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Ocular Anatomy & Physiology > OPT1210 Exam 2 > Flashcards

OPT1210 Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many bones are in the human skull?

A

22

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2
Q

How is the infant skull different from the adult skull?

A

Infant skull has 4 fontanels (2 fontanels: anterior, posterior and 2 sutures: sphenoid, mastoid)
and fibrous membrane that holds bones together and
Allows movement of bones during birth and growth of brain

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3
Q

The bones of the skull are joined by what?

A

Sutures

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4
Q

What is the skullcap called?

A

Calvarium

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5
Q

What bones support teeth and form nasal cavity and orbit?

A

Facial bones

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6
Q

What does suture mean?

A

To join together

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7
Q

What are the 4 major sutures in the skull?

A

Coronal, Sagittal, Lamboidal, Squamous

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8
Q

What are the major skull cavities?

A

There are 4: Cranial, Orbital, Nasal, Buccal

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9
Q

What are the parts of the cranial fossa?

A

Anterior (Frontal lobe)
Middle (Temporal lobe)
Posterior (Cerebellum and Occipital lobes)

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10
Q

What are the Cranial bones?

A 
There are 14: 
Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital (primary visual cortex)
Sphenoid
Ethmoidal
Maxillary (single bone...not paired)
Palatine
Zygomatic
Lacrimal
Nasal
Conchae
Vomer
Mandible
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11
Q

Which of the Cranial bones protect the eye?

A 
There are 7:
Frontal
Parietal
Occipital
Temporal
Squamous Zygomatic Arch
Mandibular Fossa TMJ
External Auditory Meatus
Styloid Process
Mastoid
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12
Q

Which bone houses the largest opening in the skull and what is it?

A

The occipital bone

It’s the Foramen Magnum (spinal cord)

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13
Q

Which cranial bone conducts the 7th cranial facial nerve?

A

Styloid Process

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14
Q

Which bone is bat shaped?

A

Sphenoid bone

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15
Q

What is the thinnest bone in the body?

A

Ethmoid bone (aka paper bone)

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16
Q

What are the 6 paired facial bones?

A 
Lacrimal
Nasal
Zygomatic
Maxilla
Palatine
Inferior Nasal Concha
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17
Q

What are the palatine bones?

A

Make up the posterior 1/3 of hard palate
Lateral nasal wall
Orbital floor

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18
Q

What are the zygomatic bones?

A

Include the zygomatic arch

Zygomatic fracture is the most common fracture of the skull

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19
Q

What is the smallest bone of the orbit?

A

Lacrimal bones

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20
Q

What are the bones of the orbit?

A 
There are 7:
Frontal (roof of orbit)
Sphenoid
Zygomatic
Ethmoid
Palatine
Lacrimal
Maxillary (floor of orbit)
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21
Q

What are the 4 sinuses?

A

Frontal
Sphenoidal
Ethmoidal
Maxillary

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22
Q

What do the 4 paranasal sinuses do?

A 
Lighten weight of skull
Provide airation
Provide warmth
Provide moisture
Trap pathogens
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23
Q

What are the 3 unpaired facial bones?

A

Vomer (vertical bone)
Mandible (freely movable)
Hyoid (free floating…muscles that let you swallow)

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24
Q

How many pairs of mimetic muscles of facial expression are there?

A

36 pairs

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25
Q

What are the muscles of facial expression?

A 
Levator Anguli Oris
Levator Labii Superioris
Levator Labii Superioris Alaeque Nasi
Mentalis
Nasalis
Orbicularis Oculi
Orbicularis Oris
Platysma
Procerus
Risorius
Zygomaticus Major
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26
Q

What nerve controls muscles of facial expression?

A

7th cranial nerve - facial

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27
Q

What is 7th nerve paralysis?

A

Bell’s Palsy

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28
Q

How many wings of the sphenoid bone are there? What are they?

A

There are 2:
Greater wing
Lesser wing

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29
Q

What is the brain’s most important receptor?

A

Eye

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30
Q

What are the parts of the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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31
Q

How many subdivisions of the nervous system are there? What are they?

A

There are 3:
CNS
PNS
ANS

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32
Q

What is the PNS?

A

All the nerves exiting the spinal cord and going to muscles and organs

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33
Q

What is the ANS?

A

All the nerves exiting the brain/spinal cord that control involuntary action of smooth muscle and glands

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34
Q

What are the parts of a single neuron?

A

Soma (cell body)
Axon (exiting)
Dendrites (entering)
Synapse

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35
Q

How long does it take to grow a dendrite?

A

Seconds to minutes…lost as quickly if not fired/wired

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36
Q

What is responsible for the myelination of CNS neurons?

A

Oligodendrocytes

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37
Q

What type of matter are axons?

A

White matter

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38
Q

Can CNS neurons regenerate?

A

NO

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39
Q

What matter are non-myelinated neurons?

A

Gray matter

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40
Q

What is the resting membrane potential?

A

Na/K disequalibrium

Current created by movement of ions (Na+, K+, Cl-)

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41
Q

What ion is prevalent in ECF?

A

Na+

145 mEq/L

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42
Q

What ion is prevalent in ICF?

A

K+

150 mEq/L

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43
Q

What is most energy to cell used for?

A

ATP - sodium potassium ATPase

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44
Q

CNS Embryology - 3 parts of brain

A

Forebrain
Midbrain
Hindbrain

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45
Q

In embryonic development, what does nervous system develop from?

A

Surface ectoderm

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46
Q

In embryogenesis, what does the neural crest cells along the margin of the neural groove develop into?

A

Sensory and sympathetic neurons and schwann cells

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47
Q

In embryogenesis, what happens to neural tube in 4th week?

A

It develops 3 anterior dilations that become the brain

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48
Q

In embryogenesis, what does the lumen of the neural tube develop into?

A

the central canal of the spinal cord and ventricles of the brain

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49
Q

What does the average head weigh?

A

4.5 - 5 Kg or 8-12 lbs

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50
Q

What does the average brain weigh?

A

3 - 3.5 lbs

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51
Q

What is the front part of the brain called?

A

Rostral

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52
Q

What is the back part of the brain called?

A

Caudal

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53
Q

The cerebrum is how much of brain volume?

A

85%

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54
Q

The cerebellum is what percentage of neurons?

A

50%

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55
Q

The 2 parts of the brain (rostral and caudal) are separated by what?

A

Central sulcus

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56
Q

What does the central sulcus separate?

A

Precentral gyrus - motor neurons

Postcentral gyrus - sensory neurons

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57
Q

What is the glistening arachnoid mater covering the brain?

A

Pia mater

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58
Q

What separates the hemispheres of the brain?

A

Longitudinal fissure

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59
Q

What matter is on the outside of the brain?

A

Gray matter (soma and dendrites)

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60
Q

What matter is on the inside of the brain?

A

White matter (myelinated axons)

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61
Q

What are the 2 cerebral hemispheres?

A

Right and Left

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62
Q

What are the hills and valleys in the brain?

A

Gyri

Sulci

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63
Q

How are the two hemispheres connected?

A

Via the thick myelinated fibers of the Corpus Collosum

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64
Q

What is the Right hemisphere?

A

Representational

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65
Q

What is the Left hemisphere?

A

Categorical

Analytical

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66
Q

What sits on top of the Corpus Collosum?

A

Cingulate Gyrus (C-shaped)

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67
Q

How many lobes of the brain are there? What are they?

A 
There are 5 lobes:
Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital
Insula
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68
Q

In what lobe of the brain are the visual centers?

A

Occipital lobe

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69
Q

Is the Corpus Collosum, white or gray matter?

A

White

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70
Q

Is the Soma white or gray matter?

A

Gray

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71
Q

Are dendrites white or gray matter?

A

Gray

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72
Q

Are synapses white or gray matter?

A

Gray

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73
Q

Are axons white or gray matter?

A

White

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74
Q

What is the Cortical Neuron?

A

The cortex of the cerebrum

Has 1000’s of dendrites

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75
Q

What covers the brain?

A

3 meninges:
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

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76
Q

What is between the brain and skull?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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77
Q

What is the outermost tough membrane covering the brain?

A

Dura mater

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78
Q

What space is between the skull and dura mater?

A

Epidural space

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79
Q

What space is between the dura mater and arachnoid mater?

A

Subdural space

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80
Q

What space is between the arachnoid mater and pia mater?

A

Subarachnoid space

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81
Q

What is the delicate innermost membrane, adherent to the brain and spinal cord?

A

Pia mater

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82
Q

How many ventricles of the brain?

A

There are 4:
2 lateral First and Second
Third Fourth

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83
Q

Where is CSF produced and by what?

A

Lateral ventricles by choroid plexus

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84
Q

What is CSF absorbed by?

A

Arachnoid villi

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85
Q

How much CSF is produced a day and where does it go?

A

500 mL/day

Fills ventricles and subarachnoid space

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86
Q

If intracranial pressure is increased what will happen?

A

Papilledema

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87
Q

What is papilledema?

A

swelling of the optic nerve due to increased intracranial pressure

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88
Q

What is an increase in intracranial pressure from expanding CSF called?

A

Hydrocephalus

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89
Q

What is the first cranial nerve?

A

I - Olfactory

90
Q

What is the second cranial nerve?

A

II - Optic (eye)

91
Q

What is the third cranial nerve?

A

III - Oculomotor (eye)

92
Q

What is the fourth cranial nerve?

A

IV - Trochlear (eye)

93
Q

What is the fifth cranial nerve?

A

V - Trigeminal (eye)

94
Q

What is the sixth cranial nerve?

A

VI - Abducens (eye)

95
Q

What is the seventh cranial nerve?

A

VII - Facial (eye)

96
Q

What is the eighth cranial nerve?

A

VIII - Acoustic

97
Q

What is the ninth cranial nerve?

A

IX - Glossopharyngeal

98
Q

What is the tenth cranial nerve?

A

X - Vagus

99
Q

What is the eleventh cranial nerve?

A

XI - Spinal Accessory

100
Q

What is the twelfth cranial nerve?

A

XII - Hypoglossal

101
Q

What are the divisions of the ANS?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

102
Q

Which division of ANS prepares body for fight or flight?

A

Sympathetic

103
Q

Which division of ANS prepares body for physical activity?

A

Sympathetic

104
Q

Which division of ANS increases heart rate, BP and airflow?

A

Sympathetic

105
Q

Which division of ANS increases blood glucose levels?

A

Sympathetic

106
Q

Which division of ANS calms body functions?

A

Parasympathetic

107
Q

Which division of ANS assists in bodily maintenance?

A

Parasympathetic

108
Q

Which division of ANS controls digestion and waste elimination?

A

Parasympathetic

109
Q

What are the sensory organs?

A 
The five senses:
Hearing
Smell
Sight
Touch
Taste
110
Q

What are the 5 types of neurons in the retina?

A 
photoreceptors
bipolar cells
ganglion cells
horizontal cells
amacrine cells
111
Q

What cranial nerve is the thickest?

A

Optic nerve (II)

112
Q

What cranial nerve moves 4 of the 6 extra ocular muscles?

A

Oculomotor nerve (III)

113
Q

What cranial nerve moves the superior oblique muscle (moves eye in and down)?

A

Trochlear nerve (IV)

114
Q

What cranial nerve is the longest in the skull and most subject to injury?

A

Trochlear nerve (IV)

115
Q

What cranial nerve has 3 divisions? What are the divisions? Are they sensory or motor?

A

Trigeminal nerve (V)
V1 - Ophthalmic (sensory)
V2 - Maxillary (sensory)
V3 - Mandibular (motor - chewing)

116
Q

What cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle (look outward)?

A

Abducens nerve (VI)

117
Q

What cranial nerve has 5 divisions? are they sensory or motor?

A 
Facial nerve (VII) - motor
Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Mandibular
Cervical
118
Q

What cranial nerve controls hearing?

A

Acoustic (VIII)

119
Q

What cranial nerve controls the tongue and throat?

A

Glossopharyngeal (IX)

120
Q

What cranial nerve is the longest cranial nerve?

A

Vagus (X)

121
Q

What cranial nerve controls autonomic functions?

A

Vagus (X)

122
Q

What cranial nerve controls the tongue?

A

Hypoglossal (XII)

123
Q

What cranial nerve controls sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles?

A

Accessory (XI)

124
Q

Which division of the ANS dilates pupils?

A

Sympathetic

125
Q

Which division of the ANS constricts pupils?

A

Parasympathetic

126
Q

The eyes receive nerve fibers from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic division. What is this called?

A

Dual innervation

127
Q

What innervates the sympathetic division of the ANS?

A

epinephrine (red top)

128
Q

What innervates the parasympathetic division of the ANS?

A

acetyl choline (green top)

129
Q

What does epinephrine do to pupils?

A

Dilates them

130
Q

What does acetyl choline do to pupils?

A

Constricts them

131
Q

What nerve ganglion is involved in pupil dilation?

A

Superior cervical ganglion

132
Q

What nerve ganglion is involved in pupil constriction?

A

Ciliary ganglion

133
Q

What are the 6 extra ocular muscles?

A 
Superior rectus
Inferior rectus
Medial rectus (thickest, widest, strongest)
Lateral rectus
Superior oblique
Inferior oblique
134
Q

How many cranial nerves innervate the extra ocular muscles?

A

3 (Oculomotor III, Trochlear IV, Abducens VI)

135
Q

How many layers of retina and why important?

A

11 layers

only photosensitive neural tissue in the body

136
Q

What is a Calorie?

A

Amount of energy required to raise 1 gram of water by 1 degree Centrigrade

137
Q

How many calories in 1 gram of carbs?

A

4 Calories

138
Q

How many calories in a gram of protein?

A

4 Calories

139
Q

How many calories in 1 gram of fat?

A

9 Calories

140
Q

What do enzymes do?

A

Break down carbs
Polysaccharides to Glucose, Monosaccharides and other sugars
Break down protein to amino acids
Break down fats to glycerol and fatty acids

141
Q

What is BMR?

A

Basal Metabolic Rate
Calories burnt doing nothing
Consumes approx 60-70% of calories

142
Q

How many Americans have diabetes?

A

More than 1.8 million (tripled from 1980 to 2009)

143
Q

What percentage of Americans will be diabetic by 2025?

A

40%

144
Q

How many liters of blood in body?

A

4-6 liters

145
Q

What are the components of blood?

A 
erythrocytes
monocytes
lymphocytes
plasma
proteins formed by liver (globulins)
albumin (immunoglobins)
fibrinogen
146
Q

What are the 3 granulocytes?

A

neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

147
Q

What are the surface antigens on RBCs?

A

glucose
galactose
fucose

148
Q

What is the marker mutation on Type A blood?

A

N-acetylgalactosamine

149
Q

What is the marker mutation on Type B blood?

A

extra Galactose

150
Q

What is the most common blood type?

A

O

151
Q

What is the most rare blood type?

A

AB

152
Q

What blood type is the universal donor?

A

O neg

153
Q

What blood type is the universal recipient?

A

AB pos

154
Q

What granulocyte count goes up if have allergic reaction, primarily to parasitic infection?

A

Eosinophils

155
Q

What granulocyte is most plentiful in blood?

A

neutrophils 60-70%

156
Q

What do agranulocytes do?

A

destroy invaders

157
Q

What is most plentiful agranulocyte in blood?

A

lymphocytes 25-33%

158
Q

What is a CBC?

A

Complete Blood Count
total count for RBCs, reticulocytes, WBCs and platelets
hemocrit, hemoglobin concentration, differential WBC count

159
Q

What is hemocrit?

A

pack cell volume
if low, means can’t transport oxygen
normal male is 35-40% (consume more O2)
normal female is 45%

160
Q

What does each side of the heart do?

A

Right - pumps blood from body to lungs

Left - pumps blood from lungs to body

161
Q

How many chambers of heart and what are they?

A 
4  chambers:
Right Atrium 
Left Atrium
Right Ventricle
Left Ventricle
162
Q

All arteries carry oxygenated blood except what?

A

pulmonary arteries

163
Q

What are the branches off of the aortic arch?

A

Brachiocephalic
Left Common Carotid
Left Subclavian

164
Q

Which branch off of the aortic arch carries blood to central retinal artery in eye?

A

Left Common Carotid

165
Q

What are the vessels that leave heart called?

A

arteries

166
Q

What are the vessels that return to the heart called?

A

veins

167
Q

Where is gas and nutrient exchange?

A

capillaries

168
Q

What is amaurosis fugax?

A

warning sign that plaque is travelling to eye; can cause temporary blindness (mostly in left eye)

169
Q

What is a neurovascular bundle?

A

A nerve, artery and vein grouping

170
Q

Where is most of your blood?

A

Venous system

70% is in systemic circuit

171
Q

Where is the highest blood flow per unit weight and size in the body?

A

Ciliary body of eye

172
Q

What is systole?

A

Closure of AV valves

1st reading in BP

173
Q

What is diastole?

A

Closure of semilunar valves

2nd reading in BP

174
Q

What do the lymphatic and immune systems do?

A

maintain fluid balance

protect body from infections and disease

175
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

Rapid pulse >100 bpm

176
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

Slow pulse

177
Q

What is hypertension?

A

High BP > 140/90

178
Q

What is hypotension?

A

Low BP

179
Q

What is a sphygmomanometer?

A

device to take BP

180
Q

What is lymph?

A

Clear, colorless liquid

similar to plasma but with less protein

181
Q

Which lymph vessels are more numerous? Afferent or Efferent?

A

Afferent

182
Q

Where is the lymph drainage of the eye and orbit?

A

Preauricular Node (in front of ear)

183
Q

What are the 3 lines of microbiological defense?

A

First - external barriers (skin, mucous membranes)
Second - phagocytic cells, antimicrobial proteins, inflammation, fever
Third - immune system

184
Q

What is the natural antibiotic in tears and saliva?

A

Lysozyme
Cleaves bond btwn N-acetylmuramic and D-Glucosamine
Destroys bacterial cell wall

185
Q

What are the two specific defense mechanisms?

A 
T lymphocytes (NK cells) 
B lymphocytes (humoral antibodies)
186
Q

What antibody is a monomer in plasma?

A

IgA

187
Q

What antibody is a monomer on mast cells?

A

IgE

188
Q

What antibody is a surface antibody?

A

IgA

189
Q

What antibody stimulates histamines?

A

IgE

190
Q

What antibody is a dimer in mucus, saliva and tears?

A

IgA

191
Q

What antibody attracts eosinophils?

A

IgE

192
Q

What antibody prevents adherence to epithelia?

A

IgA

193
Q

What antibody is a hypersensitivity reaction to allergens, parasites?

A

IgE

194
Q

What is a PFT?

A

pulmonary function test

195
Q

What is Spirometry?

A

a measurement of ventilation or respiratory volume

196
Q

What is tidal volume

A

1 quiet breath

197
Q

What is inspiratory reserve?

A

inhaled maximum effort

198
Q

What is expiratory reserve?

A

exhaled maximum effort

199
Q

What is the composition of air?

A

78% nitrogen

20% oxygen

200
Q

What are the systems that eliminate waste?

A

Respiratory
Integumentary
Digestive
Urinary

201
Q

How much of total body is water (150 lb male)?

A

40 L

202
Q

Where is most fluid located in the body?

A

ECF (extracellular fluid) 65% or 25 L

ICF (intracellular fluid) 35% or 15 L

203
Q

What does anesthetic (lidocaine) do?

A

block Na+ channels in neuronal cell membranes

204
Q

Where is Na+ most plentiful?

A

ECF

205
Q

Where is K+ most plentiful?

A

ICF

206
Q

What is homeostatis?

A

internal equilibrium

metabolism depends on enzymes sensitive to pH

207
Q

What is normal ECF pH?

A

7.35 to 7.45

208
Q

What are the two types of hormones?

A

Hydrophilic - monoamines and peptides

Hydrophobic - steroids

209
Q

Where is the sympathetic ganglion located?

A

adrenal medulla

210
Q

Where are chromaffin cells located?

A

adrenal medulla

211
Q

What releases two neurohormones?

A

adrenal medulla

212
Q

where is adrenaline (epinephrine and norepinephrine) produced?

A

adrenal medulla

213
Q

What produces 3 types of corticosteroids?

A

adrenal cortex

214
Q

What are the 3 types of corticosteroids produced by the adrenal cortex?

A

Mineralocorticoids
Glucocorticoids
Sex Steroids

215
Q

What is the middle part of the adrenal cortex and what does it do?

A

Zona Fasciculata

produces glucocorticoids

216
Q

What does Cortisol do?

A

Stimulates fat and protein catabolism
Gluconeogenesis from Amino acids and fatty acids realeases glucose into blood
Acts as an anti-inflammatory (but suppresses immune system too)

217
Q

What is the largest cranial nerve?

A

Trigeminal (V)

218
Q

Which cranial nerves move the eye?

A

There are 3:
Oculomotor (III)
Trochlear (IV)
Abducens (VI)

219
Q

Which cranial nerves carry gustatory (taste) information?

A

There are 3:
Facial (VII)
Glossopharyngeal (IX) and
Vagus (X)

220
Q

Which cranial nerves carry sensory information about blood pressure to the brain?

A

There are 2:
Glossopharyngeal (IX)
Vagus (X)

221
Q

Which cranial nerve constricts the pupil?

A

Oculomotor (III)

222
Q

Which cranial nerve dilates the pupil?

A

None. It is dilated by sympathetic nerves that travel from the superior cervical ganglion

Ocular Anatomy & Physiology (3 decks)

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