Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Opswat > Opswat > Flashcards

Opswat Flashcards

1
Q

What is CDR?

A

CDR is Content Disarm & Reconstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is CIP?

A

CIP is Critical Infrastructure Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is NAC?

A

NAC is Network Access Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Opswat’s DLP?

A

Opswat’s DLP is Data Loss Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Opswat’s Zero Trust Philosophy?

A

Opswat’s Zero Trust Philosophy is Trust No File, Trust No Device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an ACL?

A

An ACL is an Access Control List

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does an ACL do?

A

An ACL regulates IP & Port Access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What port does MetaDefender Core use?

A

MetaDefender Core uses port 8008

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where can you download MetaDefender Core?

A

You can download MetaDefender Core at portal.opswat.com

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where can you look at Opswat Product Guides?

A

You can look at Opswat Product Guides at onlinehelp.opswat.com

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is MetaDefender Drive?

A

MetaDefender Drive is a Stand Alone Scanner with its own OS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does ICAP stand for?

A

ICAP stands for Internet Content Adaptation Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does CVE stand for?

A

CVE stands for Common Vulnerability & Exposures library

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does LDAP stand for?

A

LDAP stands for Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Remediation?

A

Remediation is addressing a breach and limiting the amount of damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is OKTA?

A

OKTA is an identity provider or IdP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does SAML stand for?

A

SAML stands for Security Assertion Markup Language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does VDI stand for?

A

VDI stands for Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does TLS stand for?

A

TLS stands for Transport Layer Security protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an SDK?

A

An SDK is a Software Development Kit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is MetaDefender?

A

MetaDefender is a cybersecurity platform for preventing and detecting cybersecurity threats on multiple data channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Recursion with Opswat?

A

Recursion refers to how deep (how many layers) inside an archive MetaDefender will scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 6 Trust No File Technologies of MetaDefender Core?

A

The 6 Trust No File Technologies of MetaDefender Core are:

1) Proactive DLP
2) Deep CDR
3) Sandbox
4) File-Based Vulnerability Assessment
5) Threat Intelligence
6) Multiscanning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 2 primary components of MetaDefender Core?

A

The 2 primary components of MetaDefender Core are:

1) MetaDefender Service
2) MetaDefender Node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does API stand for?

A

API stands for an Application Program Interface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is MetaAccess

A

MetaAccess is used to manage devices (managed devices, BYOD devices, Guest) and control access to an organization’s cloud-based applications such as Dropbox, O365, and Box.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe MetaDefender Core Version 4

A

Can be installed in an online/offline environment or on the cloud (MD Cloud). It always comes with a local node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does MD Kiosk do?

A

MD Kiosk is used to scan files coming from portable media such as USB, CD/DVD, and phones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is MD Vault?

A

MD Vault allows customers to upload/download files after processed by Core to/from storage servers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is MD Email Gateway Security used for?

A

MD Gateway Security is used to scan emails in/out of an organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is MD ICAP (Internet Content Adaptation Protocol) used for?

A

MD ICAP is used to scan HTTP traffic (upload/download files)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is MD Drive

A

OPSWAT USB included MD Core and has a light Linux-based OS. It can be used to boot into a system and scan files.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is MD Central Management v7?

A

Used to managed MetaDefender products centrally

CM v5 + manage devices (MA features)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does MetaDefender for Secure Image do?

A

Offers the ability to protect Data Storage such as Box, OneDrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dan Shields

A

Network Engineer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Confluence

A

Knowledge Base
Policy & Procedure
Documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

JIRA

A

Service Desk Ticketing Software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is CSF?

A

Cyber Security Framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the core components of CSF (Cyber Security Framework)?

A

1) Core
2) Tiers
3) Profiles
4) Implementation Guidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the CSF (Cyber Security Framework) core functions?

A

1) Identify
2) Protect
3) Detect
4) Respond
5) Recover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does Linux command SU do?

A

SU Changes the user

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the Linux command SUDO for?

A

SUDO is Super User Do!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does the Linux command If Config do?

A

If Config provides system information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the Linux command Sudo Init 0 do?

A

Sudo Init 0 will shutdown the machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does the Linux command Sudo Shutdown -r do?

A

Sudo Shutdown -r will restart the machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Dan Lanir

A

Senior VP of Customer Success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

John DiNapoli

A

Director of Customer Success (San Francisco)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Kat Lewis

A

Director of Corporate Communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Jason Richard

A

Executive Creative Director (Branding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Kimberly Howell

A

Executive Assistant for Benny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Stephanie Breslin

A

Director of HR (San Francisco)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does GDPR stand for?

A

General Data Protection Regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Arun Sangameswaran

A

Customer Success Senior Engineer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What Opswat service does Charles Schwab utilize?

A

Metadefender Cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is are the main two questions/points of Kirk’s KPI discussion?

A

Ask customers:

1) What value are we providing?
2) What is the reason?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are CVE’s?

A

Common Vulnerability & Exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does GDRP stand for?

A

Global Data Retention Policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Where is the IT FAQ located?

A

The IT FAQ is located in Confluence. Always check it first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How do you launch JIRA & Confluence?

A

By going through OKTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What type of ticketing system is JIRA?

A

JIRA is both an internal and external ticketing system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the versions of MetaDefender Drive?

A

1) Community
2) Pro
3) Enterprise
4) Advanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are some of the steps to building an MD Drive?

A

Use the Portal in OKTA
Go to Products
Go to MD Utilities
Go to MD Drive Creator
Download, Unzip & Launch Creator
Install License Key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does COO mean?

A

COO stands for Country Of Origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What type of USB does MD Drive use?

A

Kangaroo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What key do you have to tap to boot from the USB MD Drive?

A

F12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Mike Barker

A

Chief Revenue Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Steve Gorham

A

CIO and Head of Global Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Pamela Bartz

A

Senior VP of Marketing (Tampa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What type of environment is a Sandbox?

A

Dynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What type of solution is SNDBOX?

A

SNDBOX is an on premises sandbox solution and accelerated development of CIP (Critical Infrastructure Protection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a MAS?

A

Malware Analysis Solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is OT?

A

Operational Technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is a PK?

A

A PK is a Policy Key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is Design Thinking?

A

Driving Growth and Innovation Through the Customer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the L1001?

A

A Kiosk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the Criticality Levels of JIRA?

A

Blocker
Critical
Major
Minor
Low/Trivial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a PUA?

A

Potentially Unwanted Application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is a COG or COGS?

A

Cost Of Goods Sold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is Hunting?

A

Going after new clients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is Farming?

A

Going after renewals for existing clients

81
Q

What is NAC?

A

Network Access Control

82
Q

What is an SE?

A

Sales Engineer

83
Q

Amit Schulman

A

The Lead Sales Engineer

84
Q

Matt Boksa

A

Sales Engineer Team Lead

85
Q

What was a SAM? (This term is not used anymore)

A

Sales Account Manager

86
Q

What personality characteristic did Stephen mention that Tech Support people have?

A

Technical Intelligence

87
Q

What personality characteristic did Stephen mention that Customer Success people have?

A

Personality

88
Q

What teams does Customer Success communicate with?

A

Tech Support
Dev
Customer

89
Q

What is Customer Success like?

A

The Glue!

90
Q

What is Account Success for the Customer?

A

Account Success is the Customer Advocate

91
Q

What are the Levels of Opswat Support? (SLA’s)

A

1) Standard
2) Gold
3) Platinum
4) Rhodium

92
Q

What does CTRL+J do in the Edge Browser?

A

Shows Downloads

93
Q

Kira Parisi

A

QA Engineer

94
Q

Where is the Prep Playbook?

A

Confluence

95
Q

Where is Account Opportunities?

A

Salesforce

96
Q

What is a PoC?

A

Proof of Concept - A test before an actual project

97
Q

What is an SLA?

A

Service Level Agreement

98
Q

What are Salesforce Proserve Cases?

A

Cases Assigned to you

99
Q

What are some of the build specifications for a Windows VM?

A

4096 MB Startup Memory
100 GB Virtual HD
Generation 2
Uncheck Dynamic Memory

100
Q

Where do you download MD Core?

A

In the Portal under Products

101
Q

What utility is used to create a bootable USB?

A

RUFUS

102
Q

What are two things to remember when creating the USB for NetWall imaging?

A

1) Do not change the name of the volume
2) Always write in DD image mode

103
Q

What does WinSCP stand for?

A

Windows Secure Copy (FTP software)

104
Q

Ricardo Guzman

A

Associate Customer Success Engineer

105
Q

Mark Creasy

A

Customer Success Engineer

106
Q

Derrick Reeves

A

Customer Success Engineer

107
Q

Mike Greene

A

Associate Technical Support Engineer

108
Q

What does LDAP stand for?

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

109
Q

What order are the two main Revenue drivers for Opswat?

A

1) MD Core
2) Kiosk

110
Q

Thomas Sedgwick

A

Technology Logistics Administrator for Customer Success

111
Q

Ardee Aquino

A

Technical Support Engineer

112
Q

Edwuardo Villa

A

Customer Support Engineer (Customer Success)

113
Q

How do you turn on Hyper V?

A

Control Panel -> Programs and Features

114
Q

What are some of the specifications for a Linux VM?

A

2048 MB memory
100 GB Virtual HD
Generation 1
Uncheck Dynamic Memory

115
Q

Where are Activation Keys for MD Core stored on the activation server?

A

Inventory

116
Q

When troubleshooting what order would you use Opswat’s resources?

A

1) Confluence
2) Salesforce
3) JIRA

117
Q

In the OZ principal how does Accountability begin?

A

Accountability begins by Clearly Defining the RESULTS

118
Q

What are the ways a customer can utilize Salesforce?

A

1) Email
2) Portal
3) Chat
4) Calling In

119
Q

How should you sort in Salesforce?

A

Date/Time Opened

120
Q

In the OZ Principle, what are the 4 Steps to Accountability?

A

1) See It - Acknowledge the Problem
2) Own It - Take Responsibility for It
3) Solve It - Determine What I Can Do
4) Do It - Take Action

121
Q

What is Above The Line in the OZ Principle?

A

Above the Line – Steps to Accountability

See It
Own It
Solve It
Do It

122
Q

What is Below The Line in the OZ Principle?

A

Below the Line – The Blame Game

Wait and See
Confusion / Tell Me What to Do
It is Not My Job
Ignore / Deny
Finger Pointing
Cover Your Tail

123
Q

What is the OZ Principles definition of Accountability?

A

Accountability is a personal choice to rise above one’s circumstances and demonstrate the ownership necessary for achieving desired results to SEE IT, OWN IT, SOLVE IT, and DO IT.

SOSD

124
Q

Who wrote the OZ Principle?

A

Roger Connors

125
Q

What is Postgres?

A

PostgreSQL is an open source relational database management system.

126
Q

What does SQL stand for?

A

Structured Query Language

127
Q

What does MetaAccess do?

A

MetaAccess confirms devices comply with security policies before accessing any cloud applications or local resources while delivering cross-enterprise visibility on a single pane of glass.

128
Q

What Is a Security Operations Center (SOC)?

A

Security operations staffing and organizational structure. The function of a security operations team and, frequently, of a security operations center (SOC), is to monitor, detect, investigate, and respond to cyberthreats.

129
Q

What is a SOC?

A

Security Operations Center

130
Q

What are the four (4) departments of Customer Success?

A

1) Technical Support
2) Account Success (This is you!)
3) Supply Chain
4) Professional Services

131
Q

Edwardo Villa

A

CS Support Engineer

132
Q

John DiNapoli

A

Director of Customer Success

133
Q

What does SOW stand for?

A

Statement Of Work

134
Q

What does SDP stand for?

A

Software Defined Perimeter

135
Q

What does QBR stand for?

A

Quarterly Business Review

136
Q

What is the Trace Route command?

A

tracert

137
Q

What is an SDP?

A

Software Defined Perimeter

138
Q

What is DMZ?

A

Demilitarized Zone

A DMZ separates a LAN from untrusted networks, usually the public Internet.

139
Q

Ardee Aquino

A

Technical Customer Support Engineer

140
Q

Dan Lanir

A

VP of Customer Success

141
Q

John DiNapoli

A

Director of Customer Success

142
Q

What is an NPS?

A

Net Promoter Score

143
Q

What does a Net Promoter Score (NPS) do?

A

Measures Customer Loyalty

144
Q

What are the three customer categories that are used to calculate the NPS?

A

1) Detractors
2) Passives
3) Promoters

145
Q

What are the three customer categories that are used to calculate the NPS?

A

1) Detractors: Score of 0-6

(Unlikely to recommend a company or product to others, probably won’t stick around or repeat purchases, and—worse—could actively discourage potential customers away from a business.)

2) Passives: Score of 7-8

(Not actively recommending a brand, but are also unlikely to damage it with negative word of mouth. Although they are not included in the NPS calculation, passives are very close to being promoters (particularly when they give a score of 8), so it always makes strategic sense to spend time investigating what to do to win them over.)

3) Promoters: Score of 9 and 10

(Most enthusiastic and loyal customers: these people are likely to act as brand ambassadors, enhance a brand’s reputation, and increase referral flows, helping fuel the company’s growth.)

146
Q

What does OT do?

A

Controls Equipment

147
Q

What does IT do?

A

Controls Data

148
Q

What is SCADA?

A

SCADA is a type of OT and stands for:

Supervisory
Control
And
Data
Acquisition
systems

149
Q

How is NPS calculated?

A

NPS is calculated by subtracting the percentage of customers who answer the NPS question with a 6 or lower (known as ‘detractors’) from the percentage of customers who answer with a 9 or 10 (known as ‘promoters’).

150
Q

What is UAT?

A

User Acceptance Testing

151
Q

What is a Hypervisor?

A

A hypervisor (or virtual machine monitor, VMM, virtualizer) is a kind of emulator; it is computer software, firmware or hardware that creates and runs virtual machines.

152
Q

AFAIK

A

As Far As I Know

153
Q

FYSA

A

For Your Situational Awareness

154
Q

OTOH

A

On The Other Hand

155
Q

Value Prop (Proposition)

A

(in marketing) an innovation, service, or feature intended to make a company or product attractive to customers.

156
Q

IPO

A

An initial public offering (IPO) refers to the process of offering shares of a private corporation to the public in a new stock issuance. An IPO allows a company to raise capital from public investors.

157
Q

Mike Barker

A

Chief Revenue Officer (Tampa)

158
Q

OOO

A

Out Of Office

159
Q

Remediate

A

Provide a remedy for; redress or make right

160
Q

Steven Goforth

A

VP of IT & Security Operations

161
Q

What does CIP do?

A

Critical Infrastructure Protection is the practice of making sure critical networks remain protected

162
Q

What does OTP stand for?

A

On The Phone

163
Q

What is Dynamic Analysis?

A

Analyzing Malware in a Safe Environment such as a Sandbox

164
Q

What is FTW? (Acronym)

A

For The Win!

165
Q

What is ICS?

A

Industrial Control Systems

166
Q

PLC

A

Programmable Logic Controller

167
Q

IIOT

A

Industrial Internet Of Things

168
Q

HMI

A

Human Machine Interface

169
Q

TCA

A

Transient Cyber Assets

170
Q

RM

A

Removable Media

171
Q

The Internet of things (IoT)

A

Describes physical objects (or groups of such objects) that are embedded with sensors, processing ability, software, and other technologies, and that connect and exchange data with other devices and systems over the Internet or other communications networks.

172
Q

SWAG

A

Silly Wild Ass Guess

173
Q

TCA

A

Transient Cyber Asset

174
Q

ICS

A

Industrial Control Systems

175
Q

Andrew Segraves

A

Director, Renewals & Inside Sales

176
Q

WIP

A

Work In Progress

177
Q

RADIUS

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

178
Q

Stephen Gorham

A

CIO & Head of Global Operations

179
Q

ICS

A

Industrial Control Systems

180
Q

Razvan Chilu

A

Senior Director of Professional Services and Support

181
Q

CSNA AS

A

Customer Success
North America

Account Success

(Distribution Group)

182
Q

CSNA CS

A

Customer Success
North America

Customer Support

(Distribution Group)

183
Q

CSNA PS

A

Customer Success
North America

Professional Services

(Distribution Group)

184
Q

RADIUS

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

A networking protocol that provides AAA - Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting

185
Q

SDP

A

Software Defined Perimeter

186
Q

SCADA

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

187
Q

What is Blob Storage?

A

Blob storage is a feature in Microsoft Azure that lets developers store unstructured data in Microsoft’s cloud platform. This data can be accessed from anywhere in the world and can include audio, video and text. Blobs are grouped into “containers” that are tied to user accounts.

188
Q

ORBC

A

Onboarding and Renewal Based Checkups (ORBC)

189
Q

What are Deliverables?

A

The term “deliverables” is a project management term that’s traditionally used to describe the quantifiable goods or services that must be provided upon the completion of a project. Deliverables can be tangible or intangible in nature.

190
Q

What is OT?

A

Operational technology (OT) is hardware and software that detects or causes a change, through the direct monitoring and/or control of industrial equipment, assets, processes and events.[1] The term has become established to demonstrate the technological and functional differences between traditional IT systems and Industrial Control Systems environment, the so-called “IT in the non-carpeted areas”. Examples of operational technology include:

programmable logic controllers (PLCs)
Supervisory control and data acquisition systems (SCADA)
Distributed control systems (DCS)
Computer Numerical Control (CNC) systems, including computerized machine tools
Scientific equipment (e.g. digital oscilloscopes)
Building Management and Building Automation Systems, (BMS)/(BAS)
Lighting controls both for internal and external applications
Energy monitoring, security and safety systems for the built environment
Transportation systems for the built environment

191
Q

Dichotomy

A

A division or contrast between two things that are or are represented as being opposed or entirely different.
“a rigid dichotomy between science and mysticism”

Synonyms:
division · separation · divorce · split · gulf · chasm · difference · contrast · disjunction · polarity · lack of consistency · contradiction · antagonism · conflict · contrariety.

192
Q

GDPR

A

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

193
Q

Kaizen

A

A Japanese term that means “change for the better ,” has been adapted by organizations as a business strategy aimed at establishing an environment of continuous improvement. The goal of Kaizen is to make the organization, and its products, services and people, better by implementing small scale changes throughout the company.

194
Q

What is a REST API?

A

REST is a stateless, cacheable client-server communication protocol and stands for Representational State Transfer (ReST). It is an architecture style for designing networked applications that uses simple HTTP requests…

195
Q

What are Webhooks used for?

A

A Webhook is a lightweight API that powers one-way data sharing triggered by events. Together, they enable applications to share data and functionality, and turn the web into something greater than the sum of its parts. APIs and Webhooks both allow different software systems to sync up and share information.

196
Q

What is Trello?

A

Trello is a collaboration tool that organizes your projects into boards. In one glance, Trello tells you what’s being worked on, who’s working on what, and where something is in a process.

197
Q

SOC

A

Security Operations Center

The function of the security operations center (SOC) is to monitor, prevent, detect, investigate, and respond to cyber threats around the clock. SOC teams are charged with monitoring and protecting the organization’s assets including intellectual property, personnel data, business systems, and brand integrity.

(A team of experts that proactively monitor an organization’s ability to operate securely.)

198
Q

LDAP

A

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a software protocol for enabling anyone to locate data about organizations, individuals and other resources such as files and devices in a network – whether on the public Internet or on a corporate Intranet.

Opswat (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions