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ESWS Board > Operations > Flashcards

Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible to the CO for all facets of the Operations Department?

A

Operations Officer (CDR Ward)

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2
Q

Who is responsible for the coordination of all CIC functions and watches?

A

Combat Information Center (CIC) Officer

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3
Q

“To provide the organizational collection, display, evaluation, and dissemination of pertinent tactical information and intelligence command and control stations”

A

Primary mission of CIC

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4
Q

What does GPDED stand for?

A

Gather, Process, Display, Evaluate, Disseminate

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5
Q

“To control and or assist in the specific operations as delegated” (control and assist)

A

Secondary mission of CIC

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6
Q

Derived inputs from all sensors (I.e. RADARs, data links, GCCS-M, lookouts, gun mounts, voice circuits, SSES, JIC, J-Dial, networks, message traffic cameras)

A

Gathering

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7
Q

Convert the data to useful information (ACDS, SYS-2)

A

Processing

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8
Q

The information reaching status boards or RADAR scopes (I.e. show the info on JP-451, 0J-535, SPA-25G, ASTAB, status board, LSD, monitors)

A

Display

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9
Q

Determining what info is or what it means to the ship (effect the information has on the SOP)

A

Evaluation

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10
Q

Getting the information to the stations that require it (I.e. out stations/customers)

A

Dissemination

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11
Q

Who is the direct advisor from the display/decision area and had CO directed weapons release authority in self defense of the ship?

A

Tactical Action Officer (TAO)

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12
Q

Who is the principal assistant to the Officer of the Deck through the TAO?

A

CIC Watch Officer (CICWO)

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13
Q

Who is responsible for the collection and display of all available electronic warfare info?

A

Electronic Warfare Supervisor (EWS)

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14
Q

Who is responsible for all hostile aviation tracks and ships responses to air threats?

A

Anti-air warfare coordinator (AAWC)

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15
Q

Who are responsible for the intercept of hostile aircraft targets?

A

Air Controllers (AIC)

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16
Q

Who has overall control of the enlisted watch station in CIC?

A

CIC Watch Supervisor (CICWS)

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17
Q

Who operates the SPA-25G/OJ-45I?

A

RADAR Operator

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18
Q

Who is responsible for the close in surface picture while close to shore; manned during sea and anchor?

A

Shipping Officer

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19
Q

Who is responsible for manned during sea and anchor and assists the bridge in navigation?

A

Piloting Officer

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20
Q

Who plots the ships course through the water and ensures the ship stays on course?

A

Navigation Plotter

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21
Q

This is an order sent to command by the big navy that assigns the mission

A

Operational Order (OPORDER)

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22
Q

This is a plan formulated by TASK FORCE/GROUP to execute the order

A

Operational Plan (OPLAN)

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23
Q

The plan step by step

A

Operational Task (OPTASK)

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24
Q

This is a temporary grouping of military units or forces under one commander for the performance of a specific operation or assignment

A

Task Force

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25
Q

A component of a naval task unit organized by the commander of a task unit or higher authority

A

Task Element

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26
Q

A standing operational naval task force organization of carriers, surface combatants, and submarines assigned to numbered fleet

A

Battle Force

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27
Q

A naval force composed of a variable number of warships, escorts, and supply vessels depending on the mission

A

Battle group

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28
Q

This is a large area picture showing position, movement, and strength of friendly and enemy forces within a prescribed operating area

A

Strategic Plot

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29
Q

A comprehensive true plot of positions and tracks of friendly, enemy, and unidentified surface, air, and subsurface contacts true display of surface tracks (DDRT)

A

Surface Summary Plot

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30
Q

A display of positions and movement of all friendly, enemy, and unidentified tracks (radars)

A

Geographic Plot

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31
Q

Normally covers an area having a radius of 250 nautical miles from the ship

A

Air summary

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32
Q

Displays a summary of surface data (list of all friendly ship names, modes, hull numbers for quick identification)

A

Surface status board

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33
Q

Up to date info on ships equipment (I.e. formation designation, screen compositions,ECOM, base course, speed, wind direction, and weapons systems/postures, equipment status)

A

Equipment status board

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34
Q

A display indicating radio circuits, assigned frequencies, circuit designations, listing of quick programmable channelization of patched UHF equipment for “quick dial” etc)

A

Communication status board

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35
Q

What displays info on intercept and radar, guard assignments, and ECOM conditions in effect, radiation characteristics of equipment on own ship and ships in company displays electronic warfare information (I.e. ECOM, radar in area, chaff)?

A

EW information board

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36
Q

What allows equipped shops to share radar footprint and track data?

A

Data links

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37
Q

What are the three types of links?

A

Link 11, link 16, and link 4a

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38
Q

Which data link is secure 2-way, ship to ship and ship to air?

A

Link 11

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39
Q

Which data link is secure 2-way, sends tracks to another system, frequency hops, ship to ship and ship to air?

A

Link 16

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40
Q

Which data link is secure 1-way, ship to air?

A

Link 4a

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41
Q

How many modes does the identification friend or foe (IFFF) have?

A

4 modes + charlie

1-Mission
2-Military
3-Military/Civilian
4-Encrypted ID (Allies only)
C-Altitude
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42
Q

This serves as a homing beacon and provides course guidance to and from the transmitting station (BHR) and helps pilots find their way home

A

Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)

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43
Q

What defines bearing and true north?

A

Gyro repeater

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44
Q

What displays the picture emitted from a radar (SPA-25G)?

A

RADAR Repeater

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45
Q

What displays the tracking of the ship from multiple inputs, gives a birds eye view of ship and tactical battle picture?

A

DDRT (Digital Dead Reckoning Tracer)

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46
Q

These are patched in, assigned different channels, RADIO controls the frequencies, voice command with other units

A

Radiotelephones

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47
Q

A combination of digital charts, constant global position system fixes, environmental sensors, and electronic command and control, getting its inputs from gyro and pitsword

A

Voyage management system (VMS)

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48
Q

Depending on conditions, can either increase or decrease radar effectiveness

A

Atmospheric conditions

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49
Q

Large waves show up on the screen making it impossible to see small targets

A

Sea return

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50
Q

Dry air improves speed and range rain and fog can show up and decrease range

A

Weather

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51
Q

Radar is basically line of sight so the higher the better

A

Height of antenna and target

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52
Q

What assists the CIC in safe navigation?

A

Pilot house

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53
Q

What works with the CIC to visually verify the info obtained electronically?

A

Signal Bridge

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54
Q

What provides CIC with radiotelephone circuits and provides external comms?

A

Radio Central

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55
Q

What exchanges info with the CIC regarding defense of the ship and damage inflicted on targets?

A

Weapons station

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56
Q

Who visually confirms CIC of all contacts within sight range

A

Lookouts

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57
Q

What is a reduction of the use of signals in certain frequency ranges or signals of any kind transmitted from the ship?

A

Emission Control (EMCOM)

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58
Q

Detects radar signals

A

Electronic support (ES)

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59
Q

Jamming the radar signal emitted

A

Electronic attack (EA)

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60
Q

Countermeasure to jam the person who is jamming your signal

A

Electronic Protect (EP)

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61
Q

Which landing craft has 60+ knots advertised speed, 200 miles max range, and 75 tons capacity?

A

LCAC (Lansing craft air cushion)

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62
Q

Which landing craft has 8 knots, 1200 miles max range, 440 troops or 170 tons (but not both at the same time)?

A

LCU (landing craft utility)

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63
Q

Which landing craft can stay 7 hours at sea, 200 NM on land, carries 21 troops or 10,000 lbs of cargo?

A

AAV (Amphibious Armored Vehicle)

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64
Q

Which is used for logistics support over the beach, 10 knots in water, 35 knots on land, range 200nm on land, 40 miles on water, crew of 2?

A

LARC-V (Lighter Amphibious Resupply Cargo)

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65
Q

Which radio/voice message has 10 minutes or less process time?

A

Flash(z)

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66
Q

Which radio/voice message has 30 minutes process time?

A

Immediate (O)

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67
Q

Which radio/voice message has 3 hours process time?

A

Priority (P)

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68
Q

Which radio/voice message has 6 hours process time?

A

Routine (R)

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69
Q

The condition imposed in a specific communications area to reduce voice and record traffic so that essential traffic can be efficiently handled cut down unnecessary traffic

A

Minimize

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70
Q

Identify specific items of information which if revealed and correlated w/ other information, would degrade the security of military operations, projects, or missions in the applicable area

A

EEFI (Essential Elements of Friendly Information)

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71
Q

A term describing a real-time procedure used to alert circuit operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred

A

Beadwindow

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72
Q

A possible intruder on the radio net

A

Gingerbread

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73
Q

Expected to cause damage to our nation, and/or embarrassment to the US and it’s allies

A

Confidential (blue)

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74
Q

Cause serious damage to national security

A

Secret (red)

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75
Q

Cause exceptionally grave damage to our national security

A

Top Secret (orange)

76
Q

This is the CO directed destruction of sensitive and classified material in case of emergency (I.e. ship under distress, hostile fire, imminent boarding)

A

Emergency destruction

77
Q

Which type of casualty report (CASREP) deals with the cause of the casualty and initial troubleshooting efforts?

A

Initial

78
Q

Which CASREP updates trouble shooting efforts, parts status, tech assists?

A

Update

79
Q

Which CASREP deals with the notification of fully operational system?

A

Correction

80
Q

Which CASREP deals with incorrectly sent CASREP or ship entering shipyard period?

A

Cancellation

81
Q

Severe incident; accidents with nuclear weapons, reports of armed attack on US or allied personnel or territories, or reports of nuclear detonations of any kind (a very big deal)

A

OPREP-3 Pinnacle

82
Q

Minor but newsworthy incidents involving foreign nationals (ex. Sailor vs foreign nationals)

A

OPREP-3 Navy Blue

83
Q

Minor incident which the CO wants to lay out in detail to the chain of command (ex. Sailor vs Sailor)

A

Unit Situation Report (SITREP)

84
Q

Which provides the organized collection, display, evaluation and dissemination of pertinent tactical information and intelligence command and control stations?

A

Combat information center (CIC)

85
Q

Which is responsible for providing and producing the intelligence required to support the joint force commander and staff, components, task forces and elements and the national intelligence community?

A

Joint Intelligence Center (JIC)

86
Q

What provides indication and warnings for BHR (ARG) derives from all source fusion analysis?

A

Expeditionary plot (EXPLOT)

87
Q

In an emergency, the commander of the amphibious task force may use embarked marine air defense units to provide air defense protection for the task force

A

Emergency Defense of the Amphibious Task Force (EDATF)

88
Q

What gives the status of the ship and op forces to the TAO AND CO?

A

Automated Status Board (ASTAB)

89
Q

This is the true geographic plot of the ships course from the air; it has 2 modes: normal is 2000 yards and emergency is 200 yards

A

Digital Dead Recking Tracer (DDRT)

Dead Reckoning Tracer (DRT)

90
Q

Gives TAO a picture of the battlefield and areas around the ship, GCCS-M displays the strategic picture, and the ACDS displays the tactical picture

A

Large Screen Display

91
Q

What controls all aircraft movement from 5 to 59 miles from the ship?

A

AATCC (Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center)

92
Q

Which radar used by AATCC has the precision approach for harriers, 20 NM?

A

SPN-41

93
Q

Which radar used by AATC has precision approach for helos, 10 NM

A

SPN-35

94
Q

Which radar used by AATC has approach radar 60 NM?

A

SPN-43

95
Q

This provides whether information and it’s effect on all operations and CASE I procedures (the limitation on pilots and aircraft and how many aircraft controllers are required for AATC)

A

Meteorological Center (METOC)

96
Q

Which method of aircraft refueling occurs with the aircraft engine off?

A

Cold Refueling (aircraft shut down)

97
Q

Which method of aircraft refueling occurs with the aircraft engine running?

A

Hot refueling

98
Q

What tells the condition of the ship and flight deck (I.e. the ship can be at HERO/ECOM)?

A

Flight deck status lights

99
Q

What is used to light the tram line during NVG operations (use infrared red light) or night operations (use night lights)?

A

Vertical short take off and landing (V/STOL)

100
Q

The primary purpose is to rescue air crew from the crashed aircraft on the flight deck; secondary purpose is to salvage the aircraft

A

Crash and salvage team

101
Q

This fire fighting system provides a dual fire fighting capability AFFF system and three 15lb Halon bottles

A

A/S32P-25

102
Q

The primary vehicle for the removal of damages or disabled aircraft aboard the navy’s LHD class amphibious aviation ships; lifting capacity is 70,000 lbs

A

A/S32A-36 Amphibious Assault Ship Crash Crane (AACC)

103
Q

Who is responsible for the supervision and direction of the launching, landing, shipboard handling and servicing of the aircraft per current instructions?

A

Air Boss

104
Q

Who aids the air officer in ensuring that his/her plans, orders, and instructions are carried out; also acts as assistant department head and departmental training officer?

A

Mini Boss

105
Q

Who is responsible for the safe moving of aircraft and vehicles on flight deck and hangar bay?

A

Aircraft handler

106
Q

Who works on MHE AND GSE gear used for moving and servicing of aircraft?

A

Ground support equipment (AS)

107
Q

Who works on uninstalled aircraft engines?

A

Power plants (AD)

108
Q

Who works on metallic and non metallic uninstalled aircraft components?

A

Airframes/hydraulics (AM)

109
Q

Who works on the calibration of aircraft parts?

A

Consolidated calibration (AT, AE)

110
Q

Who is on the avionics of aircraft?

A

Avionics (AT, AE)

111
Q

Who sets the priority of maintenance for AIMD?

A

Production and material control ( AZ, LS)

112
Q

Composed of our rates and prevent a reoccurrence of defects

A

Quality assurance (QA)

113
Q

Which flight deck status condition refers to start and stop engines can’t move aircraft?

A

Red deck

114
Q

Which flight deck status condition refers to engage/disengage rotors start and stop engines and can move aircraft?

A

Amber deck

115
Q

Which flight deck status condition refers to launch/recovery aircraft engage/disengage rotors start and stop engines can move aircraft?

A

Green deck

116
Q

Flight deck crew combat photo maintenance technicians

A

Green

117
Q

Flight deck crew landing signal enlisted

A

Yellow

118
Q

Flight deck crew fuels

A

Purple

119
Q

Flight deck crew crash and salvage

A

Red

120
Q

Flight deck crew LSO embarks with ACE combat cargo

A

White

121
Q

Flight deck crew safety

A

White with green cross

122
Q

Flight deck crew medical

A

White with red cross

123
Q

Flight deck crew plane captain lead maintenance technician

A

Brown

124
Q

Flight deck crew chock and chain, tractor drivers, elevator operators

A

Blue

125
Q

Flight deck crew ordinance

A

Red with black stripe

126
Q

What is performed to check the area for anything (pieces of trash or loose articles, tools, etc.) that could cause damage to aircraft or personnel?

A

Foreign object damage (FOD) walk down

127
Q

3-D air search radar, max range 220 NM

A

SPS-48

128
Q

2D air search radar, max range 256 NM

A

SPS-49

129
Q

Surface/primary navigation (bridge), max range 96 NM

A

SPS-67

130
Q

Primary surface search radar (CIC) max range 96 NM

A

SPS-67

131
Q

Weapons control radar, max range 110 NM (long pulse) and 22.5 NM (short)

A

MK-23 Target acquisition system (TAS)

132
Q

Approach radar max range 60 NM

A

SPN-43

133
Q

Information sharing of OP area assets, OTH targeting

A

(JMCIS) joints Maritime command information system

134
Q

Gives status of ship and OP forces to the TAO, CO and CPR- 11 etc.

A

(ASTAB) Automated status board

135
Q

True geographic plot of the ships course from the air, it has two modes, normal is 2000 yards and emergency is 200 yards

A

Digital dead reckoning tracer (DDRT)/Dead reckoning tracer (DRT)

136
Q

Gives TAO a picture of the battlefield and areas around the ship

A

Large Screen display (LSD)

137
Q

Surface to surface command ship and it’s Picket ships (alligator)

A

Link 11

138
Q

Ship to ship and air to air, VHF, frequency hops (timber)

A

Link 16

139
Q

What gathers Intel from Mission planners, prediction plans responses?

A

Joint intelligence Center (JIC)

140
Q

Humanitarian operation (evacuating in Embassy)

A

Noncombatant evacuation operation (NEO)

141
Q

Length of the ship

A

844 feet, 281 yards

142
Q

Beam of the shift

A

106 of the hull, 209 at the deck edge elevators

143
Q

Draft of the ship

A

27.5 feet

144
Q

Displacement of the ship

A

40,000 tons

145
Q

Maximum speed

A

20+ knots

146
Q

Complement

A

3,244 sailors and Marines

147
Q

The order from big Navy given to Conduct a certain Mission

A

Initiating directive

148
Q

A step-by-step tasking of the amphibious mission and how it needs to be carried out

A

OPTASK amphibious

149
Q

Overall in charge of amphibious operations

A

Commander amphibious task force (CATF) “commodore”

150
Q

Responsible for marines once they hit the beach

A

Commander landing force (CLF)

151
Q

In charge of specific beach and boat lanes, there can be multiple PC

A

Primary control ship (PCS)

152
Q

Responsible for the LCAC’s And they’re landing zone

A

LCAC control ship (LCS)

153
Q

In control of one wave (one wave can include up to 10 landing craft at one time)

A

Boat wave commander (BWC)

154
Q

In control of a specific amount of waves (I.e. 5 waves)

A

Boat group commander (BGC)

155
Q

Second ship in command if PCS cannot perform their duties

A

Secondary control ship (SCS)

156
Q

Marine CIC used for gun fire support and coordination

A

Supporting arms coordination center (SACC)

157
Q

Where the staff of the 31st MEU conducts command and control

A

Landing forces operation center (LFOC)

158
Q

CFT 76/CPR 11 staff controls and administration and evolutions

A

Flag plot

159
Q

Responsible for logistics for amphibious assault such as troops and supplies on the beach

A

Tactical logistics (TACLOG)

160
Q

Responsible for all aircraft in the amphibious objective area (AOA)/area of responsibility (AOR)

A

Tactical air control center (TACC)

161
Q

Watches landing operations and well deck operations

A

Debarkation Control (DEBARK)

162
Q

Day of assault

A

D Day

163
Q

First landing craft to reach the beach

A

H hour

164
Q

First helicopter to reach the landing zone

A

L hour

165
Q

CATF, CLF meet to discuss an amphibious operation, use NWP 3-2.1 to create OPTASK amphibious

A

Planning

166
Q

CO brings amphibian units aboard

A

Embarkation

167
Q

Certification and training of landing forces and supporting units

A

Rehearsal

168
Q

Transit to amphibious objective area may occur simultaneously with the rehearsal phase

A

Movement

169
Q

Storming the beach

A

Assault

170
Q

Responsible for all equipment and personnel going on and off the ship PMC (passengers, mail, cargo)

A

Combat cargo

171
Q

What to puts marines on the beach (fast reaction force)

A

Marine expeditionary unit (MEU)

172
Q

And acoustic and electromagnetic decoy designed to make the ship appear louder and longer

A

SLQ-25 (NIXIE)

173
Q

What are designed to target the middle of the vessel and explode underneath

A

Torpedoes

174
Q

This is a landing craft designed for carrying vehicles, can fit eight in the well deck

A

(LCM) landing craft mechanized

175
Q

A vehicle or craft that is a means of transport, viable on land as well as on water

A

(LAAV) light armored amphibious vehicle

176
Q

Essential to ship operation but non-essential for amphibious operations (I.e. RAS/dumping trash)

A

(SEA) sea echelon area

177
Q

First place out of the well deck, the same type of crafts pre-stage here

A

Assembly circles

178
Q

Well deck

A

Debarkation station

179
Q

Where craft received battle formation assignment

A

Wave forming circles

180
Q

Testing COMMS and giving safe recommendation to landing craft to get to the LOD

A

Control to the line of departure (LOD)

181
Q

Path from the LOD to the landing area

A

Boat Lane

182
Q

Beginning point to start landing craft to H hour

A

LCAC departure point (CDP)

183
Q

Specific geographical points to verify on time for H hour

A

LCAC control point (CCP)

184
Q

Points where on load and offload personnel and equipment

A

LCAC landing zone (CLZ)

185
Q

Ships tell craft of current location

A

Positive

186
Q

Navigator is not assisted by ship for navigational status

A

Independent

187
Q

Ship provides helpful data

A

Advisory

ESWS Board (11 decks)

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