Ops Flashcards

1
Q

Structure of EU Ops regulation

A

EU216/2008 then EU 965/2012 (which includes the Annexes)

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2
Q

Dangerous Goods mnemonic

A
Engineers  - 1. Explosives
Get  - 2. Gasses
Flaming  - 3. Flammable Liquids
Fat  - 4. Flammable Solids
On  - 5. Oxides and Peroxides
Taking  - 6. Toxic / Infectious
Rear  - 7. Radioactive
Crew  - 8. Corrosive
Meals  - 9. Misc
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3
Q

Circling Approach Minima (MDH/Vis) - Cat C

A

600ft MDH / 2400m Met Vis

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4
Q

Circling Approach Minima (MDH/Vis) - Cat B

A

500ft MDH / 1600m Met Vis

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5
Q

Circling Approach Minima (MDH/Vis) - Cat A

A

400ft MDH / 1500m Met Vis

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6
Q

Circling Approach Minima (MDH/Vis) - Cat D

A

700ft MDH / 3600m Met Vis

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7
Q

Aircraft Categories based on?

A

Threshold speed VAT or VREF

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8
Q

Cat A Speed

A

Less than 91KT

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9
Q

Cat B Speed

A

91KT - 120KT

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10
Q

Cat C Speed

A

121KT - 141KT

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11
Q

Cat D Speed

A

141KT - 165KT

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12
Q

Cat E Speed

A

166KT - 210KT

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13
Q

Take-Off Alternate distance based on OEI cruise

A

2 Engine - 1Hr (or ETOPS Diversion time max 2hrs)

3+ Engines - 2Hrs

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14
Q

MNPS Longitudinal separation (same track and Mach no)

A

10 mins

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15
Q

ACAS II required when (MCTOM and MOPSC)

A

MCTOM > 5700kg MOPSC >19

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16
Q

Cockpit Voice Recorder - Stores for ___

A

2 Hours (CoA after 1 Apr 98 or 30mins) unless MCTOM less than 5700kg then 30 mins (CoA after 1 Jan 1990)

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17
Q

Primary objective of Contracting States in regards to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference is the safety of?

A

People (PAX/Crew/Ground Personnel/Public)

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18
Q

Three sister routes?

A

T9,T213,T16

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19
Q

Senior Cabin Crew min experience and age

A

One Year experience with senior cabin crew training and must be 18 years old+

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20
Q

What NAT routes are accessible with 1 LRNS

A

T9 and Blue Spruce routes

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21
Q

Lift-rafts required when?

A

Over water away from land - with a distance greater than…

Capable of reaching aerodrome with OEI Cruise (lesser):

1) More than 120mins from land
2) Or 400nm

All other aircraft:

1) 30 mins at cruising speed
2) 100nm.

Capacity for all persons on board (+ ability for one lost raft)

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22
Q

CAT IIIB Approach DH and RVR

A

DH lower than 100ft or no DH

RVR lower than 200m not less than 75m

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23
Q

Flight Data Monitoring required for MCTOM above

A

27000kg

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24
Q

Pure O2 above what altitude on oxygen diluter demand system

A

32000ft

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25
Q

AOC Ops Manual Parts

A

Part A - General - Non-Type-related Ops
Part B - Aircraft - Typre-related / MEL
Part C - CAT Ops - Route/Role/Area - Aerodrome/etc
Part D - Training

Some procedures may cross two - E.g. M&B Part A+B

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26
Q

No ETOPS max distance from aerodrome - MOPSC of 20 or more, MTOM 45360kg or more

A

60 mins in OEI cruise

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27
Q

CAT II/III approaches need ___ altimeter and ___ pilots

A

Radio Altimeter and 2 Pilots

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28
Q

Lowest MDH for NDB

A

350ft

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29
Q

When must a crew interphone be fitted? Certified after 1 Apr 1995

A

MCTOM 15000kg or more

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30
Q

Quick Donning Oxygen Masks required above FL___

A

FL250

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31
Q

MNPS NATS airspace from __N to ___N

A

27N to 90N

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32
Q

CAT II Minimas (DH plus RVR)

A

DH below 200ft but not lower than 100ft

RVR not less than 300m

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33
Q

Lifejackets required when ….

A

Operating for more than 50nm from shore, taking off or landing at aerodrome where path is over water. For each person onboard

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34
Q

Final reserve fuel

A

Piston - 45 mins

Turbine - 30mins at holding speed at 1500ft above a/d

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35
Q

First Aid Oxygen

A

Above 25,000ft - with cabin crew. 2% of PAX carried, never less than 1

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36
Q

HEAVY MTOM

A

136000kg or more

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37
Q

MEDIUM MTOM

A

7000kg < 136000kg

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38
Q

LIGHT MTOM

A

Less than 7000kg

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39
Q

Spare fuses required?

A

10% of number of fuses - minimum of 3 of each rating

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40
Q

Ice/snow/contaminant will have what % impact on lift/drag

A

30% lift decrease, and 40% drag increase (depending on the contaminant

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41
Q

Class B fire involves ….

A

Liquid or liquefiable solid

42
Q

ICAO Annex for Dangerous Goods

A

Annex 18

43
Q

De-icing fluid and Anti-icing fluid temperatures?

A

De-icing hot/under pressure, anti-icing without heat

44
Q

Icing possible with any visible moisture and OAT below ___C

A

+10C

45
Q

Changes to MMEL implemented in MEL within __ days

A

90 days

46
Q

Additional fuel - Isolated Aerodrome?

A

Turbine - 2hours at normal cruise, not less than final reserve

Piston - 45 minutes plus 15% of flight time at cruising level or 2 hours whichever is less

47
Q

MNPS airspace is between FL___ and FL___

A

FL285 and FL420

48
Q

Info to be kept on ground during flight

A
Op flight Plan
Copy of relevant parts of tech log
Route specific NOTAM  (if edited by operator)
M&amp;B docs
Special loads notification
49
Q

When must slides exist?

A

Sill height above 6ft (1.83m)

50
Q

NAT Reporting in longitudes

A

20deg. 000W 020W 040W 060W

51
Q

Class A fire involves

A

Solid materials, organic

52
Q

Class C fire involves

A

Gases

53
Q

Class D fire involves

A

Metals

54
Q

ETOPS Alternative minimas Ceiling/RVR - Precision

A

Authorised DH plus 200ft
Authorised Vis plus 800m

Between anticipated landing and +1hr

55
Q

ETOPS Alternative minimas Ceiling/RVR - NPA

A

Authorised DH plus 400ft
Authorised Vis plus 1500m

Between anticipated landing and +1hr

56
Q

Dangerous Goods Accident/Incident reported within

A

72 hours

57
Q

Max duty hours in 7 days

A

60

58
Q

Max duty hours in 14 days

A

110

59
Q

Max duty hours in 28 days

A

190

60
Q

Non-ETOPS Time from Aerodrome - Class A MOPSC 19 or less, MTOM less than 45360kg

A

120min, up to 180mins for turbo-jet at OEI cruise speed

Biz Jets

61
Q

Non-ETOPS time from Aerodrome - Class B/C

A

120mins at OEI Cruise, or 300nm whichever is less

62
Q

Weather radar required when at night/IMC with what aircraft?

A

Pressurised, Unpressurised with MCTOM of 5700kg or more, or unpressurised with MAPSC of more than 9 seats

63
Q

ICAO docs for dangerous goods

A

ICAO Annex 18

ICAO Doc 9284

64
Q

Min Rest Period - Home Base

A

12hrs or long as preceding duty

65
Q

Min Rest Period - Away from base

A

10hrs or long as preceding duty

66
Q

FDR Min recording period

A

MCTOM more than 5700kg (CoA after 1 June 90) - 25 hours

67
Q

Cabin crew required for ___ MOPSC

A

MOPSC more than 19, 1 for every 50 Seats

68
Q

Cabin Altitude warning at …..

A

10,000ft

69
Q

SNOWTAM Valid for

A

24 hours

70
Q

Supplementary O2 masks deployed automatically by _____ft cabin altitude

A

15000ft

71
Q

Max altitude where flight crew efficiency not impaired

A

8000ft

72
Q

Remote area - max distance from the area of emergency landing with no additional survival equipment

A

90 mins

73
Q

Dangerous Goods “Accident” is

A

Fatal or serious injury to a person or major property damage

74
Q

Max tailwind for Noise Abatement Procedure

A

5kt

75
Q

Crew Records - Flight Duty Records kept for

A

24 month

76
Q

Crew Records - Recent Experience Records kept for

A

15 month

77
Q

NDB System Minima

A

350ft

78
Q

VOR System Minima

A

300ft

79
Q

LOC System Minima

A

250ft

80
Q

GNSS Minima LNAV/VNAV

A

250ft

81
Q

VOR/DME System Minima

A

250ft

82
Q

NDB/DME System Minima

A

300ft

83
Q

VDR System Minima

A

350ft

84
Q

Minimum RVR for Visual Approach

A

800m

85
Q

Destination / En-Route / Isolated Alternate Minima for NPA

A

VIS/RVR: +1000m , MDH +200ft

86
Q

Destination / En-Route / Isolated Alternate Minima for CATI

A

NPA VIS/RVR - >= MDH

87
Q

SLOP Offsets

A

Centre, 1nm and 2nm (right)

88
Q

Flight Plan field for MNPS / RVSM

A

Field 10 - X: MNPS, W: RVSM

89
Q

What is needed when requesting Oceanic Clearance?

A
ETA at Waypoint
Mach No
FL
Max FL
Second Choice Track
90
Q

List LVOs

A

CATII
CATIII
LTS CATI
Vis less than 400m

91
Q

TUC at 35000

A

30 secs

92
Q

TUC at 40000

A

15 secs

93
Q

TUC at 45000

A

9 secs

94
Q

WOCL

A

02:00 - 05:59

95
Q

OTS Time East

A

01:00 - 08:00 UTC

96
Q

OTS Time West

A

11:30 - 18:00 UTC

97
Q

GOTA

A

FL290 - FL600

98
Q

In Oceanic Airspace - Difference in speed to reported

A

+/- 10Kts 0.02M

99
Q

Emergency Medical Kit required

A

60mins flying from A/D with medical assistance - more than 30 seats

100
Q

2 Pilots required on Turbo-prop IFR/Night when Seating Config over ___

A

9