Ophthalmic Imaging CH13 Flashcards

1
Q

Match the types of slit-lamp illumination to its definition:
Term:
diffuse
direct
indirect
retroillumination
tangential

Definition:
a) highlighting an area of interest by illuminating the structure behind it
b) illumination source is shined at an oblique angle across the surface of a structure
c) a softer lighting that evenly illuminates the entire subject without highlighting any particular part
d) illumination source is shined on another structure than the one of interest
e) the illumination source is shined directly on the area of interest

A

C) diffuse
E) diffuse
D) indirect
A) retroillumination
B) tangential

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2
Q

All of the following would be well documented using slit-lamp photography except:
a) pterygium
b) hypertropia
c) corneal scar
d) iris lesion

A

b) Answers a, c, and d are all entities of the anterior segment that would be ideal to document via slit-lamp photography. If one wished to document hypertropia, an external photograph showing both eyes in relation to each other would be needed.

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3
Q

When performing slit-lamp photography, a photograph of the eye using low magnification and diffuse lighting is recommended to:

a) judge the patient’s tolerance to the flash
b) judge the corneal reflection
c) provide identification
d) provide orientation

A

d) Before photographing pathology, take a photo of the entire eye using diffused lighting. (The diffuser is a foggy-looking filter that flips up over the slit-lamp’s illumination source.) This helps orient the viewer when photos are examined later, as well as provides documentation of the eye’s general appearance. Keep in mind, it is very difficult to identify a patient from a shot of a single eye!

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4
Q

By convention as well as for ease of use, the illuminator in slit-lamp photography is
usually positioned:
a) nasally
b) temporally
c) temporally for OD and nasally for OS
d) nasally for OD and temporally for OS

A

b) Illumination for slit-lamp photos is usually directed from the temporal side. This convention helps orient the viewer, for one thing. For another, it avoids the physical limitations of the patient’s nose when positioning the illuminator.

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5
Q

You are taking a slit-lamp photo of an iris lesion that may be melanoma. The illumination technique of choice is:
a) diffuse
b) direct
c) indirect
d) retroillumination

A

b) Direct illumination is used for opaque entities. (A subject that is more see-through would be better photographed using indirect illumination.)

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6
Q

You are taking a slit-lamp photo of a cortical cataract. The illumination technique of
choice is:
a) diffuse
b) direct
c) indirect
d) retroillumination

A

d) Using retroillumination, the light reflection from the retina (giving a bright orange/red
background) will show any lens opacities in silhouette.

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7
Q

The technique for taking photographs of the angle structures of the anterior eye is:
a) goniography
b) trabeculography
c) iridography
d) pupillography

A

a) A goniolens is used to view the angle structures of the eye at the slit lamp; it is placed directly on the anesthetized cornea. Photographs can then be taken of the angle structures.

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8
Q

The method used to take photographs of the endothelial layer of the cornea is:
a) specular photomicrography
b) fluorescein angiography
c) corneal topography
d) retroluminar reflectography

A

a) Specular photomicrography is a special technique used to capture images of the cornea’s single-layer endothelium. The endothelium does not regenerate and is key in maintaining the cornea’s clarity. The cells can get bumped and damaged during any kind of intraocular surgery, so evaluating the endothelium’s health prior to surgery can be very important (especially if the patient has some type of corneal degeneration/dystrophy). The cells in the
photo are examined for health as well as number (thus the term cell count).

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9
Q

Before taking the fundus photograph, it is important to do all of the following except:
a) check the patient’s record to confirm the requested photographs
b) enter patient information into a log manual or camera imprint system
c) study any previous fundus photos that the patient has had
d) make sure that the patient has had a visual field test

A

d) A visual field test is not a prerequisite for having fundus photos.

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10
Q

The most important thing to do before using any fundus camera each day should be:
a) confirm the diopter compensator is at the “+” setting
b) ensure all patients are dilated with homatropine
c) check to see that the eye piece is correctly set
d) clean the camera lens whether or not it is dirty

A

c) Check the eye piece! (That is the first rule when using any piece of focusable eye equip-
ment.) If the lens is not dirty, do not touch it. Homatropine is not necessary for dilation;
usually, weaker drops are used. The dioptric compensator should be set on a patient-by-
patient basis.

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11
Q

Setting the fundus camera eye piece should be done:
a) with one eye shut, in dim light or darkness
b) with both eyes open, in dim light or darkness
c) with both eyes open in a normally lit room
d) with one eye shut in a normally lit room

A

b) The eye piece should be set in dim light (or in the dark) with both eyes open. On the
fundus camera, this means that one eye is looking through the eye piece and the other eye is not. This is difficult to do, perhaps, but is the best method.

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12
Q

When setting the ocular of the fundus camera system, one must:
a) remove one’s own correction
b) turn the ocular to the maximum plus position, then rotate down
c) turn the ocular to the maximum plus position, then rotate up
d) turn the ocular to the maximum minus position, then rotate up

A

b) The fundus camera ocular is set like any other eye piece. Turn it all the way to maximum plus. Looking through the eye piece, turn slowly toward the minus. Stop when the image is clear. Do not pass the clear spot in search of more clarity. It is not necessary to remove your correction. But, if you wear your glasses sometimes, and other times do not, you will have to reset the ocular.

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13
Q

If you continue to turn the fundus camera ocular past the first point of clarity:
a) the reticle will become sharper yet
b) you can compensate for the patient’s refractive error
c) you may induce your own accommodation
d) the resulting photograph will be sharper

A

c) Going past the first point of image clarity adds minus to the ocular, which forces your
eye to add plus (accommodate) to compensate. The resulting photographs will not be clear. You are not compensating for the patient’s refractive error, but your own. During photography, if the image seems to go in and out of focus, yet the camera and patient are stationary, this probably is due to the accommodation of the photographer. Have the patient sit back, and check the focus of your ocular(s) again.

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14
Q

Proper pupil dilation to facilitate fundus photography requires:
a) any dilation is acceptable
b) dilation is not necessary
c) a minimum pupil size of 4 to 5 mm
d) a minimum pupil size of 8 mm

A

c) Four to 5-mm dilation would be the minimum size for fundus photos (8 mm would be best, of course, but it is not the minimum). (Note: There are now “nonmydriatic” fundus cameras available that require 3.3 mm as the minimum size.)

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15
Q

Inadequate dilation results in photographs with:
a) half of the frame unexposed
b) a general blur
c) a gray, fuzzy quadrant
d) a grainy appearance

A

b) In addition to causing pupil cuts (not listed), inadequate dilation can cause a general blur
on the photographs.

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16
Q

In fundus photography, high corneal astigmatism can be compensated for by:
a) use of the correction device in the fundus camera
b) placing the dioptric correction dial on “+” for plus cylinder
c) placing the dioptric correction dial on “–” for minus cylinder
d) having the patient wear a toric contact lens during photography

A

a) Some fundus cameras have an astigmatic correction device that is used much like the
dioptric compensation setting. The dioptric compensation device is for spherical refractive errors, not cylindrical.

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17
Q

In order to image eyes with high refractive errors, it is best to:
a) place a contact lens on the patient’s eye to compensate
b) reset the eye piece reticle to compensate
c) set the diopter compensation device built into the camera
d) remember that eyes with high refractive errors cannot be photographed

A

c) If the patient is highly hyperopic or myopic beyond the normal focusing ability of the
camera, the diopter compensation device is used.

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18
Q

To take a photo of the external eye with the fundus camera (eg, to document corneal
edema that interferes with a clear view of the fundus):
a) change the diopter setting to “–”
b) change the diopter setting to “+”
c) have the patient sit back from the camera
d) a slit-lamp camera must be used

A

b) If you set the dioptric compensation device to “+,” it is possible to take a photo of the
external eye using the fundus camera.

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19
Q

Gross focusing with the fundus camera is generally accomplished by:
a) turning the eye piece until the subject is clear
b) moving the joystick
c) having the patient lean forward or back
d) changing the magnification setting

A

b) Gross focusing can be accomplished by moving the joystick. On some fundus cameras, fine focusing is accomplished by turning a focusing knob on the camera. The subject is never focused by turning the oculars or by asking the patient to move. Changing the magnification setting will make the image larger, but not more focused.

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20
Q

Focusing the fundus camera can be simplified by:
a) starting with the camera all the way back, then moving it forward
b) starting with the camera all the way forward, then moving it back
c) focusing the donut on the patient’s closed lid before composing the photograph
d) positioning the fixation light directly in front of the camera lens

A

c) Have the patient close both eyes while you align and focus the “donut” on the closed lid.
This will put you very close to being in focus when the patient opens his or her eye. It is
also more comfortable for the patient and allows you to avoid fumbling around with the
camera, looking for the eye. If the fixation light is in front of the camera, it will get in the
way of the photograph.

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21
Q

To allow scanning of the patient’s retina without moving the base of the camera
mount:
a) move the fixation light and ask the patient to follow it
b) use the joystick
c) adjust the chin cup
d) swing the camera on its pivot

A

d) To scan the patient’s retina, swing the camera on its pivot. If you move the joystick, you are moving the camera base. If the patient follows the fixation light or moves his or her chin, you are going to lose your field of view.

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22
Q

When correctly positioned, the orange-yellow background of the fundus should be:
a) at an even color saturation across the viewing field
b) darker in the periphery of the viewing field
c) lighter in the periphery of the viewing field
d) unevenly saturated across the viewing field

A

a) The orange-yellow background color of the fundus should be even across the viewing
field.

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23
Q

Once the fundal image is correctly positioned and focused:
a) fire the camera
b) ask the patient to blink, then fire the camera
c) have the patient sit back and rest a moment
d) take repeated photographs quickly, warning the patient not to blink

A

b) Ask the patient to blink just before you fire the camera. This clears the tear film and
increases the chances of the lids being open widely when you snap the picture.

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24
Q

You are attempting to take fundus photographs and see a blue-gray halo around the subject. To correct this, you should:
a) move the camera closer
b) move the camera further back
c) reduce illumination
d) increase illumination

A

a) A blue-gray halo around the subject indicates that you are too far back. Move the camera closer. If you are too close, you will see a whitish haze in the center of the subject.

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25
Q

You are attempting to take fundus photographs and notice a whitish haze in the center of the subject. This may mean that:
a) the patient is highly myopic
b) the patient is highly hyperopic
c) the patient has his or her eye closed
d) the camera has drifted to one side

A

d) See answer 24. The whitish central haze means you are too close.

ANSWER 24: A blue-gray halo around the subject indicates that you are too far back. Move the camera closer. If you are too close, you will see a whitish haze in the center of the subject.

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26
Q

You are centering on the macula when a light yellow crescent appears in the upper left
of the viewing field. This is caused by:
a) the illumination being set too high
b) a reflection off of a cataract
c) the pathology in the fundus
d) a reflection off of the edge of the pupil

A

d) The little yellow crescent is caused by a “pupil cut.”

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27
Q

In the scenario above, you should:
a) reduce illumination
b) move the camera slightly down and to the right
c) move the camera slightly up and to the left
d) use the dioptric compensation device

A

b) To compensate for a pupil cut, move the camera directly opposite from the crescent.

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28
Q

Periodic photographs to monitor the progress of a disease might be needed in all of the following except:
a) hypertensive retinopathy
b) aphakia
c) diabetic retinopathy
d) glaucoma

A

b) Fundus photography is used in all of the listed situations except aphakia. Aphakia is a
condition, not a disease, and does not require photographic monitoring.

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29
Q

The primary area of interest in the fundus photo of a glaucoma patient is:
a) the optic disc
b) the macula
c) the retinal vessels
d) the choroid

A

a) The optic disc is the primary object of interest in monitoring glaucoma patients.

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30
Q

Fundus photos of a patient with macular degeneration would focus on the:
a) optic disc
b) retinal periphery
c) fovea
d) superior field

A

c) The fovea is the center of the macula. (This was essentially an ocular anatomy question.)

31
Q

In a standard diabetic survey, a series of photos are taken that include:
a) five overlapping fields of view
b) four fields of view to document every quadrant
c) seven overlapping fields of view
d) two photos: one centered on the disc and one centered on the macula

A

c) The diabetic survey includes pictures of seven overlapping fields.

32
Q

The technique that uses fundus photography to evaluate retinal blood flow is:
a) specular microscopy
b) cyanine green evaluation
c) fluorescein angiography
d) optical coherence tomography (OCT)

A

c) In fluorescein angiography, fluorescein dye is injected into a vein, and fundus photo-
graphs are taken in rapid succession as the dye fills the blood vessels.

33
Q

In fundus photography, the red-free filter is used to evaluate:
a) nerve fibers
b) for intraocular copper
c) blood vessels
d) pseudomembranes

A

c) The red-free filter (which is green) makes the blood vessels appear black, increasing
contrast for evaluation.

34
Q

If the patient is to have fundus photos of both eyes:
a) go from the right eye to the left eye without stopping to avoid patient fatigue
b) wait 30 minutes between photographing the right and left eyes
c) allow the patient to rest in between eyes until the fixation light can be seen
d) use stronger dilating drops on the second eye

A

c) Allow the patient to rest briefly between photos of both eyes. This allows him or her to
recover from being “dazzled” before being required to see the fixation light.

35
Q

Poor detail on a fundus photograph can be caused by all of the following except:
a) improper focusing
b) hazy media
c) retinal pathology
d) failing to set the eye piece accurately

A

c) Retinal pathology does not cause blurred photos in and of itself.

36
Q

The camera most often used in external ophthalmic photography is a(n):
a) instant still camera
b) video camera
c) twin-lens reflex 35 mm camera
d) single-lens reflex 35 mm camera

A

d) The single lens reflex (SLR) 35 mm camera remains the camera of choice for external
ophthalmic photography. It can easily be equipped with accessory lenses to accommodate different focusing needs.

37
Q

A key feature of a camera to be used in ophthalmology for external photography is
that it can:
a) be focused at about 4 inches from the subject
b) provide enough magnification to image a single eye
c) accept a micro lens
d) be coupled to a slit lamp

A

b) External ophthalmic photography is often taken on a 1:1 ratio, where the photograph is
life-sized. A macro (not micro) lens is often used to enhance image quality when taking
close-up photos.

38
Q

Regarding lighting for external ophthalmic photography:
a) a ring light is preferred
b) professional portrait lighting is preferred
c) an adjustable “point source” flash is preferred
d) no special lighting is needed

A

c) The point source flash reduces the amount of reflection from the cornea. The flash is
often mounted to the camera with a moveable bracket so the flash can be rotated into the most advantageous position for the area being imaged. If taking an external image of corneal pathology, the reflection from a ring light might totally obliterate the area of interest.

39
Q

All of the following are important when illuminating the subject for external photog-
raphy except:
a) avoid shadows falling on the area of interest
b) provide an even illumination across the area of interest
c) direct the illumination from the nasal aspect
d) avoid large flash reflection from the cornea

A

c) If the flash/illumination is coming from the nasal aspect, the nose and brows may cast a
shadow across the area of interest.

40
Q

External photographs taken prior to strabismus surgery will include (at a minimum):
a) upgaze, downgaze, and primary positions
b) a head shot, primary position, and angle of deviation
c) nine positions of gaze plus a head shot
d) right gaze, left gaze, primary position, plus a head shot

A

c) External photography generally includes one head shot for orientation and documentation. A strabismus series would then involve shots showing just the two eyes in the nine positions of gaze. (External photos for ptosis or plastics would include a head shot, then both eyes in primary position, upgaze, and downgaze.)

41
Q

The patient has given verbal agreement to be a model in “before and after” photo-
graphs of a blepharoplasty. In order to legally display the full head shots, you will need:

a) a standardized background
b) to just eliminate the patient’s name from the display
c) enlargements of the photos
d) the patient’s written consent

A

d) If the patient can be identified from the picture, a written consent is needed before displaying or publishing the photo. Verbal consent is not enough. If only the eyes appear in the photo (ie, the patient cannot be identified), the consent is not needed.

42
Q

External photographs of a patient might be required for insurance purposes in which
of the following types of ocular surgery?
a) emergency repair of lid laceration
b) upper blepharoplasty
c) lacrimal intubation
d) cataract extraction

A

b) Insurance companies will evaluate the photographs for evidence that the drooping upper lids are interfering with the patient’s peripheral vision. They will probably also want to see two sets of visual fields: one with the lids in their natural, lower position and another with the lids taped up, simulating the patient’s peripheral vision once the surgery is done.

43
Q

Ultrasound is a valuable diagnostic tool because it:
a) is safe because there is no radiation exposure
b) can be performed in the office
c) can be repeated frequently to follow the patient’s condition
d) all of the above

A

d) Ultrasound uses sound waves, not radiation. The measurement is easily done in the office, and repeat readings can be taken to follow the patient’s progress.

44
Q

Ultrasound employs the use of:
a) light rays
b) sound waves
c) laser rays
d) electromagnetic waves

A

b) Sound waves are used in ultrasound.

45
Q

The term A-scan refers to a:
a) one-dimensional amplitude scan
b) two-dimensional brightness scan
c) three-dimensional scan
d) none of the above

A

a) The A-scan has a one-dimensional amplitude.

46
Q

The “A” in A-scan stands for:
a) axial
b) amplitude
c) anti-orbital
d) audio

A

b) “A” stands for amplitude. (Anti-orbital is a bogus term.)

47
Q

The term biometry could refer to measuring the:
a) axial length of the eye
b) thickness of an extraocular muscle
c) height of a tumor
d) all of the above

A

d) Biometry refers to the measurement of a living tissue, be it the length, thickness, or
height. When talking about A-scans, it usually means axial length, so do not feel bad if you
chose answer a!

48
Q

In standardized or diagnostic A-scan, the purpose of the scan is generally to:
a) calculate intraocular lens power
b) calculate anterior chamber depth
c) evaluate abnormalities
d) evaluate the aqueous

A

c) Standardized/diagnostic A-scan is usually used in conjunction with B-scan. The purpose
is to measure abnormal structures as well as evaluate for tissue type. (Certain tissue types
have unique reflective spikes.)

49
Q

In standardized/diagnostic A-scans, the probe tip is placed:
a) perpendicular to the visual axis
b) relative to the area of interest
c) so sound waves will fall on the macula
d) so sound waves will fall on the optic nerve

A

b) Unlike axial length A-scans, in diagnostic A-scans, the probe is placed wherever appro-
priate in order to image the area of interest.

50
Q

Gain is:
a) whether or not an accurate reading has been obtained
b) the strength of the sound waves emitted by the probe
c) the false lengthening of an A-scan because of the tear film bridge
d) the sensitivity, or electronic amplification, of the sound wave signal

A

d) Gain is the sensitivity, or electronic amplification, of the sound wave signal.

51
Q

Extra echoes between the anterior and posterior lens spikes indicate:
a) a poor A-scan that should be repeated
b) a malfunctioning probe
c) a dense cataract
d) none of the above

A

c) A dense cataract can cause extra echoes between the anterior and posterior lens echoes.

52
Q

Label the parts of an A-scan echo (Figure 13): peak, width, baseline, descending limb or falling edge, ascending limb or leading edge

A

C) peak
E) width
B) ascending limb or leading edge
A) baseline
D) descending limb or falling edge

53
Q

Which biometric measurements may be performed with the standardized A-scan?
a) axial eye length
b) optic nerve thickness
c) tumor height
d) all of the above

A

d) The A-scan is a versatile instrument that can be used to measure any of the items listed.

54
Q

Unwanted echoes that do not represent ocular structures are known as:
a) pseudo-echoes
b) artifacts
c) reverberations
d) echoes of confusion

A

b) An artifact is an unwanted echo that is not due to any structure in the eye. Artifacts may
be caused by air bubbles in the probe, pneumatic retinopexy (retinal detachment treatment that involves injecting air into the eye), and echoes bouncing off intraocular foreign bodies (including intraocular lenses).

55
Q

Label the following structures on the A-scan pictured below (Figure 13-2):
posterior lens, orbital fat, cornea, retina anterior lens, sclera

A

D) posterior lens
G) orbital fat
B) cornea a),
E) retina
C) anterior lens
F) sclera

56
Q

All of the following are true regarding computerized corneal topography except:

a) it evaluates four points of the corneal apex
b) it measures the curvature of the anterior cornea
c) it displays the results with a color-coded “map”
d) it analyzes light reflected from the cornea

A

a) Corneal topography evaluates some 6000 points across the entire corneal surface. Keratometry, on the other hand, measures only four points in the 3-mm central optic zone.

57
Q

Corneal topography is useful in each of the following except:
a) fitting rigid contact lenses
b) monitoring keratoconus
c) monitoring endothelial drop-out
d) preoperative refractive surgery evaluation

A

c) Corneal topography evaluates the cornea’s external curvature, not the specific nature of
the cornea’s innermost endothelial layer. This would be evaluated using specular micros-
copy. The other uses are valid.

58
Q

“Cold” colors (blues and greens) on a corneal topography map indicate which of the
following?
a) a flatter area
b) a steeper area
c) an area of irregularity
d) the apex of a cone

A

a) The “cooler” colors indicate flatter areas. By contrast, the “warmer” colors (red/orange)
represent steeper areas. It is important to note that green may also be used to denote “normal.” Some displays can be “normalized,” which means that the green would represent the areas of “average” curvature specifically for that patient’s eye.

59
Q

The common pattern of astigmatism on a corneal topography map is a:
a) ring
b) tear-drop shape
c) bow-tie shape
d) pie wedge shape

A

c) The classic representation of astigmatism looks like a bow-tie of similarly hued colors
different than the rest of the image.

60
Q

Potential candidates for refractive surgery who currently wear contact lenses:
a) may have to leave the lenses out and have repeat corneal topography
b) do not need repeat topography if they are wearing soft lenses
c) should have corneal topography performed while wearing the contact lenses
d) should use rewetting drops frequently prior to topography

A

a) The contact lens patient who wants refractive surgery may have to discontinue lens wear for days or weeks prior to surgery. Repeat corneal topography will be done at intervals until the scan shows that the patient’s corneal curvature has stabilized and that corneal warpage is not present. This applies even to those who wear soft contact lenses.

61
Q

The corneal topography map most commonly used is the:
a) Placido ring map
b) keratometry map
c) refractive map
d) axial map

A

d) The axial map is the most commonly used.

62
Q

Corneal topography is useful in each of the following except:
a) evaluation of corneal sensitivity
b) evaluation of corneal warpage
c) evaluation of high astigmatism
d) determination of the incision site for cataract surgery

A

a) Corneal sensitivity is evaluated with an aesthesiometer, not topography.

63
Q

Which of the following would you expect to see on the corneal topography of a patient
who has had laser refractive surgery for myopia?
a) new bow-tie pattern
b) bluer center
c) bluer periphery
d) red/orange center

A

b) The cornea’s center is flattened in myopia, so one would expect to see a center with
cooler colors. (Warm colors [red/orange] in the center would indicate steeper curvature, as in hyperopic correction.)

64
Q

Which of the following would provide the most useful information in order to evaluate
a patient with keratoconus?
a) keratometry
b) retinoscopy
c) corneal topography
d) corneal pachymetry

A

c) Corneal topography creates a map of the cornea’s surface. The keratometer measures
only a tiny portion of the cornea. Retinoscopy of a patient with keratoconus can be confus-
ing and difficult. Pachymetry is useful (eg, to evaluate corneal thinning), but this is not the
best answer.

65
Q

A postoperative refractive surgery patient is complaining of glare and ghosting.
Which of the following would provide the most helpful analysis?
a) slit-lamp evaluation
b) endothelial cell count
c) corneal anesthesiometry
d) corneal topography

A

d) Corneal topography can show the location of the ablation zone. If the pupil does not fall
within the central portion of the zone, visual disturbances can occur.

66
Q

All of the following can result in inadequate corneal topography except:
a) pupil centered in the rings
b) poor fixation
c) eye not opened wide enough
d) long eyelashes

A

a) The ideal alignment is achieved when the pupil is centered in the rings.

67
Q

Match the following (some answers will be used more than once):
Technology:
Heidelberg Retinal Tomography (HRT)
Glaucoma Diagnosis (GDx)
Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)

Feature:
a) confocal laser
b) can be adapted for corneal imaging
c) uses polarized laser light
d) uses “near infrared” light

A

A), B) - HRT
A), C) - GDx
B), D) - OCT

68
Q

The purpose of using scanning laser devices to image and evaluate the retina is to:
a) generate normative data
b) detect subtle changes in the retinal structure
c) detect subtle visual field defects
d) perform a cell count

A

b) The purpose behind the scanning abilities of the HRT, GDx, and OCT is to detect and
monitor changes in the retinal structure, generally before other testing (eg, visual fields) can detect such changes. These devices have emerged as key in determining whether or not a patient has glaucoma and whether or not treatment needs to be initiated or changed.

69
Q

The topographical map acquired by scanning laser tests is generated by:
a) a fundus image
b) scans at various tissue depths
c) comparing the scan to industry standards
d) comparing the scan to normative data

A

b) The scanning laser devices generate topographical information by scanning tissues at different depths, much like an MRI or CT scan. While the scan may be compared to normative data, this does not generate the map itself.

70
Q

Scanning laser tests (HRT, GDx, OCT) generate results that are:
a) color-coded to indicate thickness of tissues
b) color-coded to show index of curvature
c) shown in grayscale
d) comparable to fluorescein angiography

A

a) The display/printout results of scanning laser devices are color-coded to indicate tissue thickness.

71
Q

Which of the following would not generally be evaluated using scanning laser tests?
a) optic nerve cupping
b) macular swelling
c) vitreous detachment
d) a glaucoma suspect

A

c) Scanning laser technology is ideal for evaluating the optic nerve, macula, and nerve fiber layer (for glaucoma). Vitreous detachment would not generally warrant such scanning.

72
Q

When using scanning laser as an aid in diagnosing glaucoma, the area of interest is
the:
a) fovea
b) retinal nerve fiber layer
c) optic radiations
d) retinal pigment epithelium

A

b) In glaucoma, atrophy (degeneration) of the nerve fiber layer is a key in diagnosis. (Damage to the nerve fibers generally occurs in a characteristic pattern, yielding the classic
visual field defects seen in glaucoma.) The fovea is the center of the macula; the optic
radiations are beyond the globe itself and run to the occipital cortex; the retinal pigment
epithelium is another layer of the retina between the rod and cone cells and the choroid.

73
Q

Scanning laser testing software evaluates the probability that:
a) the reading is accurate
b) further changes will occur
c) evaluated tissues are normal
d) changes are caused by operator error

A

c) Scanning laser testing software gives a probability that the evaluated tissue is normal by comparing the patient’s reading with normative data. Thus, the care provider might tell a patient, “The chances that this finding is normal is only 5%.”