oral biology mcq Flashcards

(217 cards)

1
Q

The majority of bones of the face and cranium are developed by which of the following
processes?

A

intramembranous bone

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2
Q

The fifth cranial nerve develops in which of the following portions of the brain?

A

midbrain

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3
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an example of which of the following genetic abnormalities?

A

autosomal genetic abnormalities

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4
Q

The oropharynx is composed of which of the following structures?

A

primitive oral cavity and the pharynx

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5
Q

The first pharyngeal arch will eventually form which of the following structures?

A

mandible and muscles of mastication

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6
Q

Which of the following organs is derived from the endodermal lining of the second pharyngeal pouch?

A

palatine nostrils

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7
Q

Which nerve branch carries the sensory modality of taste from the taste buds located in the
posterior one third of the tongue?

A

glossopharyngeal (9th)

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8
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves functions in mastication and sensory for the face and
mouth?

A

trigeminal

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9
Q

Which of the following cartilage arches is known as “Reichert cartilage” and eventually
contributes to the upper body of the hyoid?

A

second arch

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10
Q

Which of the following is derived from the third pharyngeal arch?

A

greater horn of the hyoid

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11
Q

what rises from 4th and 6th pharyngeal arch?

A

laryngeal and thyroid cartilage

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12
Q

what arch does lesser horn of the hyoid forms from?

A

2nd arch

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13
Q

Which of the following defects is directly attributable to pharyngeal arch deficiencies?

A

treacher collins syndrome

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14
Q

Which part of the developing mandible develops in response to the developing teeth?

A

alveolar process

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15
Q

Which of the following skull sutures is present in an adult, but NOT present in a newborn?

A

the pterygopalatine suture

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16
Q

Which of the following structures supports the maxillary and mandibular cartilages of the face?

A

the cranial base

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17
Q

Which of the following cartilages is derived from pharyngeal arch 3?

A

the greater horn of the hyoid

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18
Q

Which of the following structures does NOT develop from pharyngeal pouches?

A

the styloid process

it develops from 2nd pharyngeal arch

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19
Q

Which of the following cartilages are transformed into bone by intramembranous bone formation?

A

temporal bone

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20
Q

Which of the following cartilages are derived from the first pharyngeal arch?

A

malleus

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21
Q

Which of the following mandibular features develops in response to the lateral pterygoid and masseter masticatory muscles?

A

angular process

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22
Q

Which of the following replace Meckel’s cartilage?

A

body of the mandible and the cartilaginous condyle

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23
Q

At 8 months, which of the following sutures are NOT seen in the palate?

A

between the zygomatic and palatine bones

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24
Q

Which of the following ligaments is found in pharyngeal arch 2 that supports an essential element of that arch?

A

the stylohyoid ligament

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25
Which of the following structures are closely related in time of development and sometimes have related malformations?
palate and face
26
Which of the following segments first separate the oral and nasal cavities?
The medial palatal segments.
27
Which of the following features come to the front of the face at week 6?
the eyes and maxillary processes
28
The zone of fusion between the medial nasal and maxillary process is referred to as which of the following?
nasal fin
29
Palatal shelf elevation takes place during which prenatal week of development?
8th prenatal week
30
Which of the following pharyngeal arch tissue forms the anterior body of the tongue?
1st pharyngeal arch
31
Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT innervate in the tongue?
6th it is by 5th, 7th, 9th, 12th
32
Which of the following is the most common facial malformation?
cleft lip
33
During which of the following prenatal weeks do the palatine shelves elevate and begin closure?
8th week
34
What is the term that is used when fewer than six permanent teeth are missing due to a genetic abnormality?
hypodontia
35
Which of the following cells forms the dental papilla?
mesenchyme cells
36
Which of the following is NOT a function of neural crest cells?
development of dental papilla = mesenchymal cells neural crest cells help to develop salivary glands, bone, cartilage, nerves and muscles of the face
37
At the leading edge of the lamina, how many tooth buds form?
20 for primary 20 teeth that develop later
38
What is the final stage of tooth development?
function dentinogenesis and amelogenesis -> crown formation -> root formation -> eruption
39
How long does it take predentin to calcify and become dentin?
after 24 hours
40
When does the dental lamina undergo autolysis?
after the enamel organ is differentiated
41
In tooth formation, which of the following occurs first?
ameloblast differentiates first causing the precursor odontoblast to locate itself adjacent
42
Dental papilla eventually becomes which of the following structures?
it becomes dental pulp
43
what happens at the dentinogenesis stage?
initial formation of the dentin vascularisation of the pulp organ differentiation of the dental follicular cells
44
During which stage of tooth development are both enamel and dentin actively secreted until the crown is complete?
appositional stage
45
What is the mineral content of enamel?
95%
46
Which of the following is the primary function of cementum?
attachment of the principal periodontal ligament fibres
47
Which of the following is most likely to affect mineralization of primary tooth crowns?
any prenatal systemic disturbance postanatal = permanent tooth crowns
48
Approximately how long does the period of root maturation and root resorption extend for primary teeth?
3.75
49
Which of the following functions occur only in the primary dentition?
root resorption and pulp degeneration
50
During which stage of development do the follicular cells migrate from the enamel organ peripherally into the follicle?
cap and bell stages
51
Which of the following is bone that forms between the roots of multirooted teeth?
interradicular bone
52
fundamental causes of primary tooth loss?
root resorption bone resorption size of crown
53
During the lengthening of the jaw, primary and permanent teeth make which type of movements?
mesial and distal
54
For which of the following clinical areas is root resorption NOT important?
for eruption of permanent molar teeth
55
Which of the following teeth develops within tuberosities with their occlusal surfaces slanted distally?
maxillary molars
56
What is the first step in root formation?
Proliferation of the epithelial root sheath.
57
At the tooth apex, which of the following structures fills the space left behind as the tooth begins eruptive movement?
trabeculae ladder
58
How long does it take for root completion to occur in permanent teeth?
2-3 years
59
Which of the following functions will result in deposits of cementum on the root’s apex in later life?
attrition and abrasion
60
Which of the following factors associated with tooth eruption is (are) MOST important?
elongation of the root
61
Which of the following teeth begin calcification 5 months in utero?
5 months
62
Which of the following teeth have completed crown development by 6 months postnatally?
1st primary molar
63
When do the primary lower lateral incisors appear in the oral cavity?
8-13 months
64
Which of the following permanent teeth are the first to begin calcification?
first molars
65
Which of the following permanent teeth have completed root formation by age 10?
central incisors
66
Which of the following permanent teeth appear first in the oral cavity before premolars?
lower canine - 9-10
67
By which year has the clinical crown of the lower second premolar completed formation?
by age 7
68
Which of the following permanent teeth begin calcification at year 1–2?
upper and lower 1st premolars
69
Which of the following permanent teeth is the last to appear in the oral cavity?
upper first premolars
70
When compared to the permanent teeth, teeth in the primary dentition exhibit which of the following characteristics?
smaller and fewer in number
71
How many teeth can be accommodated in the jaws during the mixed dentition period?
50
72
Which of the following is NOT part of the shedding cycle of primary teeth?
generation of primary pulp tissue
73
Which of the following characteristics can be seen in the pulp chamber of permanent teeth?
oval shaped
74
Which of the following characteristics can be seen in the pulp chamber of primary teeth?
Larger in relation to rest of tooth. Ribbon-like pulp in root. Large mesiobuccal (MB) pulp horn in molars.
75
Which of the following primary teeth have a larger mesiodistal (MD) width than their successors?
primary molars
76
Which of the following are characteristics of permanent teeth as compared to primary teeth?
Curved mesial/distal/buccal/lingual (M/D/B/L) crown shape.
77
Which of the following is the leeway space?
Difference in MD width between primary molars and permanent premolars.
78
When are fractures in enamel especially likely to occur?
if the underlying dentin is carious
79
Hydroxyapatite is NOT found in which of the following structures?
pulp but in enamel, dentine and bone
80
Which of the following is the primary organic component of enamel?
enamelin
81
In which of the following locations does enamel reach its maximum thickness?
occlusal incisal (2.5 mm)
82
Which of the following components of an enamel rod is NOT formed by one of the four ameloblasts?
rod body but rod head, neck and tail do
83
In which of the following locations is gnarled enamel located?
cusp tip
84
Which of the following features within groups of rods provides enamel with strength for mastication and biting?
bending at different angles to adjacent groups
85
In which of the following locations will Hunter-Schreger bands occur?
along the long axis of the tooth
86
Which of the following characteristics are seen on enamel internal to the neonatal line?
fewer defects in consistency
87
The neonatal line is considered which of the following?
line of Retzius (brown striae, more parallel to the surface) on the right
88
Which of the following are cracks in the surface of enamel that are visible to the naked eye?
enamel lamellae
89
enamel lamellae
Form during enamel development. Possible avenue for dental caries. Stress cracks that occur because of impact.
90
The scalloping found on the enamel-dentine junction (EDJ) is more pronounced in the incisal and cuspal regions, compared with the side of the crown. Is there any advantage of this arrangement?
The scalloped junction may provide a better mechanical union between enamel and dentine. There is increased surface of contact. Also, the interlocking shape may provide more resistance to lateral, shearing forces.
91
difference between enamel lamellae and enamel striae?
Enamel striae or striae of retzius are incremental lines of enamel formed during the process of amelogenesis. Enamel lamellae are linear mineralization defects present in the enamel of both deciduous and permanent teeth.
92
primary dentine
laid down while the tooth is forming. It is completed when the root apex is fully formed.
93
secondary dentine
refers to dentine laid down during the life of the tooth, after the tooth is fully formed.
94
tertiary dentine
dentine laid down in response to wear of the overlying enamel and dentine.
95
what are dead tracts?
Trauma will cause the odontoblastic processes within the dentinal tubules to "die back" toward the cell body. In severe cases the cells themselves may die. Such regions of dentin (with empty dentinal tubules) are called dead tracts (B) and appear dark in ground sections.
96
what are dead tracts?
Trauma will cause the odontoblastic processes within the dentinal tubules to "die back" toward the cell body. In severe cases the cells themselves may die. Such regions of dentin (with empty dentinal tubules) are called dead tracts (B) and appear dark in ground sections.
97
Which of the following is NOT always attributed to enamel development?
lamellae some can happen during development, some can be caused by stress cracks
98
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding enamel tufts?
located at the adj they are defects caused by the hypomineralization of enamel rods near the DE
99
Which of the following features arise from scalloped peaks at the dentinoenamel junction?
enamel tufts
100
Which of the following are dentinal tubules passing through the junction into enamel?
enamel spindles
101
what are enamel spindles
they are odontoblast processes that extend into enamel enamel spindles may serve as pain receptors, explaining the sensitivity experienced by some patients during tooth preparation that is limited to enamel only. they are EXTENSION OF DENTAL TUBULES CONTRIBUTE TO VITALITY OF ADJ
102
Which of the following outer enamel feature is a structureless microcrystalline environment of enamel rods oriented nearly perpendicular to the enamel surface?
prismless enamel
103
Which of the following features do NOT account for the lateral speed of caries along the dentinoenamel junction?
prism-free zone
104
Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding etching?
dilute acid selectively etches the ends of the enamel rods the purpose is to produce an intact surface and prevent caries the core of the crystal is rich in coronated apatite and is more sensitive to demineralisation
105
The integrity of etched enamel CAN be maintained by which of the following solutions?
can be remineralised by fluoride ions and various constituents of saliva (calcium and phosphate) help to maintain and restore the integrity of the enamel surface
106
name features related to enamel
Enamel lamellae are cracks in the surface of enamel that are visible to the naked eye. The incremental lines in enamel (The striae of Retzius) are the result of the rhythmic recurrent deposition of the enamel. Enamel tufts are developmental defects in enamel filled with organic material.
107
Which of the following statements applies to globular dentin?
separates mantle dentin from circumpulpal dentin
108
Which of the following characteristics of dentin is similar to bone?
dentine doesn't remodel
109
dentin composition
hydroxyapatite and collagen fibres
110
Which of the following types of dentin forms only after tooth eruption?
secondary dentine
111
Which of the following dentin types is deposited first at the dentinoenamel junction?
mantle dentine it is developed after eruption
112
Which of the following is a serum-derived protein component of the extracellular matrix of dentin?
albumin
113
Interglobular dentin is especially noticeable with which of the following vitamin deficiencies?
vitamin d deficiency
114
statements about secondary dentine
Forms internally to primary dentin of the crown and root. Develops after the crown has come into clinical occlusal function. The tubules of primary and secondary dentin are generally continuous.
115
statements about secondary dentine
Forms internally to primary dentin of the crown and root. Develops after the crown has come into clinical occlusal function. The tubules of primary and secondary dentin are generally continuous.
116
Which of the following events occurs with a severe injury to the tooth?
Newly recruited odontoblasts begin depositing reparative dentin.
117
In which of the following areas will tertiary dentin be deposited?
only at the site of odontoblastic activation
118
primary and secondary dentine
The tubules are farther apart at the dentinoenamel junction than at the pulpal surface. The tubules are smaller in diameter in the outer dentin than at the pulpal border. Odontoblasts gradually increase in size as their processes grow in length.
119
Which of the following structures allow intercellular communication between adjacent dentinal tubules?
gap junctions
120
Which of the following lines reflect an abrupt change in environment?
neonatal line
121
In which of the following areas is the odontoblastic process the largest in diameter?
near the pulp
122
structures found in the odontoblastic process
Microtubules. Microvesicles. Occasional mitochondria
123
Which of the following appears as a result of the loss of odontoblastic process?
dead tracts in dentine
124
Which of the following appears as a result of the loss of odontoblastic process?
dead tracts in dentine
125
Which of the following features are NOT seen at the dentinoenamel junction?
gnarled enamel = cusp tips
126
Which of the following features of dentinal tubules do NOT increase permeability?
smear layer but Branching tubules. Cone shape of tubules. Loss of odontoblastic process.
127
Which of the following is NOT considered a pathologic effect that causes changes in dentin?
developmental defects but Attrition and abrasion. Cavity preparation. Dental caries. do
128
In an area of pathologic change, which of the following functions does NOT occur?
Formation of granular layer of Tomes. but Formation of reparative dentin Formation of reactionary/response dentin. Dead tracts and sclerosis of dentin. do happen
129
Dental papillae
is made from the head mesenchyme, originating from the cranial neural crest upon appropriate signaling from the dental epithelium.
130
what can also cause cleft palate except shelves not merging
tongue drops as you get elongation of the face early drop can cause cleft palate
131
Which epithelium is found in the primary epithelial band?
stratified squamous it is derived from ectoderm
132
Which structures are derived from the primary epithelial band?
Dental lamina and vestibular band and enamel organ
133
Where are the ectomesenchymal cells derived from?
neural crest
134
What is the organic matrix of dentine called?
predentine
135
What name is given to the layer of dentine formed first, which lies next to the future ADJ?
mantle dentine
136
The IEE cells can receive their nutrients from the blood vessels of the dental papilla. However, after dentine and enamel matrices are created, this is not possible. Therefore, the ameloblasts gather nutrients from a different source, present in this slide. What is the evidence of that?
The presence of a rich vascular bed near the enamel organ
137
which dental structure is derived from ectoderm?
tooth enamel
138
everything but enamel is derived from
ectomesenchyme aka neural crest
139
what is mandibulofacial dysostosis
failure of ectomesenchymal cells to migrate
140
when does primary epithelial band thickens
6 weeks
141
what weeks is bud stage and what it entails
9-10 weeks dental lamina thickens into a bud ectomesechymal condensation appears and this is dental papilla
142
formation of dentine and enamel
dental papilla -> odontoblasts -> ameloblasts
143
crown formation is complete before
root formation begins
144
what induces formation of root dentine
her twig's epithelial root sheath (HERS)
145
tooth germ components
146
which feature is visible under microscope and arises from the incremental deposition of dentine?
line of von ebner
147
lines of salter
concentric lines in the cementum
148
The striae of Retzius
incremental growth lines or bands seen in tooth enamel.
149
lines of owen
ncremental lines produced in dentine owing to disruption of the rhythmical pattern of dentine formation (dentinogenesis).
150
what is the daily rate of deposition of enamel
4 micrometers
151
which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel
enamel spindles
152
which type of dentine is translucent dentine
intra tubular (peritubular) dentine
153
the cells which form cementum are derived from which of the following tissues and cells
from cementoblasts that came from dental follicle
154
which periodontal fibre groups originate in a cervical region of a tooth and extends to the ID surface of adjacent teeth
trans-septal
155
the epithelial attachment where the junctional epithelium is attached to the tooth surface is formed by which type of junction?
hemidesmosomes
156
which characteristic applies to cellular cementum
present on the apex of the root
157
which cells associated with an erupting tooth gives rise to the junctional epithelium?
reduced enamel epithelium
158
statements about dental pulp
Fibroblasts are the preponderant cell. Each pulp opens into the tissue surrounding the tooth through the apex of the root. Pulp is a delicate, specialized connective tissue.
159
pulp of molar teeth is
4x times larger than incisors
160
How many surfaces does coronal pulp have?
6
161
With age, which of the following factors influences coronal pulp size?
Continued dentin formation.
162
radicular pulp is
tapered or conical
163
accessory pulp canals
Accessory canals may result from the presence of blood vessels obstructing dentin formation. Accessory canals are located on the lateral sides of the apical region. Accessory canals may be found in the bifurcation area of multirooted teeth.
164
the odonogentic zone
The odontogenic zone includes odontoblasts, the cell-free zone, and the cellrich zone and the parietal plexus of nerves.
165
The odontoblast and odontoblast process do NOT extend through which of the following structures?
surface enamel but do through predentine interlobular dentine surface enamel
166
Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of junctional complexes found between adjacent odontoblasts?
adhering but there is tight, gap, and intermediate junctions
167
Which of the following are openings between odontoblasts for communication of cell electrical impulses and passage of small molecules?
gap
168
Which of the following cells are the most numerous cells in the pulp?
Fibroblasts are the most numerous cells in pulp because they are located throughout pulp.
169
Which type of collagen is produced by pulp fibroblasts in the maintenance of the pulp proper?
III
170
Which of the following best describes the transduction theory of dental pain?
The odontoblastic process is the receptor and it conducts the pain to nerve endings in the peripheral pulp and in the dentinal tubules.
171
Which of the following best describes the transduction theory of dental pain?
The inductive function of the pulp begins in early development when the pulp (papilla) interacts with the oral epithelium and initiates tooth formation
172
Which of the following is the most important function of the pulp?
vitality
173
Which of the following is NOT one of the originating vessels of the pulp organ?
The pulp organ is highly vascularized, with vessels arising from the external carotid arteries to the superior and inferior alveolar arteries, not the buccal artery.
174
Which of the following statements is correct regarding pulpal vascularity?
The vasculature enters through the apical canal and pursues a direct route up the root pulp to the coronal area. The vessels produce branches that pass peripherally to a plexus that lies in and adjacent to the odontogenic zone of the root. The walls of the periodontal and pulpal vessels become quite thin as they enter the pulp, because the pulp is protected within a hard, unyielding container of dentin.
175
The plexus of Raschkow is also known as which of the following?
parietal layer of nerves it comprises both myelinated and nonmyelinated axons from the parietal layer, the nerves lose their myelin sheath and pass into the odontogenic zone.
176
In which of the following locations are most pulpal nerve endings found?
in the odontogenic region of the pulp horns
177
Which of the following occurs in the pulp under traumatized areas?
reparative dentine usually forms under traumatised areas
178
Which of the following is characteristic of a true denticle?
True denticles have dental tubules like dentin. Denticles are classified as free, attached, or embedded.
179
Which of the following is a characteristic of diffuse calcifications?
Diffuse calcifications appear as irregular calcified deposits along collagen fiber bundles or blood vessels in the pulp. Diffuse calcification is considered a pathologic condition. These calcifications appear more often in the root canal than in the coronal area of the pulp.
180
Which of the following theories accounts for odontoblasts acting as pain receptors?
Transduction theory proposes that odontoblasts are receptors passing impulses to nerve endings in the peripheral pulp.
181
In which of the following locations are Schwann cells located?
large nerve trunks
182
where periodontal spaces are greater?
near the cervical region and at the apex - the hourglass
183
where principal oblique fibres attach>
to the cementum apically to the bone cervically
184
Principal (Sharpey's) fibres are made of collagen what type ?
type I and II
185
celullar cementum?
located on to the 1/3 apical region of the root (It is also found on the furcation of multirooted teeth).
186
Acellular extrinsic fibres cementum
AEFC cementum is located on to the 2/3 cervical region of the root
187
where is cementum thicker ?
in the apical region
188
Periodontal disease will damage either?
cellular fibres or extracellular matrix
189
Cementoblasts
lie on the surface of cementum, they are a main type of cells
190
Fibroblasts
re the main cell type at the centre of the periodontal ligament
191
rests of Malassez
clumps or cluster of cells near the cementum epithelial cells that were left inside the connective tissue are epithelial cells from the Hertwig's epithelial root sheet that, after accomplishing its function, was broken down will be responsible for the periapical cysts, the most common odontogenic cyst that you will treat in the future. True cysts need to have an epithelial origin. Odontogenic cysts are always associated with tooth development.
192
which oral biology structure is key for understanding perio?
junctional epithelium
193
The dento-gingival junction
It is the boundary between the oral cavity and the underlying connective tissue of the tooth-supporting tissues. It has three different gingival epithelia: junctional epithelium, sulcular epithelium and oral gingival epithelium
194
Which of the following statements is correct regarding root resorption?
Resorption becomes active for a period and then may stop.
195
Under which of the following conditions would reversal lines be created?
Reversal lines are created when cementum resorption becomes active for a period and then stop; deposition of cementum occurs in that period.
196
cementicles
Cementicles are composed of calcium phosphate and collagen in the same amount as cementum (45–50% inorganic and 50–55% organic). Cementicles are more prevalent along the root in an aging person.
197
Which of the following is a protective function of cementoblasts?
Cemental repair is a protective function of the cementoblasts after resorption of root dentin or cementum.
198
Which of the following occurs when a defect is filled to conform to the original morphology of the root surface?
anatomical repair
199
function of the periodontal ligament?
The primary function of the periodontal ligament is support for the teeth. The ligament also transmits neural input to the masticatory apparatus and has a nutritive function essential to maintaining the ligament’s health.
200
Which of the flowing principal fibers is located around the necks of the teeth?
gingival group
201
Which of the following fiber groups is attached tooth to tooth?
Transseptal fibers originate in the cervical region of each crown and extend to similar locations on the mesial and distal surfaces of each adjacent tooth.
202
Which of the following fiber groups specifically resists vertical or intrusive masticatory forces?
oblique fibres
203
Which of the following appear between each bundle of ligament fibers and withstand the impact of masticatory forces?
interstitial spaces
204
Which of the following functions is unique to first-order neuron cell bodies located within the periodontal ligament?
Besides the typical sensory functions, the periodontal ligament has specialized encapsulated terminals for proprioception with cell bodies located in the mesencephalic nucleus, which is the only central nervous system (CNS) nucleus that contains first-order neuron cell bodies
205
Which of the following cells are the most numerous in the periodontal ligament?
Fibroblasts are the most numerous cells seen in the periodontal ligament because of the high collagen density of this tissue.
206
Which of the following cells are the most numerous in the periodontal ligament?
Fibroblasts are the most numerous cells seen in the periodontal ligament because of the high collagen density of this tissue.
207
Which of the following cells are located along the surface of the alveolar bone?
osteoblasts they function in bone resorption
208
Which of the following cells have both formation and breakdown functions of their respective cells?
fibroblasts
209
Which of the following fiber groups resists tipping of the teeth?
horizontal fiber groups
210
Which of the following best describes the primary function of the alveolar process?
supporting the teeth it is a bony process of the maxilla and mandible
211
Which of the following is prerequisite for the maintenance of alveolar bone and cementum?
tooth function
212
Which of the following structures covers the surface of the maxilla and mandible and supports the alveolar bone proper?
cortical plate
213
Which of the following would NOT be associated with loss of density in the lamina dura in the apical area of a tooth?
Health is not associated with a loss in density of the lamina dura at the apex of a tooth.
214
sharpey fibres?
Bundles of collagen fibers embedded in the alveolar bone proper. At right angles or oblique to the root surface and alveolar bone. Fibers inserting in the bone in regularly spaced intervals.
215
Which of the following periodontal structures is more resistant to resorption?
cementum
216
Which of the following best describes the supportive function of cementum?
functions as a support by attaching to perforating fibers of the periodontal ligament at the root surface.
217
Which of the following best describes the supportive function of cementum?
functions as a support by attaching to perforating fibers of the periodontal ligament at the root surface.