Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Final Year Defintions > Ophthalmology > Flashcards

Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of lost red reflex

A

Paediatric - retinoblastoma

Adults - cataracts, retinal detachment, corneal scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Posterior synechia

A

adhesion between the iris and the cornea, seen on ophthalmoscopy (examination of front of the eye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between ophthalmoscopy and fundoscopy?

A

Ophthalmoscopy - examination of the front of the eye

Fundoscopy - examination of the back of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Causes of retinal haemorrhage

A

Diabetic retinopathy
Hypertensive retinopathy
Increased ICP - increased pressure causes papilloedema which can cause haemorrhage
Bleeding disorders - cofactor deficiencies, haemophilia
Malignancy
Retinal vein occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Poucher Syndrome?

A

Fat emboli from severe fractures travel to the eye causing retinal haemorrhages
Will see retinal haemorrhages and white spots on fundoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are signs of hypertensive retinopathy on fundoscopy?

A

Generalised vessel thinning
Copper sign
Silver sign (when more severe)
AV nipping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the signs of malignant hypertensive retinopathy on fundoscopy?

A

Papilloedema
Exudate
Haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What must you rule out if you see brain and retinal haemorrhages in a baby?

A

Shaken baby syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two types of squint?

A

Isotropia - eye draws in, more common in children

Esotropia - eye draws out, more common in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define diplopia

A

Double visions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define confusion

A

Occurs in severe squints - patients will see two images in one visual field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define hypermetropia

A

Long sighted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define myopia

A

Short sighted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain the process of accommodation

A

Change to the shape of the lens to increase its power, allowing light to converge on the retina to see the image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain the swinging light test

  • what abnormality is it looking for?
  • describe normal and abnormal results
A

Test for pupillary reflex by swinging light source from one eye to the other and back again

Assessing for - Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect - caused by optic neuritis (commonly secondary to MS)

Normal - both pupils will constrict regardless of which eye the light is shone in

RAPD - there is normal constriction in both pupils when the light is shone in the normal eye but when light is shone in the abnormal eye there is reduced/no constriction (practically this looks like the pupils dilate when the light is shone in the abnormal eye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe a relative afferent pupillary defect

A

There is normal constriction in both pupils when the light is shone in the normal eye but when light is shone in the abnormal eye there is reduced/no constriction (practically this looks like the pupils dilate when the light is shone in the abnormal eye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List some differentials for a fixed dilated pupil

A

Drugs - eg: tropicamide
Iris trauma
Acute glaucoma
CN3 compression (emergency - surgical 3rd nerve palsy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe an efferent pupillary defect

A

Fixed, dilated pupil that does not react to light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe a holmes-adie pupil

A

A tonic pupil - dilated pupil with no response to light and sluggish accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe an argyll-robertson pupil

A

Prostitute’s pupil - accommodates but doesn’t react: small irregular pupils that accommodate but do not react to light

21
Q

List the features of Horner’s syndrome

A

Ptosis
Anhydrosis
Miosis - small pupil

22
Q

What is the difference between a medical and a surgical 3rd nerve palsy?

A

Pupil sparing in medical 3rd nerve palsy (usually caused by DM)

23
Q

What is holmes-adie syndrome?

A

Triad of - tonic pupil + absent lower limb reflexes + hypotension

24
Q

List some causes of Horner’s syndrome

A

MS
Pancoast tumour
Trauma
Cavernous sinus thrombosis

25
Q

List some concerning signs in a patient presenting with a red eye

A

Photophobia
Poor vision
Corneal damage - fluorescein staining
Abnormal pupil

26
Q

Name the 4 subtypes of glaucoma

A

primary angle closure (acute)
intermittent angle closure (subacute)
chronic angle closure
primary open angle

27
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

A group of eye diseases causing progressive optic neuropathy with increased intraoccular pressure

28
Q

Name some drugs which can cause acute closed angle glaucoma

A

Anti-cholinergics
Sympathomimetics
TCAs
Anti-histamines

29
Q

Which drugs is a big risk factor for simple (open angle) glaucoma?

A

Steroids

30
Q

What is Uveitis?

A

Inflammation of the iris, ciliary body and choroid causing red eye and blurred vision

31
Q

Define: dyschromatopsia

A

loss of colour discrimination

32
Q

what is the most common cause of optic neuritis?

A

MS

33
Q

Describe the presentation of retinal detachment (HINT: think 4Fs)

A

Floaters
Flashes
Field loss
Fall in acuity

34
Q

Is retinal detachment painful?

A

No

35
Q

List the main causes of transient visual loss

A 
Anterior ischaemia optic neuropathy (AION)
Optic neuritis 
Vitreous haemorrhage 
Central retinal artery occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion
Branch vessel occlusion
Retinal detachment
36
Q

List the main causes of sudden vision loss

A 
Vascular - TIA, migraine
MS
Subacute glaucoma
Papilloedema 
GCA
37
Q

List some common causes of gradual vision loss

A

Diabetic retinopathy
Macular degeneration (age-related)
Cataracts
Open angle glaucoma

38
Q

List some rare causes of gradual vision loss

A

Retinitis pigmentosa
Hypertension
Optic atrophy

39
Q

Define: strabismus

A

Squint

40
Q

Define: amblyopia

A

Lazy eye

41
Q

Define: myopia

A

Short sighted

42
Q

Define: hypermetropia

A

Long sighted

43
Q

Define: presbyopia

A

Age related visual changes

44
Q

List some causes of floaters

A

Retinal detachment
Vitreous haemorrhage
DM
HTN

45
Q

List some causes of haloes

A

Cataracts - esp. if worsened by looking at the sun
Acute glaucoma
Migraine

46
Q

List some causes of flashes

A

Retinal detachment

Migraine

47
Q

What are the effects of anti-muscarinic eye drops (such as topicamide)?

A

Pupil dilation
Loss of light reflex
Blurred vision

48
Q

What are the effects of sympathomimetic eye drops (such as phenylephrine)?

A

Increase aqueous outflow
Decrease aqueous production
Pupil dilation

49
Q

What are the effects of miotics (eg: pilocarpine) eye drops and when are they prescribed?

A

Constrict the pupil via muscarinic agonism

Given in acute closed angle glaucoma

Final Year Defintions (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions