6- Inform D&D and/or ACC Supervisor if unlawful interference suspected

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29
Q

What action shall be taken by ATC regarding an unidentified aircraft?

A

1- Attempt to establish identity and two way communication with aircraft

2- Inform D&D and other affected ATSUs and request their assistance for the above

3- Notify ACC Supervisor if unlawful interference suspected

4- Obtain information from other aircraft in the area if possible

5- Notify units when aircraft identified who need to know

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30
Q

What action is to be taken when an aircraft wants to divert?

A

1- Hold aircraft in the vicinity
2- Contact ACC supervisor
3- Obtain clearance
4- Pass diversion message to aircraft
5- Pass alternate weather report
6- Advise operating company or addressee in FPL

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31
Q

What preliminary action shall be taken when a non-radio aircraft is overdue and within what time?

A
  • Check FPL
  • Consult operator/company
  • Confirm ATD
  • Inform ACC Supervisor and coordinate:
    a) Checking with alternates
    b) Sending RQS message
    c) Check with aerodromes along planned route
  • Started within 30minutes after ETA
32
Q

What full action shall be taken when a non-radio aircraft is overdue and within what time?

A
  • Notify ACC and state action already taken
  • Continue to make attempts to trace the aircraft
  • Started within 1hr after ETA
33
Q

What preliminary action shall be taken when a radio equipped aircraft is overdue and within what time?

A
  • Advise ACC supervisor that aircraft is overdue
  • Confirm ATD
  • Ensure RQS message sent
  • Started within 30minutes after ETA for reporting point
34
Q

What full action shall be taken when a radio equipped aircraft is overdue and within what time?

A
  • Inform ACC supervisory that aircraft is fully overdue
  • Started within 1hr after ETA for reporting point
35
Q

What action shall be taken when an aircraft fails to land within 5min of estimated time of landing?

A

1- Alert Approach Radar if applicable
2- Request other aircraft in vicinity to be on lookout
3- Exercise caution approving movements of a/c on AD
4- Alert emergency services as per MATS II
5- Check with ADs in vicinity
6- Send RQS message if required
7- Advise ACC supervisor

36
Q

What is the definition of Acts of unlawful interference?

A

Acts or attempted acts such as to jeopardise the safety of civil aviation and air transport

37
Q

What is the definition of a Red Bomb Warning?

A

Specific warning where the threat is of a nature which permits identification of a specific target or where the caller has positively identified himself or the organisation involved and it is judged credible

38
Q

What is the definition of an Amber Bomb Warning?

A

Warning related to one/more targets, but where there’s doubt about credibility or existing counter-measures.

39
Q

What is the definition of a Green Bomb Warning?

A

Warning which may not identify a target or specific group of targets or which otherwise lacks credibility

40
Q

What must you continue to transmit to an aircraft subject to unlawful interference?

A

Information pertinent to the safe conduct of the flight

41
Q

What document gives advice to controllers on the handling of aircraft emergencies?

A

CAP745

42
Q

If a pilot reports a problem, but does not declare an emergency, what should they be asked?

A

If they wish to declare an emergency

43
Q

What is the definition of Distress?

A

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

44
Q

What is the definition of urgency?

A

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or of some person on board or in sight, but which does not
require immediate assistance

45
Q

What should an emergency contain?

A
  • MAYDAY/PAN
  • Name of station addressed and aircraft
  • Nature of emergency
  • Intention of person on board
  • Pilot qualification
  • As much information as time permits
46
Q

If a pilot does not declare an emergency, can you still initiate emergency action?

A

Yes

47
Q

Using visual signals, how might an aircraft display distress?

A
  • Signaling of SOS
  • Red pyrotechnical lights
  • Parachute with red light
48
Q

Using visual signals, how might an aircraft display urgency?

A
  • Switching on and off the landing lights/nav lights
  • White Pyrotechnical lights
  • Signaling of XXX
49
Q

Who would you inform if you witness an aircraft flying emergency triangles?

A

D&D

50
Q

Would you consider transferring control of an aircraft with an emergency to another unit?

A

Only if convinced the aircraft will receive more assistance from another unit

51
Q

On what frequencies does D&D operate?

A

121.500 and 243.0

52
Q

What control do you have, and does D&D retain over an aircraft with an emergency?

A

ATCU has operational control, D&D retains executive control

53
Q

What unit specific information would you give to D&D for an aircraft in an emergency?

A

Minimum safe altitudes, local airspace, terrain or obstacles

54
Q

Within what area can D&D offer an auto triangulation service?

A

South of river Humber, and east of N864 airway down to 3000ft (2000ft within 40nm of EGLL)

55
Q

If you intercept a message from an aircraft indicated they are in an emergency, what shall you do?

A
  • Forward the message to the station being called and/or the ACC supervisor
  • Attempt to establish two-way communication with the aircraft
  • Give every assistance to the aircraft
56
Q

Who would you inform if an aircraft has, or is likely to have crashed outside of the radius of action of AD RFFS?

A

ACC Supervisor

57
Q

For what is the ACC Supervisor responsible in an emergency?

A
  • Co-ordinating the operation unless action can be taken by originating unit
  • Taking alerting action
  • Alerting D&D
58
Q

If a message is received from an operator to be passed to an aircraft, how shall it be passed?

A

Verbatim using the operators own words

59
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for making decisions about an aircraft in an emergency?

A

The captain of the aircraft who has ultimate responsibility for safety of his aircraft

60
Q

If there is doubt as to an aircrafts ability to maintain height, or if parts could detach, what should be avoided?

A

Routing over densely populated areas, unless for safety where expedition is required

61
Q

Who must be informed of aircraft carrying dangerous goods, and where can this information be found?

A

RFFS. Can be found on the flight plan RMK section

62
Q

If an aircraft carrying explosives has an emergency, where should they ideally land?

A

A military aerodrome, or Humberside and Prestwick (NOT LL, KK, or CC)

63
Q

If a mil aircraft with an emergency declares they are carrying dangerous goods/explosives, who is to be informed?

A

D&D

64
Q

At what levels can fuel dumping be carried out?

A

Ideally above FL100, but 7000 in winter and 4000ft in summer acceptable

65
Q

Who shall be informed if a BRS has been activated?

A

RFFS, especially if known to have been activated by failed to operate (live rocket)

66
Q

What constitutes unlawful interference?

A
  • Unlawful seizure, or control of an aircraft by force/threats (Hijacking)
  • Unauthorised removal of an aircraft and its subsequent flight
  • Flight of an aircraft with intent to defect
  • Illegal use of aircraft to effect escape of prisoners/hospital patients
  • Use of aircraft in furtherance of crime/terrorism
67
Q

Who will act as the coordinating authority in the event of unlawful interference?

A

ACC Supervisor (Overall authority rests with Government officials)

68
Q

What phraseology would you use to check if selection of A7500 was intentional?

A

“(Callsign), confirm squawking assigned code?”

69
Q

When might you suspect unlawful interference?

A

1- Unauthorised deviations
2- Refusal to comply with ATC
3- Loss of RT contact
4- Unauthorised SSR changes/IDENT
5- Non-standard phraseology or attempt to
highlight situation

6- Selection of 7600 or 7700
7- Notification from unofficial sources
8- Open Transmitter
9- Non ATC related transmission
10- Threat passed by third party

70
Q

To whom is an alerting service provided?

A
  • Aircraft provided with an air traffic service
  • Aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to an ATSU
  • Aircraft subject to unlawful interference
71
Q

When an aircraft is known to be in need of SAR aid, what shall units do?

A

Set in motion local emergency orders, or inform the ACC supervisor

72
Q

What is the definition of aircraft accident?

A

Aircraft accidents which have, or are likely to occur, on or within the vicinity of the aerodrome

73
Q

What is the definition of aircraft ground incident?

A

Where an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency, other than an accident which requires the
attendance of emergency services

74
Q

What is the definition of full emergency?

A

When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected, to be in such difficulties that there is danger of an accident

75
Q

What is the definition of local standby?

A

When it is known that an aircraft has, or is suspected to have developed some defect, but the trouble would not
normally involve serious difficulty in effecting a safe landing

76
Q

What is the definition of weather standby?

A

When weather conditions make landing difficult or difficult to observe

APS (4 decks)

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