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Daily Questions > Operators Manual > Flashcards

Operators Manual Flashcards

1
Q

When should an engine start be aborted?

A

• If it becomes apparent that TGT will exceed 851° C before NG idle speed (63% or more) is attained.
• If TGT does not increase within 45 seconds after moving POWER lever to IDLE.
• If no NP within 45 seconds after moving POWER lever to IDLE (unless rotor is locked).
• If positive oil pressure indication does not occur within 45 seconds after moving POWER lever to IDLE.
• If ENG1 or ENG2 START advisory is removed prior to attaining 52% NG.

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2
Q

What is the abort start procedure?

A

• POWER lever — OFF.
• ENG START switch — IGN ORIDE for 30 seconds and TGT is below 540° C.

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3
Q

When is a warm start procedure (701D) required?

A

If less than 4 hours have elapsed since last shutdown.

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4
Q

During a warm start procedure, what TGT value must be achieved before the engine power lever is advanced to IDLE?

A

TGT must be less than 30° C prior to advancing the power lever to IDLE.

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5
Q

What are the 3 ways in which the 701D engine will limit (droop)?

A

TGT Limiting, Ng Aerodynamic Speed Limit (Ng Mac), Ng Physical Speed Limit

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6
Q

During the engine start sequence, the message “ATS1 HANG” displays on the EUFD. What is the required procedure?

A

Eng START switch to IGN ORIDE, then OFF.

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7
Q

Refer to the 8,000’/+30°C cruise chart FOR THE ASPI configuration. What airspeed would the pilot record in the REMARKS section of the PPC when computing VSDE for a rolling takeoff at 17,000 lbs?

A

Approximately 32 KTAS @ 83% TQ.
(88% DE MTA – 5% = 83%. Read up from 83% to the 17k-lb line, then right to KTAS)

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8
Q

Using the same cruise chart, how long could the pilot operate the aircraft at Max Range airspeed at a GWT of 17,000 lbs?

A

For up to 30 minutes, after which an exceedance will be recorded on the DMS FAULT page.

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9
Q

Referencing the same cruise chart, if the crew had an FCR installed on their ASPI-equipped aircraft, how would the Max Range airspeed change?

A

Max Range airspeed would be reduced by 2 KTAS (+8.1 SQ FT ∆F ÷ 4 SQ FT ≈ 2 KTAS [reduction])
New Max Range is approximately 109 KTAS (111-2=109)

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10
Q

What are the 3 bleed air sources that may be used to start the aircraft engine?

A

APU Engine Start, Engine Bleed Air, External Source

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11
Q

The Integrated Pressurized Air System (IPAS) pressurizes, regulates, and distributes air to the following components (list the 8 IPAS users):

A

FUNIWHALE
​​​Fuel boost and transfer pumps
​​​Utility receptacle
​​​Nitrogen inerting unit
​​Ice detector probe aspirator
​​​Windshield (Canopy Defog – Student Handout)
​​​Hydraulic reservoirs
​​​Air turbine starter
Engine Firewall/Cooling Louver Doors
​​​Environmental Control System (ECS)

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12
Q

If the pilot selects BLEED AIR 1 and 2 OFF (A/C UTIL Page or HIT Page), which engine bleed air user listed in question 5 will continue to receive bleed air?

A

Hydraulic Reservoirs

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13
Q

What are the 4 reasons for locking the tailwheel?

A

Absorb rotor torque reaction during rotor brake operation.
​Prevent shimmy during rolling takeoffs and landings.
​Prevent swivel during ground operation in high winds.
​Prevent swivel during operation on slopes.

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14
Q

How many tailwheel unlock switches are available to each crew member while performing ground taxi?

A

Tail Wheel panel and collective flight control grips

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15
Q

If the parking brake is out, is this an indication that the brakes have been set?

A

If the PARK BRAKE handle is pulled out without pressure applied to the brake pedals, the PARK BRAKE handle may remain out but the brakes will not be set.

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16
Q

What are the ground speed thresholds for position hold, velocity hold, and attitude hold?

A

Position: <5 KTGS
Velocity: 5-40 KTGS (accelerating) and 30-6 KTGS decelerating
Attitude: above 40 KTGS

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17
Q

What parameters must be met for Heading Hold to be active when the aircraft is operated, without Attitude Hold engaged, below 40 KTGS?

A

Pedals must be <0.1” from trim position
Yaw rate must be <3° per second

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18
Q

What are the 2 engagement logics for BUCS?

A

Jam and severance logic

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19
Q

If the EUFD displays BUCS FAIL PITCH, what may have occurred? Which crew member should fly the aircraft?

A

There has been a failure in the system or a mistrack (severance) in the pitch axis between crew stations.
The pilot (backseat crew member) should take control of the aircraft immediately.

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20
Q

If the pilot rolls the ARDD in the back seat in response to a jam in the pitch axis, will force trim be available? Will Attitude Hold be available?

A

Yes
No, because SAS will be unavailable in the pitch axis once the BUCS plunger drops.

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21
Q

How may a real-world engine failure be presented to the crew?

A

Engine failure is normally indicated by the following:

A rapid drop in NG, NP, torque, TGT, and oil pressure
Symbolic torque value on the MPD/HMD displays flashing.
ENGINE 1 (or) 2 out voice message
MSTR WARN lighted push button.
ENG Autopage on MPD, if not already displayed
Explosion or loud noise
Loss of engine noise (ATM)

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22
Q

What conditions will cause an ENG 1 OUT voice message to annunciate?

A

Engines were running and E1 NG < 63% (throttle not in OFF)
E1 NP < 94% (throttle in FLY, TORQUE <28.2%)

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23
Q

If the fuel BOOST button is selected ON, what will happen to the crossfeed valve?

A

When the boostpump has been actioned on, the system automatically sets the fuel CROSSFEED to AFT.

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24
Q

Assuming both the forward and aft fuel cells are full at takeoff, when will the aircraft begin automatic fuel leveling to the forward cell?

A

If Aft Fuel quantity >500 lb and is >100 lb more than Fwd Fuel quantity

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25
Q

What caution message must be removed following rapid (warm or hot) refueling?

A

Verify REFUEL VALVE OPEN caution is not displayed.

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26
Q

How does the P* disengage both attitude and altitude hold modes simultaneously?

A

By selecting the down (D) position on the force trim release (FTR) switch.

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27
Q

What is represented by the shaded region of the height/velocity diagram?

A

The shaded region represents hazardous airspeed and wheel-height combinations from which a single engine landing would be extremely difficult without some degree of aircraft damage or crewmember injury.

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28
Q

What should be done for all emergencies during which continued flight is in question due to loss of rotor RPM or reduction of available power?

A

Adjust collective to maintain Nr within limits
Jettison wing stores

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29
Q

What conditions must be met to enable contingency power mode while Dual Engine in the 701D engine? How will I know when contingency power is enabled?

A

Dual Engine Contingency power is activated when TGT is within 11°c of the 879°c limiter and any (either) of the following conditions occur: Np <97% (drooping) or Np rate decreasing >5% per second.
A “CONT” message will be displayed in the FLT Page and HDU.

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30
Q

While climbing to cross a mountain ridgeline at 10,000 feet/-20°, the crew applies 95% TQ, resulting in NR droop. Will advancing the POWER lever to LOCKOUT recover the NR to 101%?

A

B No. Based on the environment, the engines are limiting due to NG Aerodynamic Speed Limit (NG Mach). Advancing the POWER lever to LOCKOUT overrides TGT limiting, which is not a factor in this scenario. The only choice is to lower the collective to maintain NR.

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31
Q

If the crew lost the NG signal from #1 engine, and the displayed NG% was 0%, would the engine continue to operate normally? What warnings would be present?

A

Yes
ENGINE 1 OUT

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32
Q

If ENG 1 PWR FAIL was displayed on the EUFD, would the engine behave the same during an alternator failure?

A

No, ENG 1 PWR FAIL indicates that the 115 VAC/400 Hz backup power is detected as failed. The DECU/EDECU, in this instance, is only being powered by the alternator. Failure of the alternator in this scenario would result in DECU/EDECU failure and engine overspeed.

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33
Q

The valid altitude range for the low altitude “bug” is?

A

0 to 20,000 feet.

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34
Q

Based on an operating weight of 16,000 lbs, what is VNE at 5,000’ PA / +20°C? What is VNE at 5,000’ PA / -20°C? Explain?

A

5000’/+20°C = 190 KTAS, 5000’/-20°C = 172 KTAS.
When computing for -20°C, the mach limit line (dashed line) is reached prior to the GWT line (solid line). The mach limit line corresponds to compressibility. The GWT line corresponds to retreating blade stall.

35
Q

What does it mean when the stabilator icon is displayed in yellow? How can the crew determine the maximum airspeed during this condition?

A

The stabilator icon is displayed in yellow if the stabilator is detected as failed and the manual input is unable to alter the position. The limiting KTAS for the current stabilator position is incorporated into the aircraft VNE barber pole on the airspeed tape.

36
Q

When will a box (square corners) display around the airspeed in the HMD?

A

When the airspeed has reached VNE, the airspeed will be boxed on the HMD and FLT Page. The airspeed will display in red (FLT Page only).

37
Q

When adding a point while in NAV phase, what point type will be default once ADD is selected?

A

A waypoint (WP)

38
Q

What control selections will cause the TSD map to freeze?

A

BAM button, CAQ button, FRZ button, PAN button
(Bonus) Cursor selection of the map when a white X is displayed within the cursor icon.

39
Q

What is the purpose for partitioning the shared point database via the AMPS?

A

The shared point partition can be subdivided into 8 sections, allowing individual aircraft their unique partition within the shared database. This enables crews to conduct IDM operations without the risk of overwriting the points stored by another crew.

40
Q

How can the ground track be cleared if the TSD becomes too cluttered?

A

RTE>RTM>CLEAR TRACK
The crew may also elect to disable the GROUND TRACK show option via the TSD SHOW Page. The track will not be cleared. It will continue to be computed, just not displayed.

41
Q

How is a LAT/LONG entered for the user point location data via the KU?

A

(Once at the location field within the ADD or EDIT thread, select CLR)
Enter LAT/LONG as one continuous string with no decimal point in degrees, minutes, and hundredths of minutes (decimal minute). Northing will have 2 digits (for the degrees), Easting will have 3 digits (for the degrees) with leading zeros. N/S will always have a total of 6 digits and E/W will always have a total of 7 digits.

Example: N123456E1234567

42
Q

What are the 3 map orientations available to the individual crew member?

A

N-UP (north-up), TRK-UP (track-up), and HDG-UP (heading-up).

43
Q

What is a COMSET? What is the advantage of tuning a COMSET over individually-selected presets?

A

A COMSET is a grouping of up to six presets. COMSET tuning allows the crew to tune all of the presets associated with a COMSET with minimal button selections.

44
Q

May the crew send digital traffic via the IDM when a non-tactical preset frequency is tuned into the radio?

A

No, when a non-tactical preset is tuned, the IDM is disconnected from the radio.​​

*Non-tactical presets are voice-only presets commonly used for airports/ATC facilities.

45
Q

How many RADIO PTT (push-to-talk) switches are located in each crew station?

A

Two, 1 on the cyclic and 1 on the left side of the floor.

46
Q

How can the P enter the radio frequency 49.95 into the FM1 radio via the KU shortcut?

A

Type 49.95 into the KU, then select ENTER
Enter 1 for FM1 when prompted

47
Q

If 49.95 corresponds to the radio preset for A Co 1-14th, and the frequency/call sign are in the preset directory, will the call sign display on the EUFD if the frequency is entered manually via the KU shortcut? What if the frequency is entered via the MANUAL tuning option on the COM Page? How are these two manual tuning options different?

A

Entering 49.95 via the KU shortcut will only tune the radio to the entered frequency.

Entering 49.95 via the COM>TUNING>MANUAL page will enable a search of the preset directory to find a preset that matches the frequency. If a corresponding preset is found, a preset tune will occur, and the call sign will display on the EUFD.

48
Q

If no monitor status dot is present next to the Hanchey Tower frequency on the EUFD, can the crew still hear Hanchey Tower?

A

The monitor status dot indicates whether monitoring of respective radio is enabled/disabled.

The crew will be unable to monitor (hear) Hanchey Tower unless the corresponding radio is selected as the active transmitter (RTS set to Hanchey Tower on VHF or UHF).

49
Q

If the fuel BOOST button is selected ON, what will happen to the crossfeed valve?

A

When the boost pump has been actioned on the system automatically sets the fuel CROSSFEED to AFT.

50
Q

Assuming both the forward and aft fuel cells are full at takeoff, when will the aircraft begin automatic fuel leveling to the forward cell?

A

When the Fwd fuel level is <814 pounds.

51
Q

What caution message must be removed following rapid (warm or hot) refueling?

A

The crew must ensure that the REFUEL VALVE OPEN caution is not displayed after completing refueling.

52
Q

If ATC directs the crew to “IDENT” or “Squawk IDENT,” how is this accomplished by the crew?

A

• By pressing the IDENT button on either the PLT or CPG COMM Panel
• By selecting IDENT option on the INIT>XPNDR Page

53
Q

What happens when GUARD and XPNDR Buttons are pressed on the EMERGENCY Panel?

A

• The UHF radio is tuned to the UHF guard frequency (243.0 MHz).
• The transponder code is set to 7700 (Emergency).

54
Q

When responding to IIMC, the P* engages ATT HOLD, then interrupts force trim, attempting to set the force trim reference at a climb attitude with wings level. Within how many degrees from zero (wings level) must be P* trim the aircraft for the roll attitude reference to be automatically set to zero?

A

Attitude hold will re-reference to a new pitch or roll attitude when the force trim release button is no longer being asserted and the aircraft is within the attitude limits defined previously. If the roll < 3°, the roll reference will be automatically set to zero (wings level).

55
Q

How long should the pilot wait after IHADSS power-up before making any brightness adjustments to the HDU?

A

60 Seconds

56
Q

Assuming run-up took 30 minutes, is it recommended to perform a Scene Assisted Non-Uniformity Correction (SANUC) prior to takeoff?

A

If you have been operating the TADS/PNVS on the ground for 15 minutes or longer, perform a SANUC before takeoff.

57
Q

What is the maximum slew rate for the PNVS? What is the maximum slew rate for the TADS?

A

PNVS: 120°/second, TADS: 60°/second

58
Q

Following a PNVS failure, how long might it take to switch to TADS wide field of view (WFOV) FLIR?

A

• Switch over should occur in about 3 seconds after selecting the NVS select switch to TADS.
• TADS may be stowed at -180° at the time of PNVS failure; therefore, at 60° per second the TADS requires 3 seconds to orient 180° to the 12 o’clock position.

59
Q

If only the PLT was flying NVS and the CPG NVS Mode Switch was OFF, which crew member’s HMD presentation would be retained during a single MP failure?

A

The PLT’s HMD would be retained because they are the only crew member with an NVS Mode Switch in NORM or FIXED. “PLT FORMAT”

60
Q

How may the CPG view his/her own HMD video during the scenario in Question 5 without affecting the PLT? (PLT has NVS during single MP fail)

A

The CPG may view CPG HMD video on the MPD video page while the PLT views PLT HMD video in the HMD.

61
Q

What is the origin of the acceleration cue when in hover mode at 4 KTGS? In hover mode at 7 KTGS? In transition mode at 50 KTGS?

A

Hover/Bob-up Modes: The origin of the acceleration cue is the tip of the velocity vector when the vector is at less than maximum scale (6 KTGS).
• Hover/Bob-up Mode: The origin of the acceleration cue is the center of the LOS reticle when the velocity vector is at or greater than maximum scale.
• Transition Mode: The acceleration cue is always referenced to the tip of the velocity vector.

62
Q

Unusual attitude may occur as a result of an IHADSS failure. If the HAD displays “IHADSS LOS INVALID,” what procedural steps should be performed by the P*?

A

• NVS MODE switch – Fixed
• NVS Select switch – TADS or PNVS
• VID page – PLT or CPG HMD (as necessary)

63
Q

What conditions will cause the LOS reticle to flash?

A

• Crewmember’s LOS is invalid
• NVS sensor is at its limit (TADS sight at its limit)
• Gun actioned but detected as failed

64
Q

On the DMS UTIL page, what button(s) must be pressed to turn on anti-ice for the NVS?

A

GND, then ANTI-ICE SENSOR
GND is not the same as GND ORIDE

65
Q

If the P* experiences a PNVS failure while flying at NOE terrain flight altitude, what is the immediate action step?

A

Exit the NOE environment immediately

66
Q

. The crew should not perform a _____ _________ on either system while operating in a NOE environment.

A

Long SANUC

67
Q

What has occurred if the crew hears a flight advisory tone and observes the message HOVER DRIFT on the EUFD?

A

The crew has drifted more than 48 feet (approximately 1 rotor diameter) and position hold is engaged.

68
Q

If Bob-Up Symbology Mode is used when unmasking, what does the command heading chevron represent on the heading tape?

A

The command heading (chevron) represents the aircraft heading at the initiation of bob-up mode.

69
Q

Which CLIMB DESCENT chart shall be used to determine the torque required to climb vertically at 500 fpm at a hover?

A

-Climb: Best range speed (VBR)
-The VBE chart is only used when flying at VBE ±8 KTAS

70
Q

What is the highest point on the aircraft, and what is its height?

A

-VHF Whip Antenna, located on the top of the Vertical Fin
-17 Feet 6 Inches

71
Q

After the aircraft has been run using external electrical power, the crew initializes the aircraft on battery power. Numerous BUCS ON indications and FMC faults populate on the EUFD. Is this normal? How can the faults be cleared?

A

BUCS can become engaged when there is a mistrack between the controls and the (hydraulic) actuator. This commonly happens when external power is applied to the aircraft without hydraulic power… The BUCS Engagement/FMC fault condition may be cleared by applying hydraulic power and completing the FLT CNTRLS IBIT.

72
Q

When should the CPG assume control of the aircraft via the BUCS trigger select?

A

Only when the PLT is incapable of flying the aircraft.

73
Q

What associated systems will be lost if the EUFD displays PRI HYD PSI LOW?

A

BUCS and FMC (SCAS)

74
Q

What associated systems will be lost if the EUFD displays PRI HYD PSI LOW?

A

BUCS and FMC (SCAS)

75
Q

Does the primary hydraulic system incorporate a low level indicating switch, shutoff valve, or auxiliary isolation valve?

A

The primary hydraulic system has only a low level indicating switch. There is not mechanism to preserve hydraulic fluid, should fluid loss occur.

76
Q

If the EUFD displayed UTIL HYD LEVEL LOW, will the aircraft flight characteristics be affected? What system functions will the crew lose?

A

-The aircraft will fly no differently because the FMC works through the primary hydraulic system.
-The crew will lose hydraulic pressure to the external stores, ammo carrier drive, AWS turret, tailwheel unlock actuator, and utility side of the directional servo actuator for the tail rotor.

77
Q

After departing refuel, the crew accelerates to 120 KTAS at 8,000’/25°C when the EUFD displays the ENG 1 FIRE warning with associated audio and emergency panel indications, what will the P* ensure prior to moving a power lever or pressing the illuminated ENG FIRE button?

A

The P* must achieve either safe single engine airspeed or prepare for a single engine landing (forced landing).

78
Q

What will happen if a FIRE pushbutton is pressed, even if no fire is detected?

A

Fuel to the selected engine or APU will be shut off. This action can only be reversed from the same crew station.

79
Q

What sequence of events happens when an illuminated FIRE button is pressed?

A

-Arms the fire extinguishing system
-Shuts of fuel to the indicated engine or APU
-Shuts off bleed air from the indicated engine or APU
-Closes the fire louvers to the indicated engine
-Stops the voice warning message for both crew stations
-Extinguishes the MSTR WARN light in that crew station

80
Q

Should a fire occur in the aft deck, pass-through bay, or tail boom, how can the crew prevent smoke from being introduced into the crew station?

A

Power the Environmental Control System (ECS) OFF. (A/C UTIL page)

81
Q

While flying 135 KTAS and escorting a UH-60 on an urgent MEDEVAC at 6,000’/35°C, the smell of burning electrical equipment and wiring fills the CPG station. What are the pilot’s immediate action steps?

A

GEN1 and GEN2 Switches – OFF
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

82
Q

Reference the scenario in Question 5. What should the P* do with the flight controls prior to selecting GEN1 and GEN2 to OFF?

While flying 135 KTAS and escorting a UH-60 on an urgent MEDEVAC at 6,000’/35°C, the smell of burning electrical equipment and wiring fills the CPG station. What are the pilot’s immediate action steps?
GEN1 and GEN2 Switches – OFF
LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE

A

The collective should be lowered to a setting to prevent loss of NR when the Engine ANTI-ICE/SBV automatically opens.

83
Q

What are the three positions of the NVS Mode select switch?

A

OFF, NORM, FIXED

Daily Questions (9 decks)

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