Opportunistic Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What are opportunistic infections?

A

infections more frequent or more severe because of HIV mediated immunosuppression
HIV gets in cells –> destruction –> decreased CD4 –> immunosuppressed

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2
Q

What are normal CD4 counts in adults?

A

800-1200 cells/mm^3

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3
Q

What CD4 counts are associated with the development of OIs?

A

counts <500 cells/mm^3 and especially <200 cells/mm^3

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4
Q

What infection can occur at any CD4 cell count?

A

mycobacterium TB, pneumonias, and dermatomal varicella zoster

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5
Q

What infections occur at CD4 count < 500 cells/mm^3?

A

candidiasis and leukoplakia

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6
Q

What infections occur at CD4 count < 200 cells/mm^3?

A

PJP, CMV retinitis, toxoplasmosis, MAC, crytoococcus meningitis or diarrhea, lymphomas, and Kaposi’s sarcoma

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7
Q

What can increase HIV viral load?

A

tuberculosis and syphilis can increase HIV viral load, increasing the risk of viral transmission and progression

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8
Q

What is primary prophylaxis for OIs?

A

administration of an anti-infective agent to prevent the 1st epidose of a particular OI in a pt living with HIV when they are at risk for developing that OI based on their CD4 count

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9
Q

What is secondary prophylaxis for OIs?

A

chronic maintenance or chronic suppressive therapy: administration of an anti-infective therapy to prevent further recurrences of a particular OI in a pt living with HIV after they have been successfully treated for that OI and remain at risk for developing that OI based on their CD4 cell count

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10
Q

When to initiate ART DURING an acute OI?

A

when effective therapy is not available: progressive mutifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), cryptosporidiosis, and Kaposi’s sarcoma
improvement in immune function from ART will help with the resolution of these OIs

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11
Q

When to NOT immediately start ART in the setting of an acute OI?

A

potential development of the immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)
overlapping or additive drug toxicities
drug interactions between ART and OI therapy

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12
Q

What is immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)?

A

characterized by fever, inflammation, and worsening clinical manifestations of the OI
can be seen during the actue treatment of MAC, TB, PJP, toxoplasmosis, Hep B & C, CMV, cryptococcus, histoplasmosis, and varicella zoster infections

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13
Q

Who is IRIS more likely to occur in?

A

patients with low CD4 cell counts (<50 cells/mm^3) and high HIV RNA levels (>100,000 copies/mL)
occurs within first 4-8 hours of ART

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14
Q

How long to wait for a clinical response to OI therapy before starting ART if IRIS present?

A

wait 2 weeks before initiating ART
exception: start ART within 2 weeks of starting TB treatment if CD4 count <50 cells/mm^3 or within 8 weeks if CD4 count is higher

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15
Q

What is the treatment for IRIS?

A

treat the OI
mild: use NSAIDs for fever and pain; inhaled corticosteroids for broncospasms
severe: prednisone 1-2 mg/kg for 1-2wks

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16
Q

Who to avoid steroids in?

A

cryptococcal meningitis or Kaposi’s sarcoma due to worse outcomes

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17
Q

What are the most common OIs observed in patients with HIV infection?

A

oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush) and esophageal candidiasis
majority of these infections caused by candida albicans

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18
Q

Infections with candida species are most common when CD4 is what?

A

CD4 cell count is < 200 cells/mm^3
esophageal candidiasis typically occurs at lower CD4 counts

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19
Q

What are the infections due to candida species?

A

oropharyngeal candidiasis, esophageal candidiasis, and vulvovaginal candidiasis

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20
Q

What is the diagnosis of oropharyngeal candidiasis?

A

clinical exam -
painless, creamy white plaque-like lesions on buccal mucosa, hard or soft palate, oropharyngeal mucosa or tongue surface; dry mouth and taste alterations

21
Q

What is the preferred treatment for oropharyngeal candidiasis?

A

preferred: fluconazole 200 mg loading dose, followed by 100-200 mg PO daily for 7-14 days
as effective/superior to topical therapy

22
Q

What are SEs of oral azoles?

A

N/V/D, abdominal pain, increased LFTs
monitor LFTs and QTc if treatment > 21 days

23
Q

What is alternative treatment for oropharyngeal candidiasis?

A

topical agents for initial, mild-moderate episodes only
advantages: reduces systemic drug exposure, diminishes risk of drug-drug interactions and SEs, and decreases risk of resistance
disadvantages: use impacted by bad taste, GI SEs, and multiple daily dosing

24
Q

What are the topical agents used in the treatment of oropharyngeal candidiasis?

A

nystatin suspension (100,000 units/mL): 5 mL swish and swallow QID x 7-14 days - should be thoroughly rinsed in mouth and retained in mouth for as long as possible before swallowing
clotrimazole troches (10 mg lozenge): 10 mg oral lozenge 5 times daily for 7-14 days - should be dissolved slowly in the mouth over 15-30 min

25
What is the diagnosis for esophageal candidiasis?
often empiric based on symptoms: fever, retrosternal burning pain, dysphagia, odynophagia endoscopic examination to reveal whitish plaques with superficial ulceration
26
What is the treatment for esophageal candidiasis?
use systemic agents, as topical therapy is NOT effective!! preferred: fluconazole 200 mg loading dose followed by 100-200 mg (up to 400mg ) IV or PO daily for 14-21 days
27
What is the diagnosis of vuvlovaginal candidiasis?
based on clinical presentation: white, thick vaginal discharge, vaginal itching, vaginal burning, and vulvar erythema
28
What is the treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis - uncomplicated disease?
fluconazole 150 mg PO x 1 dose topical azoles (clotrimazole, butoconazole, miconazole, tioconazole, or terconazole) for 3-7 days ibrexafungerp 300 mg PO BID x 1 day
29
What is the treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis - severe disease?
fluconazole 100-200 mg PO daily or topical antifungals for >/=7 days or topical azoles for >/=7 days
30
What is the treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis - azole-refractory C/ glabrata vaginitis?
boric acid 600 mg vaginal suppository once daily for 14 days
31
What is the treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis - recurrent disease?
osteseconazole 600 mg PO on day 1, 450 mg on day 2, followed by once weekly 150 mg starting at day 14 for 11 weeks fluconazole 150 mg PO every 72 hours x 3 doses, followed by ibrexafungerp 300 mg PO BID on 1 day per month for 6 mnths fluconazole 150 mg PO day 1, 4, and 7 followed by oteseconazole 150 mg PO daily at days 14-20 then osteseconazole 150 mg once weekly starting at day 28 for 11 weeks
32
What drugs can increase the risk of QTc prolongation?
fluconazole, itraconazole, posaconazole, and voriconazole
33
What drugs are contraindicated in pregant and lactating individuals, as well as females of reproductive potential?
osteseconazole - due to fetal malformations including ocular toxicity ibrexafungerp
34
What is the use of prophylaxis in vulvovaginal, oropharyngeal, and esophageal candidiasis?
routine primary prophylaxis and chronic suppressive therapy to prevent recurrent infection (secondary prophylaxis) NOT recommended daily prophylaxis should only be considered for patients with frequent or severe recurrences of esophagitis or vaginitis
35
What is the recommended prophylaxis therapy in oropharyngeal canidiasis and candida esophagitis or vaginitis?
primary prophylaxis: not recommended secondary prophylaxis if patient has frequent/severe recurrences: DOC = fluconazole 100 or 200 mg PO daily alternative: posaconazole suspension 400 mg PO BID
36
What are infections due to cryptococcus neoformans?
cryptococcal meningitis
37
What is the presentation of cryptococcal meningitis?
usually subsacute (chronic) meningitis with symptoms present for weeks or months: classic s/s are neck stiffness and photophobia; fever, malaise, headache, nausea, dizziness, lethargy, irritability, impaired memory, and behavioral changes
38
What is the diagnosis for cryptococcal meningitis?
CSF analysis - increased ICP, elevated protein and low-to-normal glucose, few WBCs with lymphocytic predominance, increased cryptococcoal antigen titer in CSF and serum, india ink stain positive for encapsulated yeast forms, biofire PCR/CSF culture positive for C. neoformans
39
What is the treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?
initiation of ART should be delayed until induction (first 2 weeks) and possibly the total induction/consolidation phases (10-12 weeks) to avoid IRIS 3 phases: induction, consolidation, and maintenance
40
What is the preferred induction treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?
2 weeks followed by consolidation: liposomal amphotericin B 3-4mg/kg IV once daily + flucytosine 25 mg/kg PO QID for 2 weeks
41
What is the preferred consolidation treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?
>/=8 weeks followed by maintenance: fluconazole 800 mg PO daily (400 mg PO daily in stable pts with sterile CSF culture and on ART)
42
What is the preferred maintenance treatment in cryptococcal meningitis?
fluconazole 200 mg PO daily for 1 year or longer
43
What are the adverse effects of amphotericin?
nephrotoxicity, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and infusion related reactions monitor: SCr, BUN, K, Mg several times weekly
44
What are the adverse effects of flucytosine?
decreased WBC or platelets; obtain CBC 1-2x/week dose adjust in renal dysfunction
45
What are the adverse effects of azoles?
GI upset, hepatoxicity (monitor LFTs)
46
What is the use of prophylaxis in cryptococcal meningitis?
routine primary prophylaxis NOT recommended secondary prophylaxis is required after induction/consolidation therapy; continue oral fluconazole for at least one year
47
When can secondary prophylaxis be discontinued in cryptococcal meningitis?
if patient has completed one year, is asymptomatic, and has CD4 count >/=100 cell/mm^3 for 3 mo on ART with a supressed viral load restart if CD4 count <100 cells/mm^3
48
What is the recommended therapy for prophylaxis in cryptococcal meningitis?
primary prophylaxis: not recommended secondary prophylaxis: required after comlpetion fo therapy: DOC = fluconazole 200mg PO daily for at least 12mo