Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATPL 2019 > Airlaw > Flashcards

Airlaw Flashcards

1
Q

ICAO formed when and where?

A

1947 at Chicago Convention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How regularly is the ICAO council elected?

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max Holding speed up to FL140

A

Max 230KT IAS for Cat C/D Aircraft and 170KT for Cat A/B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Altitude reporting when crossing the transition layer

A

Descent - Altitude (QNH)

Climb - FL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hi-Jacked Aircraft should be parked at what distance from anything else?

A

No less than 100m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maximum VFR FL

A

FL200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Turn at end of outbound leg (time) above 14,000ft

A

1.5min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Turn at end of outbound leg (time) below 14,000ft

A

1min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Transition Level calculated by

A

ATS units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Transition altitude is rounded __ to next ____ft

A

up to next 1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An EAT is transmitted when aircraft will be subject to delay of _______ or enter a holder for __ minutes or more

A

delay of 10 minutes or more

30 minutes or more in hold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Movement area includes

A

aprons, taxiways and runways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Manoevuring area includes

A

Parts used for take-off, landing and taxiing (excludes aprons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Changes to AIP are circulated using…

A

AIRAC system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Non-scheduled ECAC flights carried out under what Agreement

A

Paris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Buffer area for holding area

A

5nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Total Time on Flight Plan is

A

VFR: take-off to overhead destination

IFR: take-off to instrument approach procedure fix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Distance to be established on LOC before Glideslope interception?

A

2NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

High Intesity Obstacle lights used when structure taller than ___

A

150m AGL

Flashing white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Medium Intesity Obstacle lights used when structure taller than ___

A

45m AGL

Flashing red or white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Class A Airspace

A

IFR Only
ATC Provided to all
Seperation between all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Class B Airspace

A

IFR and VFR
ATC Provided to all
Seperation between all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Class C Airspace

A

IFR and VFR
ATC Provided to all
IFR Seperation from IFR and VFR
Traffic Info provided for VFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Class D Airspace

A

IFR and VFR
ATC Provided to all
Seperation IFR from IFR
Traffic Info for VFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Class E Airspace

A

IFR and VFR
ATC IFR only
Seperation IFR from IFR
Traffic Info only (if practical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Class F Airspace

A

Uncontrolled
IFR and VFR
Seperation for Participating IFR only
FIS Provided (Advisory for IFR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Class G Airspace

A

Uncontrolled
IFR and VFR
Seperation for Particaption IFR Only
FIS Only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When would ATC consider obstacle clearance?

A

Radar Vectored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Annex 1

A

Personnel Licensing (Me First)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Annex 2

A

Rules of the Air (2 Aircraft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Annex 3

A

Met (3-Zing!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Annex 7

A

Registration Marks (VU09 BUP - Count)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Annex 8

A

Airworthiness (8n’t flying)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Annex 9

A

Facilitation (Nein, no entry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Annex 11

A

ATS (1-to-1 comms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Annex 12

A

Search and Rescue (RAF Home Time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Annex 14

A

Aerodromes (1-4 Everyone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Annex 15

A

AIS (A 1 5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Annex 17

A

Security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Annex 18

A

Dangerous Goods (Drink)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

AIRMET

A

Low Level up to FL100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

SIGMET

A

Medium and Upper Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tokyo 1963

A

Penal Law (Tokyo have little penis!)

Criminal law, hijack / unlawful act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The Hague 1970

A

Hijack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Montreal Convetnion 1971

A

Air Rage (Hockey stick in Canada)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Beijing 2010

A

Criminalisation of use of aircraft as weapons, threats to commit an offence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Warsaw 1929 / Montreal Protocol 1975+Convention 1999

A

Regulates liability of air carrier to PAX and consignors - updated by Montreal redifining liabilies (some cases unlimited)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

1st Freedom

A

Fly over territory of other signatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

2nd Freedom

A

Land for tech reason in another signatories territory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

3rd Freedom

A

PAX/Cargo from Home to Other state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

4th Freedom

A

PAX/Cargo back from Other state to Home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

5th Freedom

A

PAX/Cargo from Home to other state to yet another state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cabotage - 8th freedom

A

Tag on Cabotage - Home to two points in Other state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cabotage - 9th Freedom

A

Entirely in other state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Nav lights visible

A

110deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

White rear light visible

A

140deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hold entries

A

110 POD
Parallel 110deg
Offset 70deg
Direct 180deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Comms Failure in VMC

A

IF able to maintain VMC land at nearest suitable Aerodrome and contact ATC

59
Q

Comms failure - IMC no Radar

A

Cleared speed and level for 20 mins, continue per plan and hold until EAT/ETA - Land within 30 mins of ETA/EAT

60
Q

Comms failure - IMC Radar

A

Last speed/Level or MSA for 7 mins. Return to plan

61
Q

Comms failture - Radar Vectored

A

Rejoin flight plan directly

62
Q

CPL Cross Country time

A

20 hrs as PIC with one 300nm flight

63
Q

Holding position based on distance from runway edge

A

50m runway length 900m or more

30m less than 900m

64
Q

Direction sign

A

Black on Yellow

65
Q

Location sign

A

Yellow on Black

66
Q

VFR Minima Above 10,000ft

A

Vis 8km, 1500m horz and 1000ft vert clear of cloud

67
Q

VFR Minima Below 10,000ft but above 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL

A

Vis 5km, 1500m horz and 1000ft vert clear of cloud

68
Q

VFR Minima Below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL

A

Class B-E: 5km, 1500m horz and 1000ft vert of cloud

Class F-G: 5km, Clear of cloud and in sight of surface

69
Q

Min VFR Take-off within Control Zone

A

Ceiling 1500ft and Vis 5km

70
Q

Clearway min width

A

75m each side of centreline

71
Q

Ceiling is

A

Cloud base below 20000ft covering more than 50% of sky

72
Q

Altimeter Accuracy

A

+/- 80ft on QNH

73
Q

No Transgression Zone - Parallel Runways

A

At least 2000ft / 610m

74
Q

Independent Paralle Departure track needs what radar and track diverges by

A

Radar within 1nm of end of runway, and diverages by at least 15deg

75
Q

Simultaneous parallels approaches - distance straight and level before intecepting LOC

A

1nm

76
Q

Simultaneous parallels approaches - Max intercept angle

A

30deg

77
Q

Simultaneous parallels approaches - Established on LOC __nm before GS

A

2nm or more

78
Q

Simultaneous parallels approaches - radar seperation before establishment

A

3NM or 1000ft vertical

79
Q

MEDIUM Wake Turbulence category from __ to __

A

7,000kg to 136,000kg

80
Q

Composite Seperation

A

Combining Vertical wit Horizontal seperation - Can’t be less than 1/2 of normal

81
Q

Landing longitudinal seperation

A

3mins not less than 20NM if radar

82
Q

Position Reports - Info included

A 
Aircraft ID
Position
Time
Speed limitations
Flight level/alt
Next position and time over
Next significant point
83
Q

With Mode C when has an aircraft vacated a level

A

Change of more than 300ft

84
Q

Longitudinal Seperation during altitude changes

A

Where vertical separation doesn’t exist:

15 mins

10 mins with navaid positioning

5 mins providing change commenced within 10 mins of time that second ac over exact reporting point

85
Q

Lateral Separation - VOR

A

15deg and 15NM from beacon

86
Q

Lateral Separation - NDB

A

30deg and 15NM from beacon

87
Q

Lateral Separation - DR

A

45deg and 15NM from ref point

88
Q

Lateral Separation - RNAV

A

Track diverging 15deg or more

89
Q

DME/GNSS Separation - Same track

A

20NM (using on-track DME, or GNSS cross checked with DME) - reduced to 10NM if lead has TAS+20KT

Applies on covnerging tracks with angles less than 90deg too

90
Q

DME/GNSS Separation - Climb or Descent - Same Track

A

10NM where no vertical separation exists

91
Q

Longitudinal Separation - Same Track and Level

A

15 mins - normal
10 mins - if navaids - frequent fixing
5 mins - Front aircraft TAS+20KT
3 mins - Front aircraft TAS+40KT

92
Q

Longitudinal Separation - Mach No

A

10 mins

Deduct 1mins for +M0.02 then 1min for +0.01 until 5 mmins

93
Q

Longitudinal Separation - Europe varation on ICAO standard

A

3 mins providing radar, and radar separation is never less than 20NM

94
Q

Radar Separation - Standard

A

5NM

95
Q

Radar Separation - Good Radar

A

3NM

96
Q

Radar Separation - On Approach

A

2.5NM min

97
Q

RNP 10 Separation

A

50NM Longitudinal/laterally

98
Q

RNP 4 Separation

A

30NM Longitudinal/laterally

99
Q

Default RNAV Separation

A

80NM miin longitudinal

100
Q

Take-off separation

A

1 min where departing aircraft turns more than 45deg from other

2 mins where lead aircraft 40KT faster

5 mins otherwise / same track

101
Q

Protected landing area from take-off aircraft

A

45deg each side of landing runway

102
Q

Expected Approach Time

A

Provided if holding 30mins+ expected, updated if changes by more than 5 mins.

To be determined if aircraft delayed for 10 mins or more

103
Q

Aircraft to be informed of variation in winds on approach exceeding…

A

Headwind 10KT
Tailwind 2KT
Crosswind 5KT

104
Q

IF AIS isn’t 24 hours - when should it be provided

A

2hrs before and after an aircraft in area

105
Q

Radio Altimeter operating area extends ___m

A

300m

106
Q

Min height for departure turn

A

120m (with 90m OC)

107
Q

Control Area CTA/TMA Min Height

A

700ft AGL

108
Q

Holding Speed - FL140-200

A

240KT

109
Q

Holding Speed FL200-340

A

265KT

110
Q

Holding Speed above FL340

A

M0.83

111
Q

Radar fix accuracy TAR (Terminal)

A

1.5km / 0.8nm

112
Q

Radar fix accuracy ASR/RSR (En-Route)

A

3.1km / 1.7nm

113
Q

RNP Y Indicator

A

FL200 above 30-90deg turns within radius of 22.5NM

114
Q

RNP Z Indicator

A

Below FL190 30-90deg radius of 15NM

115
Q

Met info in AIP

A

GEN section

116
Q

Simple Approach Lighting should extend by

A

420m

117
Q

IR Requirements

A

CPL/PPL+Night + 50Hrs PIC Cross-Country at least 10hrs of this on type

118
Q

Deviation in speed to inform ATC?

A

5%, or 2 mins (SERA)

M0.02 or 10Kt for Annex 2

119
Q

FAP

A

Where glideslode intercepts Intermediate height on precision approach. Start of Final Segment

120
Q

FAF

A

Physical point, usually non-precision. Start of Final Segment

121
Q

FAP/FAF max distance

A

10nm

122
Q

FAF optimal distance

A

5nm

123
Q

Non-precision MOC with and without FAF

A

90m without FAF

75m with FAF

124
Q

Aiming point 1200m - 2400m length runway

A

300m from threshold

125
Q

Runway strip length - Instrument 1,2,3,4

A

60m (otherwise 30m for code 1 non-inst)

126
Q

Taxiway Width Code A

A

7.5m

127
Q

Taxiway Width Code B

A

10.5m

128
Q

Taxiway Width Code C

A

15m (wheelbase less than 18m)

18m (wheelbase is more than 18m)

129
Q

Taxiway Width Code D

A

18m (main gear span <9m)

23m (main hear span >9m)

130
Q

Taxiway Width Code E

A

23m

131
Q

Tolerance for Mode C Altitude (RVSM and Standard)

A

+/- 200ft RVSM and +/- 300ft Non-RVSM

132
Q

Missed Approach MOC

A

50m

133
Q

2 mins separation for runways separated less than

A

760m

134
Q

IR - Cross-country PIC of ___ hours of which ___ hours on type

A

50hours and 10hours

135
Q

Position Report details

A
  1. aircraft identification
  2. position
  3. time
  4. flight level or altutude (initial call and ommitted if Mode C)

Some regions don’t use these:

  1. next position and estimated time overhead
  2. the ensuing position
136
Q

Radar controlled approach - go around at __nm if noo clearance

A

2nm

137
Q

Danger area numbers can’t be reused until after ___ months following cancellation of area

A

12 months

138
Q

Straight in approach - when can’t aircraft depart in any direction

A

within 5 mins

139
Q

Air Navigation Commission has __ members appointed by ICAO _____

A

19, council

140
Q

Section at end of runway edge lighting maybe yellow - how long can this be?

A

600m or 1/3 (shorter)

141
Q

Minimum clearway width either side of centreline

A

75m

142
Q

ADA means?

A

Advisory Area

143
Q

What does the MOC reduce from > to in the intermediate segment

A

300m to 150m

ATPL 2019 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions