Ops Specs COPY

Question 1

C51. At FOREIGN AIRPORTS: If ___ lights are OTS, multiply RVR by __ factor (Day / Night)

1. HIRL:
2. Any Other:
3. No Lights:

Answer 1

At FOREIGN AIRPORTS: If ___ lights are OTS, multiply RVR by __ factor (Day / Night)

1. HIRL: 1.5(D); N 2.0(N)
2. Any other: 1.0(D) / 1.5(N)
3. No lights: 1.0(D) / N/A(N)

Question 2

C52. Reduced landing minima are __’ DH and __’ RVR. Authorized precision Cat I landing minima as low as __’ RVR to approved runways WITHOUT TDZ lights and/or RCL lights, IAW following:

• Airplanes must be equipped with approved *__, __ or __ * for CAT I
• Flt crew is __ to engage * and use it to DA or initiation of MA
• Single pilot ops are __ from using FD to reduced CAT I w/o using A/P or HUD.
• Should * fail, must go __ unless vis w/runway environment.

Answer 2

Reduced landing minima are 200’ DH and 1800’ RVR. Authorized precision Cat I landing minima as low as 1800’ RVR to approved runways w/o TDZ lights and/or RCL lights, IAW following:

• Airplanes must be equipped with approved FD, AP or HUD for CAT I
• Flt crew is required to engage * and use it to DA or initiation of MA
• Single pilot ops are prohibited from using FD to reduced CAT I w/o using A/P or HUD.
• Should * fail, must go MA unless vis w/runway environment

Question 3

C54. High Mins PIC provisions. A pilot who has not met 14 CFR 135.225(e) [100 hours PIC time in the aircraft] will:
If 1800/2000 RVR reported, use:
If 2400/3000 RVR reported, use:
If 4000/5000 RVR reported, use:

Answer 3

High Mins PIC provisions. A pilot who has not met 14 CFR 135.225(e) [100 hours PIC time in the aircraft] will:
If 1800/2000 RVR reported, use 4500’
If 2400/3000 RVR reported, use 5000’
If 4000/5000 RVR reported, use 6000’

Question 4

C57. IFR T/O minimums

• Standard T/O minimums are __SM vis or RVR __ for airplanes having 2 engines or less.
• When available, use __ __ for intended runway for all takeoff operations on that runway.
• Note, for part 135 Ops, may not use __ than standard w/Pax on board

Answer 4

IFR T/O minimums

• Standard T/O minimums are 1 SM vis or RVR 5000 for airplanes having 2 engines or less.
• When available, use TDZ RVR for intended runway for all takeoff operations on that runway.
• Note, for part 135 Ops, may not use lower than standard w/Pax on board

Question 5

Basic VFR Cloud Clearances:
B
C, D, E (<10K), G (Night*)
E (>10K’)
G (Day)
*except if doing vis pattern work, can be \_\_, clear of clouds and remain w/in \_\_ mi of runway

Answer 5

B: 3 Sm / Clear
C, D, and E (<10K), G (Night*): 3 sm / +1,000 / -500 / 2,000
E (>10K): 5 Sm / +1,000 / -1,000 / 1 mi
G (Day): 1 Sm / clear
*except if doing vis pattern work, can be <3 but >1, clear of clouds and remain w/in 1/2 mile of runway

Question 6

A02 (Definitions and abbreviations).
Available Landing Distance: that portion of the runway available for ___ and __-__ for aircraft cleared for land and hold short of operations (LAHSO-which we are prohibited from doing per GOM). Measured from the landing __ to the hold-short point.

Answer 6

Available Landing Distance: that portion of the runway available for landing and roll-out for aircraft cleared for land and hold short of operations (LAHSO-which we are prohibited from doing per GOM). Measured from the landing threshold to the hold-short point.

Question 7

A02 (Definitions and abbreviations)
Class I Navigation: any en-route flight operation or portion of an operation that is conducted entirely within the designated __ __ __ (or ICAO equivalents) of ICAO standard airway nav facilities (VOR, VOR/DME, NDB). Includes en-route flight ops over routes designated with an MEA GAP” (or ICAO equiv).

Answer 7

Class I Navigation: any en-route flight operation or portion of an operation that is conducted entirely within the designated operational service volumes (or ICAO equivalents) of ICAO standard airway nav facilities (VOR, VOR/DME, NDB). Includes en-route flight ops over routes designated with an MEA GAP” (or ICAO equiv).

Question 8

A02 (Def’s and Abbrev)

• Decision Altitude/Height = specified minimum altitude on an IAP by which a __ __ must be initiated if vis ref has not been established.
• DA is typically ___ (Baro or RADALT)
• DH is typically __ (Baro or RADALT)

Answer 8

• Decision Altitude/Height = specified minimum altitude on an IAP by which a missed approach must be initiated if vis ref has not been established.
• DA is typically Baro
• DH is typically RADALT

Question 9

A02 (Def’s and Abbrev)
ILS-PRM is for __, __ ILS approaches enabled through precision monitoring equipment for runways between 4,299’ and 3000’ apart. Runways <3,400’ use ILS courses offset __ - __ degrees.

Answer 9

ILS-PRM is for close, parallel ILS approaches enabled through precision monitoring equipment for runways between 4,299’ and 3000’ apart. Runways <3,400’ use ILS courses offset 2.5 - 3 degrees.

Question 10

A02 (Def’s and Abbrev)

MDA(H) is the lowest altitude on an IAP to which descent is authorized on a __ ___ or __-to-land maneuvering.

Answer 10

MDA(H) is the lowest altitude on an IAP to which descent is authorized on a final approach or circle-to-land maneuvering.

Question 11

A02 (Def’s and Abbrev)
RNP Type is a value typically expressed in nm from the intended position within which an aircraft would be for at least __% of the total flying time. Ex: RNP-4 = the aircraft lat/long accuracy is 4nm __% of the time. Note: some ops may include a vertical component.

Answer 11

RNP Type is a value typically expressed in nm from the intended position within which an aircraft would be for at least 95% of the total flying time. Ex: RNP-4 = the aircraft lat/long accuracy is 4nm 95% of the time. Note: some ops may include a vertical component.

Question 12

A02 (Def’s and Abbrev’s)
SOIA (Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach) comprises one __ and one __ with glide slope. The former is aligned with the runway while the latter is offset between __ to __ degrees. Intended for runways spaced <3000’ apart but no less than 750’

Answer 12

SOIA (Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach) comprises one ILS and one LDA with glide slope. The former is aligned with the runway while the latter is offset between 2.5 to 3 degrees. Intended for runways spaced <3000’ apart but no less than 750’.

Question 13

A02 (Def’s and Abbrev’s)
WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System) improves accuracy, integrity, availability and reliability of __ signals. Uses a fixed localized __ station to calculate correction data then broadcasts it via __ to users.

Answer 13

WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System) improves accuracy, integrity, availability and reliability of GPS signals. Uses a fixed localized ground station to calculate correction data then broadcasts it via satellites to users.

Question 14

A04 (Summary of Special Authorizations and Limitations)
Section a includes ___.
Section b includes ___/___.
Note: both lists are long and distinguished.

Answer 14

A04 (Summary of Special Authorizations and Limitations)
Section a includes authorizations
Section b includes limitations/prohibitions

Question 15

A06. Management Personnel.
The following positions are authorized management positions: __, __ and __. (A07) They are authorized to __ for and __ ops specs for the certificate holder.

Answer 15

The following positions are authorized management positions: CP, DM, DO. They are authorized to apply for and receive ops specs for the certificate holder.

Question 16

A08. Operational Control
- Much overlap with the __; if you know that, then you know this (certificate holder responsibilities, wet leases, crewmember req’ts, acft req’ts, exclusive acft use, other business names, other agreements/arrangements, mgmt/OPCON, etc)

Answer 16

• Much overlap with GOM; if you know that, then you know this (certificate holder responsibilities, wet leases, crewmember req’ts, acft req’ts, exclusive acft use, other business names, other agreements/arrangements, mgmt/OPCON, etc)

Question 17

A14 (Special En Route IFR in Class G). Authorized provided:

• ops are __ for IFR flight in __ __ B050.
• ops are conducted IAW limitations/provisions of __ __ B032.
• Facilities/services necessary to safely conduct ops are __ and __ during the operations.

Answer 17

A14 (Special En Route IFR in Class G). Authorized provided:

• ops are authorized for IFR flight in Ops Spec B050 (They are: Canada, Caribbean, Mexico, Gulf, CONUS and Alaska)
• ops are conducted IAW limitations/provisions of Ops Spec B032.
• Facilities/services necessary to safely conduct ops are available and operational during the operations.

Question 18

A15. (A/P in Lieu of SIC)

• Authorized by ___ and ___ manufacturer/model.
• Requires PIC has completed the __ __ Requirements of 14 CFR 135.297(g)
• Installed A/P system is __ IAW Section 135.105(c)(1)

Answer 18

• Authorized by aircraft and autopilot manufacturer/model.
• Requires PIC has completed the proficiency check Requirements of 14 CFR 135.297(g)
• Installed A/P system is operational IAW Section 135.105(c)(1)

Question 19

A25. (Electronic Records/Manuals).

Certificate holder is authorized to use electronic ___, ___ systems and __ systems, including electronic __.

Answer 19

Certificate holder is authorized to use electronic signatures, record-keeping systems and manual systems, including electronic MEL.

Question 20

A41. The certificate holder is authorized to conduct a __-__ contamination check or use and approved alternate procedure (as described in GOM and de-ice manual). Pilots shall demonstrate __ to operate in ground icing conditions during the __ and __ flight checks.

Answer 20

A41. The certificate holder is authorized to conduct a pre-takeoff contamination check or use and approved alternate procedure (as described in GOM and de-ice manual). Pilots shall demonstrate knowledge to operate in ground icing conditions during the initial and recurrent flight checks.

Question 21

A46. Single Engine IFR (SEIFR) 135 Pax Ops. Authorized, provided:

• T/O contingency planning must include __ and __ in case of eng fail
• Flight crew must have completed approved __ __ and PIC must be checked for __ and/or __ for IFR ops.
• Required __ must be operational (no MEL allowed)
• Plus MX req’ts

Answer 21

• T/O contingency planning must include maneuvers and procedures in case of eng fail
• Flight crew must have completed approved training program and PIC must be checked for competency and/or proficiency for IFR ops.
• Required equipment must be operational (no MEL allowed)
• Plus MX req’ts

Question 22

A55. HAZMAT. Certificate holder is __ to accept, handle and carry HAZMAT. If international ops, must comply with __ and __ standards. Exemptions or permits are issued by __, __ and __.

Answer 22

HAZMAT. Certificate holder is authorized to accept, handle and carry HAZMAT. If international ops, must comply with ICAO and IATA (Int’l Air Transport Assoc) standards. Exemptions or permits are issued by DOT, DOI and USFS.

Question 23

A61. Certificate holder is __ to conduct ops using EFBs. Req’ts:

• __ Program (for crew members)
• __ Management (specific procedures to updating/maintaining)
• __ (ensure software and data function correctly and, if not, provide non-electronic form).
• __ must be documented.

Answer 23

A61. Certificate holder is authorized to conduct ops using EFBs. Req’ts:

• Training Program (for crew members)
• Database Management (specific procedures to updating/maintaining)
• Functionality (ensure software and data function correctly and, if not, provide non-electronic form).
• MX must be documented.

Question 24

A96. Weight Program for Acft

• Must use actual weights for all __ __ aircraft (or pax “solicited” + 10lbs).
• __-__ baggage must be IAW ops spec A011.

Answer 24

A96. Weight Program for Acft

• Must use actual weights for all single engine aircraft (or pax “solicited” + 10lbs).
• Carry-on baggage must be IAW ops spec A011.

Question 25

A449. The certificate holder

• certifies that it will comply with 14 and 49 CFR __-__ and __ misuse prevention program.
• responsible for ensuring its __ who perform safety-sensitive work comply.
• Since we have fewer than 50 safety-sensitive employees, we must submit an annual report upon request of the __.

Answer 25

The certificate holder

• certifies that it will comply with 14 and 49 CFR anti-drug and alcohol misuse prevention program.
• responsible for ensuring its contractors who perform safety-sensitive work comply.
• Since we have fewer than 50 safety-sensitive employees, we must submit an annual report upon request of the Adminstrator.

Question 26

B31. Areas of En Route Operation. Only where:
- IFR flights over routing predicated on ATC __ __ services, w/in controlled airspace.
- Off-airways provided
— routings lie within the __ __ __ of facilities used and ops are __ by the appropriate __ facility.
— Ops conducted IAW the route __ and __ prescribed
— Req’d __ and __-__ nav facilities are available/operational

Answer 26

Areas of En Route Operation. Only where:
- IFR flights over routing predicated on ATC radar vectoring services, w/in controlled airspace.
- Off-airways provided
— routings lie within the operational service volumes of facilities used and ops are authorized by the appropriate ATC facility.
— Ops conducted IAW the route width and MEA prescribed
— Req’d airborne and ground-based nav facilities are available/operational

Question 27

B32. Enroute Limitations/Provisions.
Area Nav may be used if the acft’s position can be “__ __” at least once each hour (using nav facilities) to the degree of accuracy req’d by ATC.

Answer 27

B32. Enroute Limitations/Provisions.
Area Nav may be used if the acft’s position can be “reliably fixed” at least once each hour (using nav facilities) to the degree of accuracy req’d by ATC.

Question 28

B34. IFR Class I using RNAV.
May operate P-RNAV (__) or B-RNAV (__) provided
- B-RNAV/RNAV 5 terminal and en route ops, nav performance is +/- __ NM for __% of time.
- P-RNAV terminal and en route ops, nav performance is +/- __ NM for __% of time.
- Authorized by __ and __ __ manufacturer/model.

Answer 28

May operate P-RNAV (Precision) or B-RNAV (Basic) provided

• B-RNAV/RNAV 5 terminal and en route ops, nav performance is +/- 5 NM for 95% of time.
• P-RNAV terminal and en route ops, nav performance is +/- 1 NM for 95% of time.
• Authorized by aircraft and navigation system manufacturer/model.

Question 29

B34. Class I IFR using RNAV
- Pilot must be __. System must be __ __.
- We are authorized single RNAV provided:
— Present Position and relationship to NAVAID, airway or Instm Flt Procedure is __ displayed on each pilot’s instruments.
— Indication is __ provided on fwd instrument panel when nav performance is __ to navigate to req’d degree of accuracy.

Answer 29

• Pilot must be qualified. System must be fully operational.
• We are authorized single RNAV provided:
  — Present Position and relationship to NAVAID, airway or Instm Flt Procedure is continuously displayed on each pilot’s instruments.
  — Indication is immediately provided on fwd instrument panel when nav performance is insufficient to navigate to req’d degree of accuracy.

Question 30

B35. During RNAV or LRNS (Long-Range Nav Systems) ops (unless RNAV route specifically requires GPS or GNSS equipage), acft on RNAV route must be within ATC radar __ and __. If ATC radar fails, ATC clearance must be obtained to continue. If RNAV or LRNS fails, notify __ ASAP.

Answer 30

During RNAV or LRNS (Long-Range Nav Systems) ops (unless RNAV route specifically requires GPS or GNSS equipage), acft on RNAV route must be within ATC radar surveillance and communication. If ATC radar fails, ATC clearance must be obtained to continue. If RNAV or LRNS fails, notify ATC ASAP.

Question 31

B50. Certificate holder is __ to conduct ops in Canada, Caribbean, Gulf, Mexico, CONUS and Alaska. See cross-references in this para.
B450. We have listed __ as our Sensitive International Area where we may conduct operations. See req’ts.

Answer 31

Certificate holder is authorized to conduct ops in Canada, Caribbean, Gulf, Mexico, CONUS and Alaska. See cross-references in this para.
B450. We have listed Mexico as our Sensitive International Area where we may conduct operations. See req’ts.

Question 32

C51. At foreign airports, may not conduct terminal instrument procedures determined by FAA to be “not __ for US air carrier use” but we may develop and use one if we determine it is equivalent to req’ts.

Answer 32

At foreign airports, may not conduct terminal instrument procedures determined by FAA to be “not authorized for US air carrier use” but we may develop and use one if we determine it is equivalent to req’ts.

Question 33

C52. Approach and Ldg Minima

• __ __ reports, when available, are controlling for that r/w
• Visibility values

Answer 33

Approach and Ldg Minima

• TDZ RVR reports, when avail, are controlling for that r/w
• Visibility values <1/2 SM are not authorized and shall not be used.
• The mid RVR report may be substituted if the TDZ RVR is unavailable.

Question 34

C52. We are authorized WAAS approaches provided:

• Equipment is __ for the intended operation and must contain __ nav data.
• Both the __ constellation and the required __ must be providing the required performance (avail, accuracy, function, integrity)

Answer 34

We are authorized WAAS approaches provided:

• Equipment is certified for the intended operation and must contain current nav data.
• Both the GPS constellation and the required equipment must be providing the required performance (avail, accuracy, function, integrity)

Question 35

C52. At foreign airports, when MDA(H) or DA(H) is not provided, the lowest authorized is obtained by:

• the __ (when specified) + airport elevation, rounded up to nearest 10’
• the ___/___ (when specified), rounded up to nearest 10’ for Non-PA

Answer 35

At foreign airports, when MDA(H) or DA(H) is not provided, the lowest authorized is obtained by:

• the Obstacle Clearance LIMIT (OCL) (when specified) + airport elevation, rounded up to nearest 10’
• the Obstacle Clearance ALTITUDE (OCA) / Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH) (when specified), rounded up to nearest 10’ for Non-PA

Question 36

C52. Pilots will not descend below MDA(H) or DA(H) unless
- in a position to make a __ approach to the intended runway PLUS one of the following is clearly visible:
— Lights: __ __ __ or __ __ __ lights
— Environment: __, __, or ___ (or their markings or lights)
— __ __ indicator

Answer 36

Pilots will not descend below MDA(H) or DA(H) unless
- in a position to make a __ approach to the intended runway PLUS one of the following is clearly visible:
— Lights: ALS or REI lights
— Environment: R/W, threshold, TDZ (or their markings or lights)
— Visual Glidepath indicator (VASI or PAPI)

Question 37

C55. Alt IFR Wx Mins.

• Aiports with 1 Nav facility (PA, st-in NPA or circle): add __’ to MDA or DA/H and __ SM (__m) to minima
• For airports with 2 Nav facilities (providing a st-in app to different __ runways): add __’ to higher DA/H or MDA of the 2 approaches and __ SM (__m) to the higher of the 2 approaches used.

Answer 37

Alt IFR Wx Mins.

• Aiports with 1 Nav facility (PA, st-in NPA or circle): add 400’ to MDA or DA/H and 1 SM (1600m) to minima
• For airports with 2 Nav facilities (providing a st-in app to different suitable runways): add 200’ to higher DA/H or MDA of the 2 approaches and 1/2 SM (800m) to the higher of the 2 approaches used.

Question 38

C55. IFR Alt Wx Mins

• In determining runway suitability, __ (including __) must be forecast w/in operating limits.
• The PC-12 __ (IS or IS NOT) authorized to use GPS-Based IAP minimums at an alternate, with caveats (on another card)

Answer 38

IFR Alt Wx Mins

• In determining runway suitability, winds (including gusts) must be forecast w/in operating limits.
• The PC-12 IS authorized to use GPS-Based IAP minimums at an alternate, with caveats (on another card)

Question 39

C55. GPS-based minimums may be used provided:

• Equipment passes __ prediction for airport and IAP
• Pilot must review NOTAMS for __ service outages
• Plan a __ approach and may plan to use __ as a means of NAVAID substitution (NOT including the NAVAID providing lateral guidance on final approach segment), unless that procedure is NOTAMed as “not authorized.”

Answer 39

GPS-based minimums may be used provided:

• Equipment passes RAIM prediction for airport and IAP
• Pilot must review NOTAMS for WAAS service outages
• Plan a conventional approach and may plan to use GPS as a means of NAVAID substitution (NOT including the NAVAID providing lateral guidance on final approach segment), unless that procedure is NOTAMed as “not authorized.”

Question 40

C55. GPS-based minimums may be used provided:

** I need to find out what we have. Baro VNAV or RNAV.

Answer 40

All the ending paragraphs (i-iv)??

Question 41

C64. Terminal IFR ops in Class G at Airports W/O ATCT. Certificate holder is authorized these ops provided:

• Airport is served by an authorized __
• Airport has approved __ source
• Airport has suitable means for PIC to acquire timely air __ advisories and the status of airport __ and facilities (which must be adequate to __ conduct operations)
• These provisions apply to designating an __ airport, as well.

Answer 41

Certificate holder is authorized these ops provided:

• Airport is served by an authorized IAP
• Airport has approved weather source
• Airport has suitable means for PIC to acquire timely air traffic advisories and the status of airport services and facilities (which must be adequate to safely conduct operations)
• These provisions apply to designating an alternate airport, as well.

Question 42

C71. AP Min use altitudes (MUH) for PC-12-45 (Bendex King):
Takeoff/Initial Climb: __’
Enroute: __’
Approach: __’
- Aircrew must be __ and AP must be __ __ to engage it.

Answer 42

AP Min use altitudes (MUH) for PC-12-45 (Bendex King):
Takeoff/Initial Climb: 1000’
Enroute: 1000’
Approach: 200’
- Aircrew must be trained and AP must be fully operational to engage it.

Question 43

C75. Circling Approaches:

• Plan category for __ speed to be used during maneuver
• Must remain __ __ __. If visual is lost, must execute __ for approach flown.
• Cat A (<91): __’ HAA / __ SM
• Cat B (91-120): __’ HAA/__ SM
• Pilots must be __ and complete a __ check for the maneuver

Answer 43

Plan category for highest speed to be used during maneuver

• Must remain clear of clouds. If visual is lost, must execute MA for approach flown.
• Cat A (<91): 350’ HAA / 1 SM
• Cat B (91-120): 450’ HAA / 1SM
• Pilots must be trained and complete a proficiency check for the maneuver

Question 44

C77. VFR rules. Pilot may accept visual or Charted Vis Flt Procedure (CVFP) provided all:

• Remain in class _, _, or _ airspace, w/in __ nm of destination in class _.
• Flt is under the control of an __ facility.
• Maintain basic __ __
• For Visual (not CVFP), must be able to establish and maintain visual contact with the __ or __ to follow. Minimum of __’ ceiling and __ mi visibility
• For CVFP, must be able to est and maint visual with airport or charted visual __. Wx must be at or above CVFP minima (never lower than __ landing minima)

Answer 44

VFR rules. Pilot may accept visual or Charted Vis Flt Procedure (CVFP) provided all:

• Remain in class B, C, or D airspace, w/in 35 nm of destination in class E.
• Flt is under the control of an ATC facility.
• Maintain basic cloud clearances
• For Visual (not CVFP), must be able to establish and maintain visual contact with the R/W or traffic to follow. Minimum of 1,000’ ceiling and 3 mi visibility
• For CVFP, must be able to est and maint visual with airport or charted visual landmarks. Wx must be at or above CVFP minima (never lower than VFR landing minima)

Question 45

C77. Terminal Departures: VFR (w/o clrx), or IFR (with clearance to t/o and climb VFR), may go provided:

• Ceiling >/= __ ‘ and vis >/= __ nm;
• Maintain basic __ __ for given airspace
• Flight must remain in __ while operating under VFR
• If VFR (w/o clrx): Must get clrx ASAP, as directed, never >__ nm from dept airport

Answer 45

Terminal Departures: VFR (w/o clrx), or IFR (with clearance to t/o and climb VFR), may go provided:

• Ceiling >/= 1000 ‘ and vis >/= 2 nm;
• Maintain basic cloud clearances for given airspace
• Flight must remain in VMC while operating under VFR
• If VFR (w/o clrx): Must get clrx ASAP, as directed, never >50 nm from dept airport

Question 46

C77. VFR Provisions: all VFR ops. Must comply with:

• Cert holder must identify __ and use airport __ data which ensures perf req’ts met
• __ conditions must allow sufficient vis to ID and avoid __, safely maneuver using __ references and maintain __ altitudes.

Answer 46

VFR Provisions: all VFR ops. Must comply with:

• Cert holder must identify obstacles and use airport obstacle data which ensures perf req’ts met
• Wx conditions must allow sufficient vis to ID and avoid obstacles, safely maneuver using external references and maintain minimum altitudes.

Question 47

C300. IAPs Substitutions (1 of 3). Cert holder is authorized to do NDB, NDB/DME, VOR, VOR/DME and TACAN IAPs using __ equipment with __ or __ as an active sensor when:

• NAVAID is ___ or not operational
• IAPs must be “line-selectable” by procedure name from current aircraft __ (obtained by supplier holding FAA Ltr of Acceptance)
• If the nav cycle will change during flight, must have procedures to ensure __.
• May not __ waypoints.

Answer 47

IAPs Substitutions. Cert holder is authorized to do NDB, NDB/DME, VOR, VOR/DME and TACAN IAPs using RNAV equipment with GPS or WAAS as an active sensor when:

• NAVAID is OTS or not operational
• IAPs must be “line-selectable” by procedure name from current aircraft database (obtained by supplier holding FAA Ltr of Acceptance)
• If the nav cycle will change during flight, must have procedures to ensure accuracy.
• May not modify waypoints.

Question 48

C300. IAP Substitutions (2 of 3)

• May need to coordinate w/ __ for clearance using procedure w/substitution.
• Nav system accuracy: = __ nm for initial/intermediate segments; __ nm for Final Appch segments and __ nm for MA segments. May be met by setting minimum RNP of __ prior to approach.
• Maintain procedure centerlines (XTK) w/in 1/2 of nav accuracy for segment (I.e. __nm initial, __nm FAS, __nm MAS)

Answer 48

IAP Substitutions (continued)

• May need to coordinate w/ ATC for clearance using procedure w/substitution.
• Nav system accuracy: = 1.0 nm for initial/intermediate segments; 0.3 nm for Final Appch segments and 1.0 nm for MA segments. May be met by setting minimum RNP of 0.3 prior to approach.
• Maintain procedure centerlines (XTK) w/in 1/2 of nav accuracy for segment (I.e. 0.5 nm initial, 0.15 nm FAS, 0.5 nm MAS)

Question 49

C300. IAP Substitutions (3 of 3)

• Execute __ if nav accuracy/XTK exceeded unless able to remain __ and proceed using __ references.
• RNAV subs allowed for planning at __ airport, including airports with an __ NAVAID (treated as OTS). Subs. approach must be considered GPS-based and must perform ___ prediction during planning.
• Pilots must be __ prior to executing these provisions.

Answer 49

IAP Substitutions (continued)

• Execute MA if nav accuracy/XTK exceeded unless able to remain VMC and proceed using visual references.
• RNAV subs allowed for planning at alternate airport, including airports with an unmonitored NAVAID (treated as OTS). Subs. approach must be considered GPS-based and must perform RAIM prediction during planning.
• Pilots must be trained prior to executing these provisions.

Question 50

D95. MEL: For Cat A time intervals specified in calendar or flight days and all other Cats (B, C, D), the day the malfunction was recorded is __. (Cat A intervals of flights, flight legs, cycles, hours, etc., tracking begins at the point when the item is deferred).

Answer 50

MEL: For Cat A time intervals specified in calendar or flight days and all other Cats (B, C, D), the day the malfunction was recorded is EXCLUDED (Cat A intervals of flights, flight legs, cycles, hours, etc., tracking begins at the point when the item is deferred).

Question 51

D103. The engine __ __ program is a requirement to carry pax IFR in a single engine aircraft.
Additional MX requirements also exist for engines (D101), emergency equipment (D104), and weight and balance (E96)

Answer 51

The engine trend monitoring program is a requirement to carry pax IFR in a single engine aircraft.
Additional MX requirements also exist for engines (D101), emergency equipment (D104), and weight and balance (E96)

Question 52

C77. We may cancel IFR and op VFR in terminal if:
- Vis (pilot observation counts) no less than __ miles; ceiling no less than __’
- Must maintain __ __ for type of airspace
- One of:
— Controlled Airports: operate w/in class __, __, or __ or w/in __ miles of dest airport in Class _; and remains w/in controlled airspace. Direct comms when able.
— Uncontrolled Airports: direct comm with air/grnd facility or agent who provides __ __ and info pertinent to landing surface; and operate w/in __ nm of airport.

Answer 52

We may cancel IFR and op VFR in terminal if:
- Vis (pilot observation counts) no less than 2 miles; ceiling no less than 1000’
- Must maintain cloud clearances for type of airspace
- One of:
— Controlled Airports: operate w/in class B, C or D or w/in 10 miles of dest airport in Class E; and remains w/in controlled airspace. Direct comms when able.
— Uncontrolled Airports: direct comm with air/grnd facility or agent who provides traffic advisories and info pertinent to landing surface; and operate w/in 10 nm of airport.

Question 53

C51. Terminal Instrument Procedures. If authorized foreign airports, IAPs must be approved by the gov’t of an __ contracting state, constructed IAW US __, ICAO Doc 8168-OPS, PANS-OPS, Military Instrm Procedures Standardization, or other criteria approved by HQ Flt Tech and Procedures Division.

Answer 53

Terminal Instrument Procedures. If authorized foreign airports, IAPs must be approved by the gov’t of an ICAO contracting state, constructed IAW US TERPS, ICAO Doc 8168 OPS, PANS-OPS, Military Instrm Procedures Standardization, or other criteria approved by HQ Flt Tech and Procedures Division.