Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

bds 2 & 3 anatomy > oral biology mcq > Flashcards

oral biology mcq Flashcards

1
Q

The majority of bones of the face and cranium are developed by which of the following
processes?

A

intramembranous bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The fifth cranial nerve develops in which of the following portions of the brain?

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an example of which of the following genetic abnormalities?

A

autosomal genetic abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The oropharynx is composed of which of the following structures?

A

primitive oral cavity and the pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The first pharyngeal arch will eventually form which of the following structures?

A

mandible and muscles of mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following organs is derived from the endodermal lining of the second pharyngeal pouch?

A

palatine nostrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which nerve branch carries the sensory modality of taste from the taste buds located in the
posterior one third of the tongue?

A

glossopharyngeal (9th)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves functions in mastication and sensory for the face and
mouth?

A

trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following cartilage arches is known as “Reichert cartilage” and eventually
contributes to the upper body of the hyoid?

A

second arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is derived from the third pharyngeal arch?

A

greater horn of the hyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what rises from 4th and 6th pharyngeal arch?

A

laryngeal and thyroid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what arch does lesser horn of the hyoid forms from?

A

2nd arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following defects is directly attributable to pharyngeal arch deficiencies?

A

treacher collins syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which part of the developing mandible develops in response to the developing teeth?

A

alveolar process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following skull sutures is present in an adult, but NOT present in a newborn?

A

the pterygopalatine suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following structures supports the maxillary and mandibular cartilages of the face?

A

the cranial base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following cartilages is derived from pharyngeal arch 3?

A

the greater horn of the hyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following structures does NOT develop from pharyngeal pouches?

A

the styloid process

it develops from 2nd pharyngeal arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following cartilages are transformed into bone by intramembranous bone formation?

A

temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following cartilages are derived from the first pharyngeal arch?

A

malleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following mandibular features develops in response to the lateral pterygoid and masseter masticatory muscles?

A

angular process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following replace Meckel’s cartilage?

A

body of the mandible and the cartilaginous condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

At 8 months, which of the following sutures are NOT seen in the palate?

A

between the zygomatic and palatine bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following ligaments is found in pharyngeal arch 2 that supports an essential element of that arch?

A

the stylohyoid ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following structures are closely related in time of development and sometimes
have related malformations?

A

palate and face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following segments first separate the oral and nasal cavities?

A

The medial palatal segments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following features come to the front of the face at week 6?

A

the eyes and maxillary processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The zone of fusion between the medial nasal and maxillary process is referred to as which
of the following?

A

nasal fin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Palatal shelf elevation takes place during which prenatal week of development?

A

8th prenatal week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following pharyngeal arch tissue forms the anterior body of the tongue?

A

1st pharyngeal arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT innervate in the tongue?

A

6th

it is by 5th, 7th, 9th, 12th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is the most common facial malformation?

A

cleft lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

During which of the following prenatal weeks do the palatine shelves elevate and begin closure?

A

8th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the term that is used when fewer than six permanent teeth are missing due to a
genetic abnormality?

A

hypodontia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following cells forms the dental papilla?

A

mesenchyme cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of neural crest cells?

A

development of dental papilla = mesenchymal cells

neural crest cells help to develop salivary glands, bone, cartilage, nerves and muscles of the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

At the leading edge of the lamina, how many tooth buds form?

A

20

for primary 20 teeth that develop later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the final stage of tooth development?

A

function

dentinogenesis and amelogenesis -> crown formation -> root formation -> eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How long does it take predentin to calcify and become dentin?

A

after 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When does the dental lamina undergo autolysis?

A

after the enamel organ is differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In tooth formation, which of the following occurs first?

A

ameloblast differentiates first
causing the precursor odontoblast to locate itself adjacent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Dental papilla eventually becomes which of the following structures?

A

it becomes dental pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what happens at the dentinogenesis stage?

A

initial formation of the dentin
vascularisation of the pulp organ
differentiation of the dental follicular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

During which stage of tooth development are both enamel and dentin actively secreted until
the crown is complete?

A

appositional stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the mineral content of enamel?

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following is the primary function of cementum?

A

attachment of the principal periodontal ligament fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following is most likely to affect mineralization of primary tooth crowns?

A

any prenatal systemic disturbance

postanatal = permanent tooth crowns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Approximately how long does the period of root maturation and root resorption extend for
primary teeth?

A

3.75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following functions occur only in the primary dentition?

A

root resorption and pulp degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

During which stage of development do the follicular cells migrate from the enamel organ peripherally into the follicle?

A

cap and bell stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following is bone that forms between the roots of multirooted teeth?

A

interradicular bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

fundamental causes of primary tooth loss?

A

root resorption
bone resorption
size of crown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

During the lengthening of the jaw, primary and permanent teeth make which type of movements?

A

mesial and distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

For which of the following clinical areas is root resorption NOT important?

A

for eruption of permanent molar teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following teeth develops within tuberosities with their occlusal surfaces slanted distally?

A

maxillary molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the first step in root formation?

A

Proliferation of the epithelial root sheath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

At the tooth apex, which of the following structures fills the space left behind as the tooth begins eruptive movement?

A

trabeculae ladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How long does it take for root completion to occur in permanent teeth?

A

2-3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following functions will result in deposits of cementum on the root’s apex in later life?

A

attrition and abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following factors associated with tooth eruption is (are) MOST important?

A

elongation of the root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which of the following teeth begin calcification 5 months in utero?

A

5 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following teeth have completed crown development by 6 months postnatally?

A

1st primary molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When do the primary lower lateral incisors appear in the oral cavity?

A

8-13 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following permanent teeth are the first to begin calcification?

A

first molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which of the following permanent teeth have completed root formation by age 10?

A

central incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following permanent teeth appear first in the oral cavity before premolars?

A

lower canine - 9-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

By which year has the clinical crown of the lower second premolar completed formation?

A

by age 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which of the following permanent teeth begin calcification at year 1–2?

A

upper and lower 1st premolars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following permanent teeth is the last to appear in the oral cavity?

A

upper first premolars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When compared to the permanent teeth, teeth in the primary dentition exhibit which of the following characteristics?

A

smaller and fewer in number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How many teeth can be accommodated in the jaws during the mixed dentition period?

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the shedding cycle of primary teeth?

A

generation of primary pulp tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which of the following characteristics can be seen in the pulp chamber of permanent teeth?

A

oval shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which of the following characteristics can be seen in the pulp chamber of primary teeth?

A

Larger in relation to rest of tooth.
Ribbon-like pulp in root.
Large mesiobuccal (MB) pulp horn in molars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following primary teeth have a larger mesiodistal (MD) width than their successors?

A

primary molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of permanent teeth as compared to primary teeth?

A

Curved mesial/distal/buccal/lingual (M/D/B/L) crown shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following is the leeway space?

A

Difference in MD width between primary molars and permanent premolars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When are fractures in enamel especially likely to occur?

A

if the underlying dentin is carious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Hydroxyapatite is NOT found in which of the following structures?

A

pulp

but in enamel, dentine and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following is the primary organic component of enamel?

A

enamelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In which of the following locations does enamel reach its maximum thickness?

A

occlusal incisal

(2.5 mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which of the following components of an enamel rod is NOT formed by one of the four ameloblasts?

A

rod body

but rod head, neck and tail do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

In which of the following locations is gnarled enamel located?

A

cusp tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which of the following features within groups of rods provides enamel with strength for mastication and biting?

A

bending at different angles to adjacent groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

In which of the following locations will Hunter-Schreger bands occur?

A

along the long axis of the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of the following characteristics are seen on enamel internal to the neonatal line?

A

fewer defects in consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The neonatal line is considered which of the following?

A

line of Retzius

(brown striae, more parallel to the surface)
on the right

88
Q

Which of the following are cracks in the surface of enamel that are visible to the naked eye?

A

enamel lamellae

89
Q

enamel lamellae

A

Form during enamel development.
Possible avenue for dental caries.
Stress cracks that occur because of impact.

90
Q

The scalloping found on the enamel-dentine junction (EDJ) is more pronounced in the incisal and cuspal regions, compared with the side of the crown.
Is there any advantage of this arrangement?

A

The scalloped junction may provide a better mechanical union between enamel and dentine. There is increased surface of contact. Also, the interlocking shape may provide more resistance to lateral, shearing forces.

91
Q

difference between enamel lamellae and enamel striae?

A

Enamel striae or striae of retzius are incremental lines of enamel formed during the process of amelogenesis.

Enamel lamellae are linear mineralization defects present in the enamel of both deciduous and permanent teeth.

92
Q

primary dentine

A

laid down while the tooth is forming. It is completed when the root apex is fully formed.

93
Q

secondary dentine

A

refers to dentine laid down during the life of the tooth, after the tooth is fully formed.

94
Q

tertiary dentine

A

dentine laid down in response to wear of the overlying enamel and dentine.

95
Q

what are dead tracts?

A

Trauma will cause the odontoblastic processes within the dentinal tubules to “die back” toward the cell body. In severe cases the cells themselves may die. Such regions of dentin (with empty dentinal tubules) are called dead tracts (B) and appear dark in ground sections.

96
Q

what are dead tracts?

A

Trauma will cause the odontoblastic processes within the dentinal tubules to “die back” toward the cell body. In severe cases the cells themselves may die. Such regions of dentin (with empty dentinal tubules) are called dead tracts (B) and appear dark in ground sections.

97
Q

Which of the following is NOT always attributed to enamel development?

A

lamellae

some can happen during development, some can be caused by stress cracks

98
Q

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding enamel tufts?

A

located at the adj

they are defects caused by the hypomineralization of enamel rods near the DE

99
Q

Which of the following features arise from scalloped peaks at the dentinoenamel junction?

A

enamel tufts

100
Q

Which of the following are dentinal tubules passing through the junction into enamel?

A

enamel spindles

101
Q

what are enamel spindles

A

they are odontoblast processes that extend into enamel
enamel spindles may serve as pain receptors, explaining the sensitivity experienced by some patients during tooth preparation that is limited to enamel only.
they are EXTENSION OF DENTAL TUBULES

CONTRIBUTE TO VITALITY OF ADJ

102
Q

Which of the following outer enamel feature is a structureless microcrystalline environment
of enamel rods oriented nearly perpendicular to the enamel surface?

A

prismless enamel

103
Q

Which of the following features do NOT account for the lateral speed of caries along the
dentinoenamel junction?

A

prism-free zone

104
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding etching?

A

dilute acid selectively etches the ends of the enamel rods
the purpose is to produce an intact surface and prevent caries
the core of the crystal is rich in coronated apatite and is more sensitive to demineralisation

105
Q

The integrity of etched enamel CAN be maintained by which of the following solutions?

A

can be remineralised by fluoride ions
and various constituents of saliva (calcium and phosphate) help to maintain and restore the integrity of the enamel surface

106
Q

name features related to enamel

A

Enamel lamellae are cracks in the surface of enamel that are visible to the naked eye.
The incremental lines in enamel (The striae of Retzius) are the result of the rhythmic recurrent deposition of
the enamel.
Enamel tufts are developmental defects in enamel filled with organic material.

107
Q

Which of the following statements applies to globular dentin?

A

separates mantle dentin from circumpulpal dentin

108
Q

Which of the following characteristics of dentin is similar to bone?

A

dentine doesn’t remodel

109
Q

dentin composition

A

hydroxyapatite and collagen fibres

110
Q

Which of the following types of dentin forms only after tooth eruption?

A

secondary dentine

111
Q

Which of the following dentin types is deposited first at the dentinoenamel junction?

A

mantle dentine

it is developed after eruption

112
Q

Which of the following is a serum-derived protein component of the extracellular matrix of
dentin?

A

albumin

113
Q

Interglobular dentin is especially noticeable with which of the following vitamin
deficiencies?

A

vitamin d deficiency

114
Q

statements about secondary dentine

A

Forms internally to primary dentin of the crown and root.
Develops after the crown has come into clinical occlusal function.
The tubules of primary and secondary dentin are generally continuous.

115
Q

statements about secondary dentine

A

Forms internally to primary dentin of the crown and root.
Develops after the crown has come into clinical occlusal function.
The tubules of primary and secondary dentin are generally continuous.

116
Q

Which of the following events occurs with a severe injury to the tooth?

A

Newly recruited odontoblasts begin depositing reparative dentin.

117
Q

In which of the following areas will tertiary dentin be deposited?

A

only at the site of odontoblastic activation

118
Q

primary and secondary dentine

A

The tubules are farther apart at the dentinoenamel junction than at the pulpal surface.
The tubules are smaller in diameter in the outer dentin than at the pulpal border.
Odontoblasts gradually increase in size as their processes grow in length.

119
Q

Which of the following structures allow intercellular communication between adjacent
dentinal tubules?

A

gap junctions

120
Q

Which of the following lines reflect an abrupt change in environment?

A

neonatal line

121
Q

In which of the following areas is the odontoblastic process the largest in diameter?

A

near the pulp

122
Q

structures found in the odontoblastic process

A

Microtubules.
Microvesicles.
Occasional mitochondria

123
Q

Which of the following appears as a result of the loss of odontoblastic process?

A

dead tracts in dentine

124
Q

Which of the following appears as a result of the loss of odontoblastic process?

A

dead tracts in dentine

125
Q

Which of the following features are NOT seen at the dentinoenamel junction?

A

gnarled enamel = cusp tips

126
Q

Which of the following features of dentinal tubules do NOT increase permeability?

A

smear layer

but
Branching tubules.
Cone shape of tubules.
Loss of odontoblastic process.

127
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a pathologic effect that causes changes in dentin?

A

developmental defects

but
Attrition and abrasion.
Cavity preparation.
Dental caries.

do

128
Q

In an area of pathologic change, which of the following functions does NOT occur?

A

Formation of granular layer of Tomes.

but
Formation of reparative dentin
Formation of reactionary/response dentin.
Dead tracts and sclerosis of dentin.
do happen

129
Q

Dental papillae

A

is made from the head mesenchyme, originating from the cranial neural crest upon appropriate signaling from the dental epithelium.

130
Q

what can also cause cleft palate except shelves not merging

A

tongue drops as you get elongation of the face
early drop can cause cleft palate

131
Q

Which epithelium is found in the primary epithelial band?

A

stratified squamous

it is derived from ectoderm

132
Q

Which structures are derived from the primary epithelial band?

A

Dental lamina and vestibular band and enamel organ

133
Q

Where are the ectomesenchymal cells derived from?

A

neural crest

134
Q

What is the organic matrix of dentine called?

A

predentine

135
Q

What name is given to the layer of dentine formed first, which lies next to the future ADJ?

A

mantle dentine

136
Q

The IEE cells can receive their nutrients from the blood vessels of the dental papilla.
However, after dentine and enamel matrices are created, this is not possible.
Therefore, the ameloblasts gather nutrients from a different source, present in this slide.
What is the evidence of that?

A

The presence of a rich vascular bed near the enamel organ

137
Q

which dental structure is derived from ectoderm?

A

tooth enamel

138
Q

everything but enamel is derived from

A

ectomesenchyme

aka neural crest

139
Q

what is mandibulofacial dysostosis

A

failure of ectomesenchymal cells to migrate

140
Q

when does primary epithelial band thickens

A

6 weeks

141
Q

what weeks is bud stage and what it entails

A

9-10 weeks

dental lamina thickens into a bud
ectomesechymal condensation appears and this is dental papilla

142
Q

formation of dentine and enamel

A

dental papilla -> odontoblasts -> ameloblasts

143
Q

crown formation is complete before

A

root formation begins

144
Q

what induces formation of root dentine

A

her twig’s epithelial root sheath (HERS)

145
Q

tooth germ components

A
146
Q

which feature is visible under microscope and arises from the incremental deposition of dentine?

A

line of von ebner

147
Q

lines of salter

A

concentric lines in the cementum

148
Q

The striae of Retzius

A

incremental growth lines or bands seen in tooth enamel.

149
Q

lines of owen

A

ncremental lines produced in dentine owing to disruption of the rhythmical pattern of dentine formation (dentinogenesis).

150
Q

what is the daily rate of deposition of enamel

A

4 micrometers

151
Q

which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel

A

enamel spindles

152
Q

which type of dentine is translucent dentine

A

intra tubular (peritubular) dentine

153
Q

the cells which form cementum are derived from which of the following tissues and cells

A

from cementoblasts that came from dental follicle

154
Q

which periodontal fibre groups originate in a cervical region of a tooth and extends to the ID surface of adjacent teeth

A

trans-septal

155
Q

the epithelial attachment where the junctional epithelium is attached to the tooth surface is formed by which type of junction?

A

hemidesmosomes

156
Q

which characteristic applies to cellular cementum

A

present on the apex of the root

157
Q

which cells associated with an erupting tooth gives rise to the junctional epithelium?

A

reduced enamel epithelium

158
Q

statements about dental pulp

A

Fibroblasts are the preponderant cell.
Each pulp opens into the tissue surrounding the tooth through the apex of the root.
Pulp is a delicate, specialized connective tissue.

159
Q

pulp of molar teeth is

A

4x times larger than incisors

160
Q

How many surfaces does coronal pulp have?

A

6

161
Q

With age, which of the following factors influences coronal pulp size?

A

Continued dentin formation.

162
Q

radicular pulp is

A

tapered or conical

163
Q

accessory pulp canals

A

Accessory canals may result from the presence of blood vessels obstructing dentin
formation.
Accessory canals are located on the lateral sides of the apical region.
Accessory canals may be found in the bifurcation area of multirooted teeth.

164
Q

the odonogentic zone

A

The odontogenic zone includes odontoblasts, the cell-free zone, and the cellrich
zone and the parietal plexus of nerves.

165
Q

The odontoblast and odontoblast process do NOT extend through which of the following
structures?

A

surface enamel

but do through predentine
interlobular dentine
surface enamel

166
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of junctional complexes found between adjacent odontoblasts?

A

adhering

but there is
tight, gap, and intermediate junctions

167
Q

Which of the following are openings between odontoblasts for communication of cell electrical
impulses and passage of small molecules?

A

gap

168
Q

Which of the following cells are the most numerous cells in the pulp?

A

Fibroblasts are the most numerous cells in pulp because they are located throughout pulp.

169
Q

Which type of collagen is produced by pulp fibroblasts in the maintenance of the pulp
proper?

A

III

170
Q

Which of the following best describes the transduction theory of dental pain?

A

The odontoblastic process is the receptor and it conducts the pain to nerve endings in the peripheral pulp and in the dentinal tubules.

171
Q

Which of the following best describes the transduction theory of dental pain?

A

The inductive function of the pulp begins in early development when the pulp (papilla) interacts with the oral epithelium and initiates tooth formation

172
Q

Which of the following is the most important function of the pulp?

A

vitality

173
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the originating vessels of the pulp organ?

A

The pulp organ is highly vascularized, with vessels arising from the external carotid arteries to the superior and inferior alveolar arteries, not the buccal artery.

174
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding pulpal vascularity?

A

The vasculature enters through the apical canal and pursues a direct route up the root pulp to the coronal area.

The vessels produce branches that pass peripherally to a plexus that lies in and adjacent to the odontogenic zone of the root.

The walls of the periodontal and pulpal vessels become quite thin as they enter the pulp, because the pulp is protected within a hard, unyielding container of dentin.

175
Q

The plexus of Raschkow is also known as which of the following?

A

parietal layer of nerves

it comprises both myelinated and nonmyelinated axons

from the parietal layer, the nerves lose their myelin sheath and pass into the odontogenic
zone.

176
Q

In which of the following locations are most pulpal nerve endings found?

A

in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns

177
Q

Which of the following occurs in the pulp under traumatized areas?

A

reparative dentine usually forms under traumatised areas

178
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a true denticle?

A

True denticles have dental tubules like dentin.
Denticles are classified as free, attached, or embedded.

179
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of diffuse calcifications?

A

Diffuse calcifications appear as irregular calcified deposits along collagen fiber bundles
or blood vessels in the pulp.
Diffuse calcification is considered a pathologic condition.
These calcifications appear more often in the root canal than in the coronal area of the
pulp.

180
Q

Which of the following theories accounts for odontoblasts acting as pain receptors?

A

Transduction theory proposes that odontoblasts are receptors passing impulses to nerve endings in the peripheral pulp.

181
Q

In which of the following locations are Schwann cells located?

A

large nerve trunks

182
Q

where periodontal spaces are greater?

A

near the cervical region and at the apex - the hourglass

183
Q

where principal oblique fibres attach>

A

to the cementum apically
to the bone cervically

184
Q

Principal (Sharpey’s) fibres are made of collagen what type ?

A

type I and II

185
Q

celullar cementum?

A

located on to the 1/3 apical region of the root (It is also found on the furcation of multirooted teeth).

186
Q

Acellular extrinsic fibres cementum

A

AEFC cementum is located on to the 2/3 cervical region of the root

187
Q

where is cementum thicker ?

A

in the apical region

188
Q

Periodontal disease will damage either?

A

cellular fibres or extracellular matrix

189
Q

Cementoblasts

A

lie on the surface of cementum, they are a main type of cells

190
Q

Fibroblasts

A

re the main cell type at the centre of the periodontal ligament

191
Q

rests of Malassez

A

clumps or cluster of cells near the cementum

epithelial cells that were left inside the connective tissue
are epithelial cells from the Hertwig’s epithelial root sheet that, after accomplishing its function, was broken down

will be responsible for the periapical cysts, the most common odontogenic cyst that you will treat in the future. True cysts need to have an epithelial origin. Odontogenic cysts are always associated with tooth development.

192
Q

which oral biology structure is key for understanding perio?

A

junctional epithelium

193
Q

The dento-gingival junction

A

It is the boundary between the oral cavity and the underlying connective tissue of the tooth-supporting tissues.

It has three different gingival epithelia: junctional epithelium, sulcular epithelium and oral gingival epithelium

194
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding root resorption?

A

Resorption becomes active for a period and then may stop.

195
Q

Under which of the following conditions would reversal lines be created?

A

Reversal lines are created when cementum resorption becomes active for a
period and then stop; deposition of cementum occurs in that period.

196
Q

cementicles

A

Cementicles are composed of calcium phosphate and collagen in the same
amount as cementum (45–50% inorganic and 50–55% organic).

Cementicles are more prevalent along the root in an aging person.

197
Q

Which of the following is a protective function of cementoblasts?

A

Cemental repair is a protective function of the cementoblasts after resorption of root dentin or cementum.

198
Q

Which of the following occurs when a defect is filled to conform to the original morphology
of the root surface?

A

anatomical repair

199
Q

function of the periodontal ligament?

A

The primary function of the periodontal ligament is support for the teeth. The ligament also transmits neural input to the masticatory apparatus and has a nutritive function essential to maintaining the ligament’s health.

200
Q

Which of the flowing principal fibers is located around the necks of the teeth?

A

gingival group

201
Q

Which of the following fiber groups is attached tooth to tooth?

A

Transseptal fibers originate in the cervical region of each crown and extend to
similar locations on the mesial and distal surfaces of each adjacent tooth.

202
Q

Which of the following fiber groups specifically resists vertical or intrusive masticatory forces?

A

oblique fibres

203
Q

Which of the following appear between each bundle of ligament fibers and withstand the impact of masticatory forces?

A

interstitial spaces

204
Q

Which of the following functions is unique to first-order neuron cell bodies located within
the periodontal ligament?

A

Besides the typical sensory functions, the periodontal ligament has specialized encapsulated terminals for proprioception with cell bodies located in the mesencephalic nucleus, which is the only central nervous system (CNS) nucleus that contains first-order neuron cell bodies

205
Q

Which of the following cells are the most numerous in the periodontal ligament?

A

Fibroblasts are the most numerous cells seen in the periodontal ligament because of the high collagen density of this tissue.

206
Q

Which of the following cells are the most numerous in the periodontal ligament?

A

Fibroblasts are the most numerous cells seen in the periodontal ligament because of the high collagen density of this tissue.

207
Q

Which of the following cells are located along the surface of the alveolar bone?

A

osteoblasts

they function in bone resorption

208
Q

Which of the following cells have both formation and breakdown functions of their respective
cells?

A

fibroblasts

209
Q

Which of the following fiber groups resists tipping of the teeth?

A

horizontal fiber groups

210
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary function of the alveolar process?

A

supporting the teeth

it is a bony process of the maxilla and mandible

211
Q

Which of the following is prerequisite for the maintenance of alveolar bone and
cementum?

A

tooth function

212
Q

Which of the following structures covers the surface of the maxilla and mandible and supports
the alveolar bone proper?

A

cortical plate

213
Q

Which of the following would NOT be associated with loss of density in the lamina dura
in the apical area of a tooth?

A

Health is not associated with a loss in density of the lamina dura at the apex of a tooth.

214
Q

sharpey fibres?

A

Bundles of collagen fibers embedded in the alveolar bone proper.
At right angles or oblique to the root surface and alveolar bone.
Fibers inserting in the bone in regularly spaced intervals.

215
Q

Which of the following periodontal structures is more resistant to resorption?

A

cementum

216
Q

Which of the following best describes the supportive function of cementum?

A

functions as a support by attaching to perforating fibers of the periodontal ligament at the root surface.

217
Q

Which of the following best describes the supportive function of cementum?

A

functions as a support by attaching to perforating fibers of the periodontal ligament at the root surface.

bds 2 & 3 anatomy (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions