Assisting in Surgical Procedures CH11 Flashcards

1
Q

The term minor surgery can be defined as:

a) a simple procedure with minimal risk
b) any surgery that is done using only local anesthetic
c) any surgery that is not required to be performed in a hospital
d) a simple procedure that can be performed by an assistant

A

a) Simple procedures that have minimal risk may be considered minor.

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2
Q

Which of the following could be considered minor surgery?
a) cataract extraction
b) corneal transplant
c) chalazion removal
d) enucleation

A

c) The chalazion excision is a minor procedure. The other procedures listed are not simple
and have at least moderate risk.

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3
Q

“Incision” refers to:
a) cutting out tissue
b) cutting into tissue
c) suturing tissue
d) giving an injection

A

b) Incision refers to cutting into a tissue as compared to tissue removal.

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4
Q

“Excision” is defined as:
a) cutting out tissue
b) cutting into tissue
c) suturing tissue
d) giving an injection

A

a) If tissue is removed, the procedure is an excision.

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5
Q

The procedure that corrects the inversion of the lower eyelid is:
a) chalazion removal
b) ptosis correction
c) entropion repair
d) ectropion repair

A

c) An inverted lower eyelid is an entropion. It is corrected to prevent corneal irritation and
scarring from constant rubbing by the eyelashes.

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6
Q

A surgical schedule would describe the procedure to correct drooping of the upper
eyelid as:
a) ptosis correction
b) chalazion removal
c) scleral buckling
d) trabeculectomy

A

a) Ptosis is a drooped eyelid. It might be repaired for cosmetic or visual reasons.

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7
Q

The procedure for removal of a fleshy encroachment onto the cornea is a/an:
a) ectropion repair
b) pterygium excision
c) hordeolum excision
d) scleral buckling

A

b) A pterygium is a fleshy growth that extends from the conjunctiva onto the cornea. It is
removed because it can grow across the front of the cornea, impeding sight.

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8
Q

All of the following might be done after the excision of a possible skin cancer except:

a) placing disposable needles and blades in an approved sharps container
b) placing the removed tissue in a specimen bottle for biopsy
c) proper disposal of contaminated disposables
d) proper disposal of all removed tissue

A

d) Any tissue that might be cancerous is sent for biopsy, not disposed of.

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9
Q

An ungloved person sets up a sterile tray by carefully “dumping” sterile instruments and materials onto the tray without contacting them. This preparation is known as:

a) the “no touch” method
b) unacceptable, as it is not sterile technique
c) standard precautions
d) the sterile method

A

a) The “no touch” method of setting up a sterile tray for minor surgery is acceptable as long as there is strictly no contact with anything that touches the tray.

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10
Q

A sterile tray for a chalazion removal might include:
a) chalazion clamp, blade, forceps, and curette
b) eyelid speculum, blade, and forceps
c) chalazion clamp, needle holder, and cannula
d) eyelid speculum, blade, forceps, and curette

A

a) A chalazion clamp, blade, forceps, and curette might all be used for a chalazion removal. An eyelid speculum, cannula, and/or needle holder are not generally required.

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11
Q

A sterile tray for a lacrimal evaluation might include:
a) lid speculum, punctal dilator, and lacrimal stint
b) clamp, needle holder, and curette
c) forceps, punctal dilator, curette, and lacrimal cannula
d) medicine glass, punctal dilator, syringe, and lacrimal cannula

A

d) A lacrimal setup would include a medicine glass (for saline), punctal dilator, syringe, and
cannula for lavage (irrigation).

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12
Q

In addition to the sterile tray for a lacrimal evaluation, the setup for a procedure to
open a blocked tear duct would include:
a) blunt needle
b) set of probes
c) cautery unit
d) electrolysis unit

A

b) A probe is the wire-like instrument that is passed through the punctum and canaliculus,
then pushed through the blockage.

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13
Q

A sterile tray for any growth removal will probably include:
a) lid speculum, forceps, curette, and suture material
b) scalpel, scissors, forceps, needle holder, and sutures
c) curette, chalazion clamp, forceps, and scalpel
d) probe, forceps, scissors, and needle holder

A

b) Any growth removal will probably require a scalpel, scissors, forceps, needle holder, and
suture material. A lid speculum might be used, but a curette and chalazion clamp are for
chalazia and a probe is for lacrimal procedures.

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14
Q

Match the following:
cryo
cautery
electrolysis
laser

a) uses focused amplified light
b) uses electrical impulses
c) uses cold
d) uses heat

A

cryo - C) uses cold
cautery - D) uses heat
electrolysis - B) uses electrical impulses
laser - A) uses focused amplified light

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15
Q

All of the following can cause stains on surgical instruments except:

a) failure to rinse off detergents
b) residue from sutures
c) minerals in the water source
d) dried blood

A

b) Okay, I confess, I made up answer b. All the rest can cause staining.

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16
Q

Surgical instruments should be lubricated:
a) only when they seem to stick
b) only if cleaned in an ultrasonic unit
c) after every use
d) after every fifth use

A

d) As a general rule, lubricate surgical instruments after every fifth use.

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17
Q

Which of the following is true regarding ultrasonic cleaners?

a) They effectively sterilize surgical instruments.
b) Scrub instruments before placing them in the unit.
c) Instruments should not touch while in the unit.
d) Glass cannot be placed in the unit.

A

c) Ultrasonic cleaners do not sterilize, you do not have to scrub first, and you can put glass
in them. But the instruments should not touch.

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18
Q

The premise behind refractive surgery is to change the refractive power of the eye by:
a) changing the eye’s refractive index
b) eliminating astigmatism
c) altering the eye’s focal length
d) transposing the refractive error

A

c) The focal length of the eye (or of any lens/lens system) is the distance from the lens
system to the focal point, where light is focused. Refractive surgery seeks to alter this in order to put the focal point directly on the retina (ie, macula).

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19
Q

Laser refractive surgery seeks to correct a refractive error by:
a) altering the shape of the cornea
b) altering the shape of the retina
c) improving the tear film
d) inserting a retinal implant

A

a) The cornea accounts for most of the refractive power of the eye. It is also accessible, as opposed to the other parts of ocular media, except for the tear film. Changing the cornea’s shape (flattening or steepening) alters the refractive error.

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20
Q

To correct myopia with laser refractive surgery, the goal is to:
a) steepen the corneal center
b) flatten the corneal center
c) eliminate minus power in the eye
d) eliminate astigmatism

A

b) Flattening the cornea’s center moves the eye’s focal point back toward the retina. In
myopia, the focal point falls somewhere in the vitreous. (Note: Regarding answer c, the
myopic eye has too much plus power, which is why we neutralize it with minus.)

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21
Q

In which of the following refractive procedures is a corneal flap created and laser used
to sculpt the underlying tissue?
a) intrastromal rings
b) radial keratotomy (RK)
c) laser-assisted in-situ keratomileusis (LASIK)
d) photorefractive keratectomy (PRK)

A

c) In LASIK surgery, a microkeratome (a keratome is a surgical knife/blade used to incise the cornea; a microkeratome is small and capable of making very precise incisions) is used to cut a thin flap in the top-most corneal layers. The excimer laser is then used to sculpt the underlying tissue to correct the refractive error. The flap is then put back into place, over the ablated area.

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22
Q

Laser refractive surgery is performed with which type of laser?
a) argon
b) excimer
c) YAG
d) krypton

A

b) The name excimer is derived from “excited dimer.” This laser uses ultraviolet radiation
that breaks or photoevaporates chemical bonds between tissues and is ideally suited for
work on the cornea.

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23
Q

All of the following are forms of laser refractive surgery except:
a) RK
b) PRK
c) LASIK
d) laser-assisted subepithelial keratomileusis (LASEK)

A

a) In RK, the surgeon uses a diamond blade to alter the cornea’s shape.

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24
Q

In LASIK, which corneal layers are excised as part of the flap?
a) epithelium
b) epithelium and Bowman’s layer
c) epithelium and Descemet’s membrane
d) endothelium and stroma

A

b) In LASIK, a microkeratome is used to create a flap of the epithelium and Bowman’s
layer (and, technically, a bit of the stroma). The laser is then used to sculpt the underlying
stroma.

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25
Q

Which of the following allows the surgeon to customize laser refractive surgery during
the procedure?
a) wavefront LASIK
b) aberration-free LASIK
c) LASIK IOLMaster (Carl Zeiss, Jena, Germany) software
d) LASIK corneal keratometry

A

a) Wavefront technology creates a rough map of the patient’s eye, allowing very precise
control and treatment during the refractive procedure. The idea is to reduce aberrations,
thus reducing side effects such as glare, haloes, and blur. The other answers are bogus.

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26
Q

Postoperative instructions following LASIK surgery would include all of the following
except:
a) do not bend over
b) shower from the neck down
c) wear a shield over the operated eye at bedtime
d) do not rub the eye

A

a) There is no restriction on bending over after LASIK surgery. Otherwise, patients are told
to avoid water/sweat in the eye, do not rub the eye, wear the shield at bedtime, avoid smoke,
and not to wear make-up. The duration of these restrictions varies.

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27
Q

Matching: Match the procedure to the description; items may be used more than
once:

-used to treat corneal scars
-involves use of a keratome
-corneal epithelium removed
-corneal flap
-very thin corneal flap
-treats some types of corneal dystrophy
-corneal flap includes some stroma
-routine use of a postoperative bandage contact lens

a) PRK
b) LASIK
c) LASEK
d) Phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK)

A
  • used to treat corneal scars - D)
  • involves use of a keratome - B) & C)
  • corneal epithelium removed - A) & sometimes D)
  • corneal flap - B) & C)
  • very thin corneal flap - C)
  • treats some types of corneal dystrophy - D)
  • corneal flap includes some stroma - B)
  • routine use of a postoperative bandage contact lens - A) & D)
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28
Q

The sterile field is an area that is considered to be:
a) disinfected
b) free of chemicals
c) free of microbes
d) sanitized

A

c) The sterile field is considered to be free of microorganisms. Disinfection is not sterility;
it does not remove the most resistant microbes. Sanitization means that the number of microbes has been reduced to a “safe” level.

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29
Q

The sterile field would include all of the following except:
a) sterile, gloved hands
b) eye drop bottles
c) the drape around the surgical site
d) the instrument tray

A

b) While many minor ophthalmic procedures would include the use of eye drops before,
during, or after the surgery, the bottles are not sterile. The sterile gloved hands of the surgical team, the exterior of the eye drape, and the instrument tray (with sterile instruments on
a sterile drape or towel of some sort) are each part of the sterile field.

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30
Q

If an unsterile object touches anything in the sterile field, the field is:
a) immediately covered with another drape
b) immediately rescrubbed
c) considered contaminated
d) still adequate and surgery may continue

A

c) There is no such thing as “almost” sterile; if an unsterile item contacts the sterile field,
the field is considered contaminated.

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31
Q

Techniques used to prevent preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative microbial
infection are collectively termed:
a) clean
b) aseptic
c) sanitary
d) health standard

A

b) Aseptic technique is used to prevent contamination by infectious microorganisms. The level of asepsis varies according to the procedure, ranging from clean to aseptic to sterile. Clean technique is used for noninvasive procedures such as tonometry. Aseptic technique is applied to minor surgical procedures. Sterile technique is used in major surgery, where exposure of tissues might be more deep and lengthy. (You can see that “aseptic technique” has a rather double meaning; be sure to read questions carefully.)

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32
Q

The purpose of aseptic technique is to:
a) reduce the number of chemicals present
b) ensure proper safety measures
c) reduce the chances of wound infection
d) ensure proper ventilation

A

c) The purpose of aseptic technique is to eliminate microorganisms that could potentially cause infection.

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33
Q

Steps in a minor surgery procedure include all of the following except:
a) disinfection of the patient’s skin
b) setting up a sterile tray
c) administering topical or local anesthetic
d) sterile gowning of surgical personnel

A

d) Sterile gowning is not required for minor surgery, as a rule.

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34
Q

In minor surgery, the assistant might remain ungloved. In this case he or she:
a) must not disinfect the patient’s skin
b) must not touch any nonsterile area
c) must not touch the sterile field
d) must not apply eye drops

A

c) If an ungloved assistant touches the sterile field, the field becomes contaminated.

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35
Q

“Laser” stands for:
a) light amplification to stimulate emission of radioactivity
b) light amplification to stimulate emergence of radiation
c) light absorption to simulate effective radiation
d) light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

A

d) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation is the basis of the acronym.

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36
Q

The basic function of any laser is:
a) tissue destruction
b) tissue sculpting
c) creation of an opening
d) to decrease pressure

A

a) Regardless of laser type, mode of action, or treatment type, a laser is used to destroy
tissue. The purpose may be to open (as in laser capsulotomy), cause scarring (the theorized action of laser trabeculectomy), or seal (as in punctoplasty or diabetic retinopathy). Each of these involves tissue destruction, whether by heat (photocoagulation), vaporization, cut-
ting (photodisruption), or breaking down the chemical bonds of tissues (photoablation).

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37
Q

Which laser is commonly used to remove a cloudy capsule following cataract surgery?
a) argon
b) CO2
c) YAG
d) microendolaser

A

c) Laser capsulotomy is usually performed with the YAG laser. The argon is used for pho-
tocoagulation, the CO2 for skin lesions, and the microendolaser for internal treatments.

38
Q

Phototherapeutic keratectomy (PTK) might be performed on which of the following?
a) high myopia
b) presbyopia
c) corneal scar
d) pterygium

A

c) PTK is a laser treatment for surface corneal disease such as shallow scars, recurrent ero-
sion, and some types of corneal dystrophy. The goal is to create a smooth corneal surface
that will heal evenly.

39
Q

The argon laser is commonly used in all of the following disease states except:
a) diabetic retinopathy
b) hypertensive retinopathy
c) cataract
d) glaucoma

A

c) A cataract cannot be removed with a laser at this time.

40
Q

Laser surgery for open-angle glaucoma mainly involves:
a) treating the trabecular meshwork
b) treating the ciliary body
c) treating the canal of Schlemm
d) sealing the puncta

A

a) A laser trabeculoplasty, the current most popular laser treatment for open-angle glaucoma, is directed at the trabecular meshwork in an attempt to increase aqueous drainage.

41
Q

In angle-closure glaucoma, a laser is used to create a(n):
a) iridotomy
b) peripheral iridectomy
c) sector iridectomy
d) iris ablation

A

a) A laser iridotomy is used to create an opening in the iris to prevent pressure build-up in angle-closure glaucoma, providing aqueous drainage even if the angle is blocked. Answers b and c require conventional surgery. Answer d would mean destruction of the iris, which is not done.

42
Q

Laser treatment of diabetics might include which of the following?
a) sealing blood vessels
b) opening blood vessels
c) preventing secondary glaucoma
d) preventing retinal detachment

A

a) In diabetes the blood vessels of the body, including the eye, tend to weaken, which means they can leak blood into surrounding tissues. There can also be the formation of new blood vessels, which tend to bleed. Most laser treatment in diabetics is done in an effort to seal blood vessels in order to stop or prevent leakage.

43
Q

Panretinal photocoagulation might be used in the treatment of which of the following?
a) hypertensive retinopathy
b) retinal detachment
c) diabetic retinopathy
d) retinitis pigmentosa

A

c) Panretinal photocoagulation is used to treat diabetic retinopathy by applying a laser to
multiple points of the retina. The Greek prefix pan- refers to “all” or “whole.”

44
Q

Which of the following is a laser procedure that would be used to treat a specific area
of the retina?
a) focal
b) panretinal
c) maculectomy
d) epiretinal

A

a) The term focal refers to a defined, circumscribed area. Panretinal refers to treating a
broad area, usually for diabetes.

45
Q

Intraocular injections might be used to treat any of the following except:
a) wet macular degeneration
b) diabetic retinopathy
c) retinal vein occlusion
d) retinal detachment

A

d) Intraocular injections are not used to treat retinal detachment. Wet macular degeneration
and diabetic retinopathy would be treated with medications aimed at preventing the growth of new, abnormal blood vessels. Treatment for a retinal vein occlusion would be used to alleviate macular swelling.

46
Q

Which of the following is not a medication used in intraocular injections?
a) Macugen (Eyetech Inc, Palm Beach Gardens, FL)
b) Pilopine (Alcon Laboratories, Fort Worth, TX)
c) Kenalog (Squibb, New York City, NY)
d) Lucentis (Genentech, Inc, South San Francisco, CA)

A

b) Pilopine is a topical miotic gel sometimes used in glaucoma treatment. Macugen and
Lucentis are used in treating wet macular degeneration. Kenalog is a steroid used to treat macular edema, or swelling.

47
Q

The tray set-up for an intraocular injection would include all of the following except:
a) blunt-ended cannula
b) lid speculum
c) fine-toothed forceps
d) calipers

A

a) A lid speculum holds the eye open and helps to keep the lashes out of the way. Fine-
toothed forceps are used to keep the eye in position by grabbing the conjunctiva. The calipers are used to measure from the limbus to the intended injection site, so as to avoid
anterior segment structures.

48
Q

The prep for an intraocular injection involves:
a) vigorous scrubbing of the lids and lashes
b) use of povidone iodine directly on the ocular surface
c) retrobulbar anesthetic injection
d) instillation of miotic eye drops

A

b) Povidone iodine (in drop or wash form) is applied to the ocular surface (as well as
lashes and lids) when prepping for an intraocular injection. Vigorous scrubbing is contraindicated, as this may expulse the bacteria-containing contents of the various glands in the lids. Topical anesthetic, or possibly a local injection just under the conjunctiva, is usually used. The pupil is generally dilated (versus miosis) so that it is easier to evaluate the patient’s retina following the procedure.

49
Q

The actual intraocular injection takes about:
a) 5 seconds
b) 30 seconds
c) 60 seconds
d) 90 seconds

A

a) The actual injection is a quick affair of 5 seconds or less. (When you are educating the
patient beforehand, be sure to tell him this!)

50
Q

As soon as the surgeon removes the needle from the eye following an intraocular injec-
tion, the assistant must immediately:

a) instill a miotic to reverse pupil dilation
b) check the intraocular pressure
c) apply a cotton-tipped applicator to the site
d) check the patient’s vision with a near card

A

c) A cotton-tipped applicator is placed on the injection site immediately after the needle is
removed to prevent any medication from leaking out.

51
Q

Which of the following is a common postoperative occurrence in a patient who has
had an intraocular injection?
a) floaters
b) hyphema
c) increasing pain
d) marked pressure sensation

A

a) Floaters are common after intraocular injections. Such “spots” may even be bubbles that entered the eye during the procedure.

52
Q

YAG stands for:
a) yellow-aqua-green
b) yttrium-aluminum-garnet
c) yrinium-angle-geodesic
d) ystridium-alum-glaucoma

A

b) YAG stands for yttrium-aluminum-garnet, a reference to the crystals that emit radiation
when stimulated by an energy source.

53
Q

The laser procedure to make a hole in the iris to prevent aqueous blockage is called:
a) sector iridectomy
b) peripheral iridectomy
c) iridotomy
d) trabeculectomy

A

c) A laser iridotomy makes a hole in the iris, providing aqueous drainage even if the angle
is blocked.

54
Q

The YAG laser might commonly be used for which of the following procedures?
a) Sealing a retinal hole.
b) Sealing a bleeding retinal blood vessel.
c) Opening the trabeculum in glaucoma.
d) Cutting through vitreous adhesions.

A

d) Procedures a, b, and c require the use of a laser than can fuse tissues rather than the
scalpel-like qualities of the YAG. A complication of ocular surgery is where the vitreous pushes out of the posterior segment and into the anterior chamber. In this case there is concern that the vitreous pulling on the retina (to which it is still attached) may cause a retinal detachment. If the vitreous has adhered to a surgical incision, it may also be a conduit for bacteria to enter the eye. In such a scenario, the YAG laser is used to cut through
the vitreous strand in a procedure known as vitreolysis.

55
Q

A possible complication of a YAG capsulotomy laser procedure is:
a) loss of corneal endothelial cells
b) rise in intraocular pressure
c) decrease in vision
d) corneal scarring

A

b) A rise in intraocular pressure, usually temporary, can occur following a YAG capsulotomy.

56
Q

The YAG laser is mainly used in which of the following ways?
a) photodisruption
b) photocoagulation
c) heat
d) ultraviolet radiation

A

a) The YAG is generally used as a photodisruptor, destroying tissue in what is sometimes called a “microexplosion.” Other types of lasers work by other methods (ie, Argon is a thermal/photocoagulation laser; excimer lasers use ultraviolet light).

57
Q

All of the following are acceptable sterilizing procedures except:
a) boiling
b) moist heat (autoclave)
c) chemical disinfectants (germicides)
d) infrared radiation

A

d) Infrared radiation is not a sterilizing method.

58
Q

Prior to sterilization, surgical instruments should be:
a) boiled in water
b) cleaned to remove blood and debris
c) soaked in chemical disinfectant
d) wrapped in linen

A

b) Always clean instruments before sterilizing them.

59
Q

Which statement regarding autoclave sterilizing procedures for ophthalmic instru-
ments is false?

a) Instruments should be closed when sterilizing.
b) All detachable parts must be dissembled.
c) Heavier instruments are placed on bottom.
d) Preheat instruments in the autoclave before beginning the steam cycle.

A

a) Instruments should be open when sterilizing to expose and sterilize all surfaces.

60
Q

The autoclave (moist heat) employs which of the following to accomplish sterilization?
a) Steam for an allotted time.
b) Boiling water under pressure for an allotted time.
c) Steam under pressure for an allotted time.
d) Ultrasonic heat for an allotted time.

A

c) The autoclave utilizes steam under pressure for a specific length of time.

61
Q

Disadvantages of boiling to sterilize include all of the following except:
a) sharp instruments can be dulled
b) some instruments will rust
c) only saline solution should be used
d) it may take several hours to kill certain spores

A

c) Saline solution is not used to boil or sterilize equipment.

62
Q

The temperature and time required to sterilize instruments with dry heat is:
a) 320° F for 60 minutes
b) 320° F for 30 minutes
c) 250° F for 15 minutes
d) 120° F for 60 minutes

A

a) When dry heat is used, 320° F for an hour is considered adequate.

63
Q

The minimum time for instrument sterilization in a cold chemical bath is:
a) 5 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 90 minutes

A

b) Cold chemical sterilization is considered adequate after 20 minutes.

64
Q

All of the following are commonly used for chemical sterilization except:
a) phenol derivatives
b) ethyl alcohol 70%
c) formaldehyde
d) iodine

A

d) Iodine is not commonly used to sterilize instruments; it is used to disinfect the skin.

65
Q

All of the following are advantages of ethylene oxide sterilization except:
a) it is inexpensive
b) it can be used on most materials
c) its effectiveness
d) its ability to penetrate

A

a) Ethylene oxide is great, but expensive.

66
Q

The effectiveness of any procedure used to sterilize instruments may be tested by:

a) trying to culture organisms from the instruments after sterilization
b) trying to culture organisms from the instruments prior to sterilization
c) periodically documenting the readings on the temperature gauge
d) whether or not the indicator tape turns color

A

a) Any sterilization method can be checked by trying to culture organisms from the instrument after it has been supposedly sterilized. Temperature gauges can be wrong, and indicator tape only tells whether or not the desired temperature was reached.

67
Q

The surgical time-out refers to:

a) guided meditation to calm the patient prior to the procedure
b) roll call of surgical personnel
c) a pause during which staff correlates procedure and patient information
d) removal of an impaired staff member

A

c) The surgical time-out is a time during which the surgical team “steps back” to be sure they have the right patient, the right procedure, the right site, and the right records/instruments/supplies.

68
Q

The surgical time-out is done:

a) as soon as the patient arrives
b) while the patient is being prepped
c) right before the procedure begins
d) right after the procedure has been completed

A

c) The time-out occurs immediately before the procedure begins (ie, before the “first cut”). The patient has been prepped and is on the table, the team is present, and everyone must concur that they have the right patient, the right procedure, the right site, and the right records/instruments/supplies.

69
Q

Site identification can be accomplished by all of the following except:
a) performing a surgical time-out
b) asking the patient to confirm
c) consulting the patient’s record
d) marking the skin with a wax pencil

A

d) When marking the skin to identify the surgical site, an indelible marker is used, not a wax pencil.

70
Q

One of the primary safety procedures regarding laser use is:

a) proper disposal of biohazardous tissue
b) proper disposal of sharps
c) posting a warning sign regarding laser radiation
d) use of lead-lined covers

A

c) A warning sign on the door will advise those in the vicinity that a laser is housed there in.

71
Q

Safety precautions to be taken during ophthalmic laser treatment include:
a) containment
b) eye protection
c) warning signs/lights
d) all of the above

A

d) Containment (locating the equipment in an enclosed room), eye protection (appropriate
to the type of laser being used), and approved warning signs and/or lights are all safety precautions to be in place when an ophthalmic laser is in use.

72
Q

Except for the physician performing the procedure and the patient receiving it, every-
one in the room when laser is being performed must:

a) wear polarized sunglasses
b) close their eyes when the laser is fired
c) use artificial tears afterwards
d) wear eye protection specific to the type of laser used

A

d) Eye protection is the biggest issue with those who are present in the room when laser is being used. The type of filtration lens required depends on the type of laser in use.

73
Q

The organization requiring employers to provide the proper eye protection for work-
ers assisting in laser surgery is:

a) The American National Safety Institute (ANSI)
b) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
c) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
d) Federal Trade Commission (FTA)

A

c) OSHA requires employers to provide appropriate personal protective equipment to those employees performing tasks with potential risk, including assisting in laser surgery. While ANSI does have a set of standards regarding laser exposure, compliance is voluntary. The FDA regulations involving lasers apply to instrument manufacturers.

74
Q

The physician performing the laser treatment is protected from laser exposure by:

a) built-in filters in the instrument’s oculars
b) being at least 15 feet away from the patient
c) closing his or her eyes when firing the laser beam
d) wearing appropriate eye protection

A

a) The oculars of a laser have built-in safety filters to protect the user from exposure. The
filter may be designed to flip into place when the laser is fired, or it may be fixed into place
permanently. If an observation ocular is added to existing equipment, it is vital to be sure that the new ocular is filter-protected as well.

75
Q

Your practice has installed an observation ocular to the existing laser unit. Which of
the following is also necessary?

a) Proper focusing to better direct the laser beam.
b) A filter to prevent laser damage to the observer.
c) A second joystick for dual control.
d) A diffuser for general viewing.

A

b) The operator’s oculars already have a filter in place to protect the physician. If the laser
came with the observation scope already installed, it probably does as well (but you should check). But if extra oculars are added later, you should inquire if they need the filter installed as well.

76
Q

Any time the laser unit is moved, one must be sure to:
a) update the computer software
b) realign the beam
c) rinse off the laser media
d) realign the filters

A

b) After moving the laser, the beam must be realigned prior to use.

77
Q

Your employer finished the last laser treatment of the morning at 11:45 AM. The next laser patient is due to come in at 2:00 PM. According to OSHA safety standards, what should be done?

a) The door to the laser room should be locked.
b) The laser must be capped.
c) The laser must be turned off.
d) Someone must check the laser hourly.

A

c) According to OSHA Standard 1926.54,8
the laser must be turned off if it is not going to be used for a length of time. The examples given in the Standard are lunch break, shift
change, or overnight.

78
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding ambulatory surgical centers (ASCs)?

a) Any ophthalmic clinic can set up its own ASC.
b) Physicians at an ASC must maintain hospital privileges.
c) ASCs are held to state and federal standards.
d) An ASC must have periodic inspections and assessments.

A

a) Only a clinic that is in compliance with state and federal standards can establish an ASC.

79
Q

Which of the following members of the surgical team would be unscrubbed?
a) surgeon
b) circulator
c) surgical assistant
d) scrub nurse/technician

A

b) The circulator is a nonscrubbed person who generally sees to the patient’s comfort,
adjusts nonsterile instrumentation, brings in additional supplies when needed, and handles paperwork.

80
Q

Which of the following is proper technique when scrubbing?
a) Use water as hot as you can stand.
b) Scrub hands up to point of wrists.
c) Rinse from hands to elbows, hands up.
d) Put on a mask after scrubbing.

A

c) Scrubbed arms are held hands-up when rinsing so that run-off goes toward the elbows and not back over the hands. The scrub suit, head cover, shoe covers, and mask should all be donned prior to scrubbing. Water should be tolerably warm, and the scrub extends to include the forearms.

81
Q

Which of the following is not performed in the OR itself?
a) drying of scrubbed hands
b) donning gown
c) donning gloves
d) donning head cover

A

d) The head cover is put on prior to the scrub, which is done outside the OR.

82
Q

Which of the following regarding gowning is not true?
a) The gown may be tied by an unscrubbed person.
b) Gown cuffs are stretched over the glove cuffs.
c) The back of the sterile gown is considered unsterile.
d) The sterile gown below the sterile field is considered unsterile.

A

b) Glove cuffs are stretched over the gown cuffs, not vice versa. An unscrubbed person may tie the gown as long as they do not touch the front of the gown or any part of the tie that touches the front. The parts of the gown that are considered unsterile is the neck, the arm pits, the shoulders, the cuffs, the back, and any area that is below the surgical field.

83
Q

The technique of using the cuffs of one’s sterile surgical gown to handle sterile gloves
while putting them on is:

a) no-touch technique
b) open gloving technique
c) closed gloving technique
d) assisted gloving technique

A

c) The closed gloving technique, also called the closed cuff gloving technique, involves
putting the arms through the sterile gown up to the point of the cuffs. The hands, still inside the gown cuffs, are used to manipulate the gloves without touching them directly. In the open gloving technique, the fingers of one hand touch only the edge of the inner cuff of one of the gloves. The second glove is put on with the first gloved hand.

84
Q

Once scrubbed and gloved, which of the following is permissible?

a) Picking up something that has fallen off the instrument stand.
b) Keeping the hands above the waist.
c) Opening suture packets.
d) Dabbing the surgeon’s forehead with a sterile 4 × 4 gauze.

A

b) Everything below the waist is considered nonsterile, so the hands must be kept above
waist level. The other answers are incorrect. A nonscrubbed person would perform answer d, holding the gauze with forceps or tongs of some sort.

85
Q

How should members of the scrubbed surgical team move about the OR?
a) With their backs to the sterile field.
b) Passing each other face-to-face.
c) Only the circulator may move around the OR.
d) No particular technique is needed.

A

b) Scrubbed team members should move around each other either face-to-face or back-to-back (ie, never face-to-back). In general, everyone in the OR is facing the sterile field. The circulator may move around, of course, but is not scrubbed.

86
Q

A common mistake in performing the skin prep prior to ocular surgery is:

a) scrubbing back and forth
b) prepping the lashes
c) irrigating afterwards
d) cleansing from inner to outer canthus

A

a) Cleansing should begin at the lid margin and move outward in widening circles, from the inner to the outer canthus. One should not scrub from cleansed to non-cleansed back onto cleansed again.

87
Q

Which of the following is true regarding draping?
a) The entire drape is considered sterile.
b) A warm blanket may be placed on top of the body drape for patient comfort.
c) Only the circulator may drape the patient.
d) The skin prep is performed prior to draping.

A

d) The skin of the surgical site is prepped before the drape is applied. Only the top of a
drape is considered sterile; the back (touching the patient) is not, nor is any part of the drape that extends beyond the surgical field (eg, over the table). A blanket would be placed directly on the body prior to draping, not after. The circulator is unscrubbed and therefore would not be handling the sterile drapes.

88
Q

The table on which surgical instruments are placed is the:
a) prep table
b) back table
c) Mayo stand
d) circulation stand

A

c) The Mayo stand, also called the instrument stand, is a tray covered with a sterile drape
on which instruments and other needed materials are placed. The prep table holds items needed to prepare the surgical site. The back table holds gowns, gloves, towels, basins, drapes, and extra supplies.

89
Q

Which of the following would probably not be placed on the instrument (Mayo) stand?
a) forceps and needle holders
b) eye shield and tape
c) sutures and needles
d) gem blades and scissors

A

b) Eye shields and tape are not used during the procedure, and are not sterile. This equipment would contaminate the sterile Mayo stand.

90
Q

Hemostasis refers to:

a) placing sutures
b) filtering blood flow
c) stopping blood flow
d) opening blood flow

A

c) Hemo- meaning blood, -stasis meaning standing, or still. Hemostasis is stilling the flow of blood. A surgical assistant may be asked to stop blood flow by applying pressure or other means, as directed.

91
Q

Match (draw a line) from these standard surgical instruments to their purpose7:

  • Instrument -
    calipers
    cannulas
    clamps
    forceps
    hooks
    needle holders
    probes/dilators
    scissors
    speculum
  • Purpose -
    grasping
    cutting
    delivering fluids
    isolating tissue/lesion
    measuring
    separating eyelids
    opening obstructed canals
    identify muscles, grasp IOL loops
    holding suture needles
A

calipers → measuring
cannulas → delivering fluids
clamps → isolating tissue/lesion
forceps → grasping
hooks → identify muscles, grasp IOL loops
needle holders → holding suture needles
probes/dilators → opening obstructed canals
scissors → cutting
speculum → separating eyelids