Opthalmic 1 Flashcards
OD means? OS means? OU means?
OD = right eye, OS = left eye, OU = both eyes
________: movement of the iris. This finding is usually supportive of lens instability
Iridodonesis
_______: in a well-lit environment
Photopic
_______: in a dark environment
• Scotopic
__________: using light that is shone into the eye to reflect against internal structures and highlight normal/abnormal features during the ophthalmic exam
Retroillumination
_________: inflammation of the cornea. Most commonly evident by the presence of corneal ulceration, corneal infiltrate, or blood vessels
Keratitis
________ _______: inflammation of the cornea (keratitis) that is caused by lack of sensory innervation (ophthalmic branch of CN V)
Neurotrophic keratitis
_________: applying light pressure to both eyes (through the eyelids) simultaneously with your index finger to detect for asymmetry. This is a useful test for detecting disease of the orbit or space occupying disease behind the globe
Retropulsion
__________: disruption of the corneal epithelium and exposure of the corneal stroma
Corneal ulceration
________: application of fluorescein dye to the ocular surface which then appears at the nares. This is a test of nasolacrimal patency
Positive Jones Test
__________: application of fluorescein dye to the ocular surface and subsequent appearance of aqueous humor leaking through dense fluorescein stain. This test confirms corneal perforation
Positive Seidel test
______: defined as a breakdown of the blood ocular barrier.
Uveitis
___________: vision loss that occurs from optic nerve damage as a result of high intraocular pressure
Glaucoma
A well designed ______ ______ will promote a thorough exam and clear communication
examination form
What are your 5 required tools?
• Strong light source in a dark environment • Schirmer Tear Test • Fluorescein • Tonometry (proparacaine) • Ophthalmoscope (tropicamide)
Which tool are appropriate and not appropriate for a strong light source?
Halogen = appropriate (Finoff transilluminator, Otoscope) Incandescent = too dim (pen light) LED=too bright (need a piece of white tape)
True or False: A magnifier is not helpful
False!!!!! extremely helpful
ID

Distichia
Describe the benefits? What is it?

• Macrolens attachments benefits:
– Inexpensive
– Good images of the anterior segment
– Ability to save and share images!

What do we do in the initial patient assessment? (4)
– Distance examination
– Vision tests
– Tests of orbital symmetry
– Retroillumination
In addition to initial patient assessment we also do these 3 procedures?
- Cranial nerve assessment
- Minimum database
- Ophthalmoscopy
What is the first thing you do in the initial patient assessment
- Assessment of entire body
- Assessment of head and eyes at a distance
What can we do to assess vision in our animals?
• Cotton Ball Test
– Most visual animals follow cotton balls
• No sound or scent
– Cats may choose not to participate!
When we are assessing vision we place objects in a random order and this is doing what?
• Maze Testing
– Place objects in random order
– Conduct in both bright and dim light settings
– Look for speed of navigation and object avoidance

How do we assess orbital symmetry?
- Orbital palpation
- Dorsal view assessment
- Retropulsion
What are we testing in these pics?

Retroilllumination

What cranial nerves/assessements do we like to assess?
– Palpebral reflex
– Menace response
– Pupillary light reflex
– Dazzle reflex
– Oculocephalic reflex
– Corneal reflex
What nerves do we test in the palpebral?
– CN V (afferent)
– CN VII (efferent)
What nerves do we assess in the menace response? What does it require?
– CN II (afferent)
– CN VII (efferent)
– Learned (~12 weeks old)
– Requires visual acuity of only 20/20,000!
NOT THAT GREAT
The pupillary light reflex asesses what nerves?
– CN II (afferent)
– CN III (efferent) oculomotor
(shine bright light in eye assess indirect and direct crossover at chiasm)
What nerves do the dazzle reflex?
– CN II (afferent)
– CN VII (efferent)
(subcortical and often have it if pathways intact)
What is significant about the pupillary light reflex and the dazzle reflex?
**These tests do not reflect vision**
What nerves does the oculocephalic reflex?
– CN II* (afferent)
– Peripheral and central vestibular components
– CNs III, IV, and VI (efferent)
she likes it to test mobility
The corneal reflex assesses these nerves?

– CN V (afferent)
– CN VI and VII (efferent)
What is being shown here?

• Corneal reflex – abnormal example
Neurotrophic keratitis OD
= Loss of the ophthalmic branch of CN V
WHAT DO you do for the minimum database? (3)
– Schirmer Tear Test I
– Fluorescein Stain
– Tonometry
Guildeline for Schirmer tear test 1
- ____________
- ____________
- ____________
NORMAL
-
Dogs= __________
- ______
- Cats= ________
-
Guidelines
- Performed before any other drops or ointments
- Performed before sedation or anesthesia
- Performed for 60 seconds
-
Normal
-
Dogs = >15mm wetting/minute
- Basal and reflex tearing
- Cats = unpredictable!
-
Dogs = >15mm wetting/minute
This is an example of?

After performing the schirmer tear test for our minimum database we next do?
Fluorescein Stain
Describe the dye for Fluorescein stain? What structures will and won’t stain?
Aqueous stain
- (Hydrophilic (stroma) dye that fluoresces green under cobalt blue light)
- Epithelium – hydrophobic – will not stain
- Stroma – hydrophilic – will stain bright green
- Descemet’s membrane – hydrophobic – will not stain
What are the 3 common uses for Fluorescein stain?
- Diagnosis and characterization of corneal ulceration
- Demonstration of nasolacrimal patency (Jones Test)
- Demonstration of corneal perforation (Seidel Test)
Decribe the pattern of stain and what is being exhibited in the pic?

Dendritic
Decribe the pattern of stain and what is being exhibited in the pic
Indolent

Decribe the pattern of stain and what is being exhibited in the pic

Descemetocele
What does the Jones test assess?
• Assesses nasolacrimal patency
What are the system components for the nasolacrimal components? (6)
- – Medial canthus
- Upper punctum (circled)
- Lower punctum (circled)
- – Lacrimal sac
- – Nasolacrimal duct
- – Nasal and pharyngeal openings

When performing the jones test and you note a blckage what negative affect could this cause?
Blockage could cause epiphora (tearing)
A positive Jones Test demonstrates _______ ________
nasolacrimal patency
A negative Jones Test does or does not prove this?
does not necessarily prove nasolacrimal obstruction
What is being tested here?

Seidel Test
A positive Seidel test confirms _____ _______
– What does it demonstrate?
- corneal perforation
- Demonstrates aqueous leaking through fluorescein stain
________:
Measures intraocular pressure in mmHg
Tonometry
Guidelines for tonometry:
-Do not perform in ____ eyes
Performed (BEFORE OR AFTER?) pupil dilation?
- fragile
- Peformed BEFORE pupil dilation (tropicamide)
Tonometry
- Which reading is your most accurate?
- ____-____ mmHG is normal and should be below < _____mmHG at ALL TIMES
- Pressures over >______with vision loss indicate ______
- Low intraocular pressures are consisitent with ______
- The lowest reading is your most accurate reading!
- 10-20 mmHg is normal. Should be <25mmHg at all times.
- Pressures >25mmHg with vision loss = Glaucoma
• Low intraocular pressures are consistent with Uveitis
This pic is depicting what type of tonometry?

Tonometry (Tonopen: applanation)
Applanation tonometry correlates force used to this? What do we use when peforming this?
Correlates force used to flatten cornea with IOP
Use topical anesthetic
Unfortunately applanation tonometry is easy todo this to? What do we do daily or prior to use?
• Easy to artificially elevate IOP
– Brachycephalics
- Calibrate
What factors do we consider with Ophthalmoscopy? (5)
- Magnification
- Field of view
- Depth perception (stereopsis)
- Initial ease of use
- Safety
A large field of view allows for a more rapid and thorough _____ examination, making the _____technique more valuable for veterinary ophthalmology
fundus; indirect
The pointer is indicating

Lens diopter number

WIth applanation tonometry what 4 coefficient of variance are considered?
– Reliability of result
– Should be 5% (TonoPen)
– Should be 95% (TonoPen Avia)
– Measures variability between 3-6 readings
What are some easy mistakes with applanantion tonometry?

– Tip cover too tight
– Tip cover too loose

What instrument is being shown

Tonometry (Tonovet: rebound)
______:
– Lightweight probe “bounces” off cornea
Is topical anesthetic required?
TonoVet
No topical anesthetic required!
The tonovet is calibrated by manufacturer and can be species dependent for horse, dogs, and other. It records _____ measurements
Records 6 measurements
– Averages final result (excludes highest and lowest)
– Line indicates standard deviation
- No line (<1)
- Low line (1-2.5)
- Mid line (2.5-3.5)
- High line (>3.5)
What is really important for the opthoexam especially when measuring IOP? What 4 things should we do?
Proper restraint
- No pressure on neck
- Hand under chin and behind head
- Head in neutral position
- Patient standing, sitting or sternal
Which is the correct IOP?
• 25mmHg, 13mmHg, 17mmHg
13 mmHG
– Lowest IOP most accurate
What are some easy mistakes that affect the IOP?
– Pressure on neck
– Head position
– Squinting dog
– Pressure on globe from improper lid retraction

True or False
– Lissamine Green ( both corneal stains)
– Rose Bengal( both corneal stains)
ARE commonly used tests
False
Less commonly utilized tests
______ is required for complete exam? (what is it and what structures can we assess after it?
Tropicamide
This medication is used to widen (dilate) the pupil of the eye in preparation for certain eye examinations. It belongs to a class of drugs known as anticholinergics. Tropicamide works by relaxing certain eye muscles.
– Retina
- Neurosensory retina
- Retinal pigmented epithelium
– Tapetum
– Choroid
– Sclera
– Optic nerve
Each image is demonstrating what for ophthalmoscopy?


Label the parts

