Infections in Immunocompromised Patients Flashcards

1
Q

What is an immunocompromised host?

A

patient with intrinsic or acquired defects in host immune defenses that predispose to development of infectious complications

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for infection?

A

neutropenia, immune system defects, destruction of protective barriers, environmental contamination/alteration of microbial flora

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3
Q

What is neutropenia?

A

reduction in # of circulating neutrophils
absolute neutrophil count (ANC) less then 1000 cells/mm^3
severity, rate of decline, and duration of neutropenia affect mortality

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4
Q

What are immune system defects?

A

defects in cell-mediated immunity
defects in humoral immunity

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5
Q

What are destructions to protective barriers?

A

skin, mucous membranes, surgery

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6
Q

What are environmental contaminations/alterations of microbial flora?

A

transfer of organisms from patient to patient via health-care workers
contaminated equipment, water, and/or food
alteration of normal flora in hospital setting

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7
Q

What are risk factors for neutropenia?

A

high risk: ANC < 500 cells/mm^3
highest risk: ANC < 100 cells/mm^3
increased rapidity of decline = increased risk
increased duration = increased risk
highest risk with severe neutropenia >7-10 days

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8
Q

What are common pathogens associated with infections - bacteria?

A

s. aureus, s. epidermidis, streptococci, enterococcus spp., enterobacterales, P. aeruginosa

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9
Q

What are common pathogens associated with infections - fungi?

A

candida spp., aspergillus, zygomycetes (mucor, rhizopus)

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10
Q

What are common pathogens associated with infections - viruses?

A

herpes simplex virus
varicella zoster virus
cytomegalovirus

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11
Q

What is cell mediated immunity?

A

T-lymphocytes (cytotoxic, helper, memory cytotoxic T cells)
primary defense against INTRACELLULAR pathogens

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12
Q

What is humoral immunity?

A

B-lymphocytes (plasma cells, memory B cells)
primary defense against EXTRACELLULAR pathogens

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13
Q

What causes defects in T-lymphocytes and macrophage function?

A

underlying disease (hodgkin’s lymphoma) and immunosuppressive drugs –> reduced ability of host to defend against intracellular pathogens
pathogens: listeria, nocardia, legionella, mycobacteria, CMV, VZV, HSV, PJP, C. neoformans, candida, histoplasma capsulatum

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14
Q

What causes defects in B-lymphocyte function?

A

underlying disease (CLL, multiple myeloma, spleenectomy) and immunosuppressive drugs (steroids, chemo agents) –> reduced ability of host to defend against extracellular pathogens
pathogens: bacteria (encapsulated), S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, N. meningitidis

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15
Q

What causes destruction of the skin’s protective barrier?

A

venipuncture, lines/ports
common pathogens: bacteria - S. aureus, S. epidermidis, candida spp.

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16
Q

What causes destruction of mucous membranes protective barrier?

A

chemo, radiation
common pathogens: bacteria - S. aureus, S. epidermidis, streptococci, enterobacterales, P. aeruginosa, bacteroides spp; fungi - candida spp.; viruses - HSV

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17
Q

How does surgery cause destruction of protective barriers?

A

solid organ transplant patients
common pathogens: bacteria - S. aureus, S. epidermidis, enterobacterales, P. aeruginosa, bacteroides spp; fungi - candida spp.; viruses - HSV

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18
Q

What is environmental contamination?

A

gram negative bacteria and fungi from fruits/veggies
legionella from water contamination
contaminated medical equipment
colonize skin, oropharynx, GI tract

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19
Q

What is alteration of microbial flora?

A

oropharyngeal flora rapidly change to primarily gram-negative bacilli in hospitalized patients (within 1st 48 hours)
broad spectrum therapy has the greatest impact on normal flora
common pathogens: enterobacterales, P.aeruginosa, S. aureus, candida, aspergillus

20
Q

What is the epidemiology of infections in neutropenic cancer patients?

A

infection is leading cause of death in neutropenic cancer patients
profound neutropenia (ANC < 500 cells/mm^3) = greatest risk of infection
common site of infection: lungs, skin, sinus, oropharynx, GI tract
febrile episodes attributed to microbiologically documented infection in only 30-40% of cases
45-75% due to gram-positive cocci

21
Q

What is the etiology of bacterial infections?

A

staphylococci: MSSA, MRSA, CoNS
viridans streptococci: mucositis
enterobacterales: E. coli, klebsiella spp.
P. aeruginosa: high morbidity + mortality
other: enterococci spp., lactobacillus, stenotrophomonas maltophilia, burkholderia cepacia

22
Q

What is the etiology of invasive fungal infections?

A

prolonged neutropenia + broad-spectrum antibiotics and/or steroids = highest risk
candida albicans most common: disseminated infections - damaged mucous membranes –> colonized with candida –> enter bloodstream
aspergillus spp.: heme and HSCT patients - prolonged neutropenia; inhalation of airborne spores –> lung colonization –> invasion of lung parenchyma and pulmonary vessels –> hemorrhage/pulmonary infarcts –> mortality

23
Q

What is the etiology of viruses?

A

HSV most common; reactivation –> typically manifests as oral or genital infection

24
Q

What is the etiology of protozoa?

A

PJP - typically manifests as severe lung infection
toxoplasma gondii - lung, brain, and eye disease
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) prophylaxis has reduced the incidence of these infections

25
Q

What is the clinical presentation and diagnosis?

A

presence of fever is most important finding: single oral temp of >/=38.3 or oral temp >/= 38 persisting for 1 hour or longer
labs: blood cultures, CBC with differential, BMP/CMP
diagnostics: imaging, aspiration or biopsy

26
Q

What is the criteria for low risk febrile neutropenia?

A

neutropenia </= 7 days
clinically stable
no medical comorbidities
inpatient or outpatient, IV and/or PO

27
Q

What is the criteria for high risk febrile neutropenia?

A

ANC </=100 cells/mm^3 AND neutropenia >7 days
clinically unstable
medical comorbidities
HSCT
inpatient, IV therapy

28
Q

What is the empiric antimicrobial treatment regimen for low risk febrile neutropenia?

A

should include antipseudomonal coverage!
adequate outpatient infrastructure, candidate for oral regimen: oral FQ + amoxicillin clavulanate
inadequate outpatient infrastructure or not a candidate for oral regimen: inpatient IV antibiotics (monotherapy) - piperacillin/tazobactam, antipseudomonal carbapenam, cefepime, ceftazidime

29
Q

What is the empiric antimicrobial treatment regimen for high risk febrile neutropenia?

A

inpatient IV antibiotics (monotherapy) - piperacillin/tazobactam, antipseudomonal carbapenam, cefepime, ceftazidime
ADD IV vancomycin for cellulitis, pneumonia, severe sepsis or shock, gram-positive bacteremia, suspected IV catheter infection, known colonization with MRSA, or resistant streptococci
for septic shock, gram-negative bacteremia or pneumonia: ADD aminoglycoside or antipsuedomonal FQ

30
Q

What is the empiric antimicrobial regimen - beta-lactam monotherapy?

A

cefepime 2gm q8h
piperacillin/tazobactam 4.5gm q6h
ceftazidime 2gm q8h
imipenem 500mg q6h
meropenem 1gm q8h

31
Q

When do we start vancomycin for the management of febrile neutropenia?

A

NOT recommended as standard part of initial empiric regimen
indications for addition: hemodynamic instability/sepsis, pneumonia, blood culture growing gram-positive bacteria, line/port infection, SSTI, severe mucositis, colonization with resistant gram-positive bacteria

32
Q

What to do if patient has penicillin allergy?

A

avoid beta-lactams, including carbapenems, if h/o immediate type I hypersensitivity rxn (hives, anaphylaxis)
instead use: ciprofloxacin + aztreonam + vancomycin

33
Q

When would you initiate an oral antimicrobial regimen?

A

in low risk pts
options: ciprofloxacin + amoxicillin/clavulante; levofloxacin; ciprofloxacin + clindamycin
don’t use in pts already on FQ prophylaxis

34
Q

What is the targeted therapy for management of febrile neutropenia?

A

pathogen-directed therapy:
MRSA –> vancomycin
VRE –> daptomycin or linezolid
ESBL –> carbapenem
KPC –> meropenem/vaborbactam, imipenem/cilastatin/relebactam, ceftazidime/avibactam
NDM/IMP/VIM –> cefiderocol

35
Q

When to initiate antifungal therapy?

A

if high incidence of fungal infection at autopsy or pt with persistent fever/develop new fever with undocumented infection after 4-7 days of broad-spectrum antibiotics

36
Q

What are the treatment options for antifungal therapy?

A

amphotericin B deoxycholate or liposomal amphotericin B
azoles: fluconazole, voriconazole, posaconazole, isavuconazole
echinocandins: micafungin, caspofungin, anidulafungin
continue for 2 weeks in absence of s/sx of invasive fungal infection; often continued for duration of neutropenia

37
Q

When to initiate antiviral therapy?

A

vesicular/ulcerative skin or mucosal lesions (evaluate for HSV/VZV)
presumed or confirmed viral infection: initiate antivirals –> aid in healing lesions and preventing dissemination

38
Q

What are the treatment options for antiviral therapy?

A

HSV/ZVZ: acyclovir, valacyclovir
CMV: ganciclovir, valganciclovir

39
Q

What are the indications for catheter removal?

A

most commonly from S. aureus and S. epidermidis
when to remove: subcutaneous tunnel infection, failure to clear blood cultures after 72hrs of antimicrobial therapy, persistent fever, septic emboli, pathogens present - fungi, mycobacteria, P. aeruginosa, bacillus spp, C. jeikeium

40
Q

What is the most important determinant in patient outcomes?

A

resolution of neutropenia
patients with prolonged neutropenia and documented infection who are NOT responding to antimicrobial therapy may benefit from colony-stimulating factors: filgrastim and sargramostim
no overall benefit in mortality, but decreases duration/severity of neutropnia and antimicrobial therapy

41
Q

When to use prophylaxis?

A

moderate-high risk patients with expected ANC </= 100cells/mm^3 for >7 days; heme malignancies (AML, MM, lymphoma, CLL); allogeneic and autologous HSCT; GVHD with high-dose steroids; use of alemtuzumab

42
Q

Fluoroquinolone prophylaxis

A

ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin
decreases incidence of fever and gram-negative infections; may decrease risk of death
do NOT use FQ in empiric treatment regimen if on FQ prophylaxis

43
Q

What is antifungal prophylaxis?

A

when to use: allogeneic HSCT; intensive induction chemo for acute leukemia
azoles; echinocandins
AML, MDS, GVHD on high-dose steroids: posaconazole or isavuconazole

44
Q

What is antiviral prophylaxis?

A

when to use: HSV seropositive pts undergoing allogeneic HSCT or leukemia induction therapy
use acyclovir
annual inactivated flu vaccine for all pts
varicella vaccine

45
Q

When to use TMP/SMX prophylaxis?

A

allogeneic HSCT and GVHD on high-dose steroids
PJP pneumonia