Operations Flashcards
Which of the following patients could you legally treat and transport without consent?
A) 17-year-old conscious male who sustained a fractured femur
B) A 6-month-old infant in respiratory distress whose parents refuse care
C) A 16-year-old married female who is awake and alert after falling
D) An adult patient who is alert after the administration of dextrose
Answer: A
Patients younger than 18 years cannot legally give consent to treatment, nor can they legally refuse transport. Exceptions to this include female minors who are emancipated or married. Before treating or transporting a child, you must obtain consent from at least one parent. Patients who awaken after the administration of glucose present a unique challenge; however, provided that they are conscious and alert, are of legal age, and have decision-making capacity at the time of refusal, they can legally refuse further treatment or transport. Contact medical control when faced with such a situation.
You are triaging first-grade students at a school bus crash and encounter a small child who is unresponsive and apneic. After opening the child’s airway, he remains apneic. You should:
A) assess for a palpable pulse.
B) provide five rescue breaths.
C) place a red tag on the child.
D) place a black tag on the child
Answer: A
The JumpSTART triage system is intended for use in children younger than 8 years of age or who appear to weigh less than 100 pounds. According to the JumpSTART triage system, if you encounter an unresponsive apneic child, you should open his or her airway. If breathing resumes, he or she is triaged as immediate (red tag). If breathing does not resume, assess for a palpable pulse. If there is no pulse, he or she is triaged as deceased (black tag). If a pulse is present, provide 5 rescue breaths. If breathing resumes, triage him or her as immediate. If the child remains apneic after 5 rescue breaths, triage him or her as deceased.
While caring for a conscious patient, you contact medical control and receive orders to perform an intervention. You should:
A) ask medical control to repeat the order.
B) perform the intervention and reassess the patient.
C) obtain the patient’s consent and perform the intervention.
D) repeat the order word for word back to medical control.
Answer: D
When receiving any order from medical control, your first action should be to repeat the order back word for word as you heard it. This confirms that you heard the order correctly. After confirming the order, you must obtain consent from the patient, ensuring that you inform him or her of the risks and benefits of the intervention. If the patient consents, perform the intervention, reassess the patient, and document the patient’s response to the intervention.
You are completing your patient care report but cannot remember the reading of the last blood pressure that you took, so you enter a fictitious value. The MOST detrimental result of your action would be:
A) revocation of your AEMT certification.
B) suspension by your local EMS system.
C) litigation brought against you by the patient’s family.
D) substandard care that has been provided to the patient.
Answer: D
Among all of the legal ramifications that accompany the falsification of a patient care report, substandard care of the patient would be the greatest detrimental result, in the prehospital setting and the subsequent care provided at the hospital.
An effective method for reducing stress in an obviously anxious bystander at the scene of an emergency is to:
A) tell the bystander to leave the scene at once.
B) assign the bystander minor tasks unrelated to patient care.
C) recruit the bystander for such tasks as crowd and traffic control.
D) advise the bystander to keep at a safe distance and observe the situation.
Answer: B
One of the most effective ways to reduce stress and anxiety in a bystander at the scene of an emergency is to assign the bystander minor tasks that are not related to patient care, such as providing rescuers with water or other needed supplies. The goal is to occupy the bystander’s mind and make the bystander feel as though he or she is helping. It is not safe to tell an obviously upset bystander to go home, because he or she deserves appropriate care and attention as well. Such functions as crowd and traffic control are responsibilities of law enforcement.
You are providing care to a critically injured patient involved in a shooting. Which of the following statements regarding the completion of your patient care report is correct?
A) You should complete the patient care form after you have stabilized the patient
B) You should complete the prehospital care report after your arrival at the receiving facility
C) You should use a verbal report in place of a written report when managing any critical patient
D) You should document all actions immediately after they are performed to ensure accuracy
Answer: B
The patient care report is an important aspect of patient care. It should be completed for all patients as soon as possible; however, you should not delay care of a critically ill or injured patient for the purpose of completing the patient care report. Focus your efforts on caring for the patient and complete your patient care report after transferring care at the hospital.
During a triage operation, you encounter a 5-year-old boy who has been injured. He is conscious, cannot walk, and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths/min. You should:
A) move him to the treatment area and administer high-flow oxygen.
B) assign him an immediate triage category and move to the next patient.
C) assign him a delayed triage category and move to the next patient.
D) assess for a peripheral pulse and determine his level of orientation.
Answer: B
The JumpSTART triage system is intended for use in children younger than 8 years of age or who appear to weigh less than 100 pounds. According to the JumpSTART triage system, if the child’s respiratory rate is less than 15 breaths/min or greater than 45 breaths/min, he or she should be assigned an immediate triage category (red tag). After placing a red tag on the child, move to the next patient. If the respiratory rate is between 15 and 45 breaths/min, the next step would be to assess for a palpable pulse. The only treatment provided during the JumpSTART triage system would be to deliver 5 rescue breaths if the child remains apneic (and has a palpable pulse) after positioning the upper airway.
To ensure the safest response to an emergency scene, you should:
A) always operate the ambulance with due regard for others.
B) use police escorts when proceeding through intersections.
C) continuously use your siren until you arrive at the scene.
D) exceed the speed limit only when responding to a critical call.
Answer: A
Whether you are operating an ambulance in an emergent or nonemergent mode, you must always drive with due regard for those around you, which means that you must be prepared for erratic movements of other drivers and never assume that they will see or hear you. The use of escorts is discouraged because of the risk of a “wake effect” collision, which occurs after a police or other escort vehicle clears a red light or intersection for you and proceeds. The other drivers may not be expecting a second response vehicle, thus leading to an accident in the intersection. Siren use does not guarantee a safe response, and increased speed clearly increases the risk of a crash.
You are providing care to a patient with chest pain and elect to start an IV line. However, you did not advise the patient of your decision before starting the IV line. As a result, you could be held liable for:
A) assault.
B) battery.
C) breach of duty.
D) proximate cause.
Answer: B
Battery is defined as touching the patient without his or her expressed consent. You should never assume that a conscious patient will readily accept your treatment and must apprise the patient of what you intend to do before carrying out the task. Assault is defined as instilling fear in a patient without touching him or her. Breach of duty occurs when the AEMT failed to act as another prudent AEMT would have acted under the same or similar circumstances. Proximate cause is defined as the direct relationship between the AEMT’s actions (or inactions) and the patient’s injury or illness.
What level of protection is required for a hazardous material that has a toxicity level of 4?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer: A
The toxicity level, as indicated on the placard, dictates the level of protective equipment that must be worn. A hazardous material with a toxicity level of 4, the highest level of toxicity (minimal exposure causes death), requires level A protection. Level A protection is fully encapsulated, chemical-resistant protective clothing that provides full body protection; a self-contained breathing apparatus; and special, sealed equipment. Although most AEMTs do not specialize in hazardous materials, it is still important to know the different levels of hazardous material toxicity and the protective equipment that is required for each level. Use your Emergency Response Guidebook when responding to any potential hazardous materials incident.
Which of the following statements regarding the anger stage of the grieving process is correct?
A) Displaced anger is not a personal attack on the individual to whom it is directed
B) The anger stage is typically the last emotional outlet that the patient experiences
C) The patient’s anger is typically contained within, with little evidence of the patient’s feelings
D) When the patient is faced with a terminal illness, anger is not a typical stage of grieving
Answer: A
The first stage of the grieving process is typically the anger stage. Not only is the patient angry at him- or herself, as in the case of a person with a terminal illness, but he or she can also project that anger toward others, including EMS personnel. It is important to understand that this displaced anger is not a personal attack on the person to whom it is directed. All stages of the grieving process, no matter how unpleasant they can be for the patient, family, and rescuer, are healthy responses that ultimately allow the patient or family member to come to terms with the situation.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce the stress and anxiety in a patient who is experiencing severe chest pain or discomfort?
A) Provide reassurance and a safe, comfortable transport
B) Administer high-flow oxygen by nonrebreathing mask
C) Allow a family member to drive the patient to the hospital
D) Assure the patient that he or she is not having a heart attack
Answer: A
Reassurance and a safe, comfortable transport to the hospital are both very effective ways to reduce stress and anxiety in a patient. You should never lie to a patient about his or her potential condition. Clearly, a patient with a suspected acute myocardial infarction should be transported to the hospital by ambulance, not by a private vehicle. Oxygen is used to treat hypoxemia, not stress and anxiety.
Which of the following practices would provide you with the BEST protection from legal liability?
A) Constantly reinforce your knowledge through continuing education
B) Treat all patients and their family members with courtesy and respect
C) Maintain a consistently high standard of care when treating all patients
D) Deliver patients to their choice hospital, regardless of their clinical condition
Answer: C
Your best protection from legal liability is to consistently provide a high standard of care to all patients, including performing thorough assessments, providing appropriate and timely treatment, and thoroughly documenting the call. You should treat all patients and their family members with courtesy and respect, regardless of how they may treat you. Continuing education is intended to expand your knowledge base of new trends in emergency medical care. In general, patients should be transported to the hospital of their choice, unless their clinical condition warrants transport to a closer or more appropriate facility.
In which of the following situations is proximate cause on the part of the AEMT clearly established?
A) severely hypoxic chronic obstructive pulmonary disease patient is given low-flow oxygen and subsequently develops cardiac arrest
B) A conscious and alert patient with chest pain refuses oxygen and is diagnosed with a myocardial infarction at the hospital
C) An AEMT establishes an IV line of normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate on a patient with obvious pulmonary edema
D) A mentally competent adult involved in a minor motor vehicle crash refuses care and is subsequently diagnosed with a spinal fracture
Answer: A
Proximate cause is defined as a direct relationship between the AEMT’s actions or inactions and the patient’s injury or illness. In this particular case, if the AEMT had treated the patient appropriately (administered high-flow oxygen or assisted ventilations), the patient’s outcome may have been different. If an error is made and the AEMT takes the appropriate action to correct the error, the risk of being accused of negligence is minimized. Proximate cause could not be established in any of the other choices in this question because the patient either refused care, in whole or in part, or was treated appropriately by the AEMT.
As you are loading a conscious and alert middle-aged man with severe chest pain into the ambulance, he tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this type of situation is correct?
A) Once a patient is in the ambulance, you must transport the patient to the hospital
B) A mentally competent adult can withdraw consent at any time he or she chooses
C) Any sick or injured patient must be transported to the hospital with or without consent
D) A patient can only refuse care if there is a mentally competent witness to assume responsibility for the patient
Answer: B
A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse care and to withdraw consent once it has been given. To further treat and transport a mentally competent patient who withdraws consent could constitute assault, battery, or false imprisonment.
When approaching a vehicle at night in which a patient is slumped over the steering wheel, you should:
A) position the ambulance in front of the vehicle when possible.
B) approach the patient from the front of the car for maximum visibility.
C) ask the patient to get out of the vehicle and then provide emergency care.
D) shine a light in the side view mirror until you determine that it is safe to approach.
Answer: D
You and your partner’s safety are of primary concern; therefore, the best approach to take in the situation in which a patient is slumped over the steering wheel of the car is to approach the vehicle from the rear. Shining a light into the side view mirror prevents the person from seeing you until you can determine that the patient is safe to contact. Unfortunately, it is common for individuals to fake illness or injury with the intent of harming the responding personnel.
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, quickly size up the scene, and note that there are two patients who are critically injured. Which of the following should be your MOST immediate priority?
A) Contact medical control and request direction
B) Call for a second ambulance to respond to the scene
C) Stabilize both patients and then call for another ambulance
D) Immediately load both patients in the ambulance and transport
Answer: B
Considering that you can only manage one critical patient effectively per ambulance (with two AEMTs), you should call for additional resources immediately on determining that there are more patients than you and your partner can effectively manage. After requesting additional help, you should then provide care to the best of your ability until help arrives.
An off-duty AEMT stops at the scene of a cardiac arrest on the highway. During the course of providing care to the patient, he correctly inserts an advanced airway device. Which of the following statements about the AEMT’s actions is correct?
A) The AEMT could be held liable for practicing medicine without a license
B) The AEMT was off duty and is therefore protected by the Good Samaritan law
C) The AEMT performed in accordance with the standard of care for his level of training
D) The AEMT is legally covered provided that he notifies his medical director after the incident
Answer: A
Even though the AEMT performed the skill appropriately and in the correct circumstance, advanced life support providers are not allowed to function as such when not on duty or affiliated with an EMS system under the auspices of a medical director. Doing so is considered practicing medicine without a license.
Which of the following statements regarding ionizing radiation is correct?
A) Beta radiation is less penetrating than alpha radiation and cannot move through most objects
B) Neutron particles easily penetrate through lead and require several feet of concrete to stop them
C) Ionizing radiation is stable by nature and changes its structure in a natural process called decay
D) Gamma rays are more penetrating than beta radiation, but can still be stopped by thick clothing
Answer: B
Ionizing radiation is energy that is emitted in the form of rays or particles. This energy can be found in radioactive material, such as rocks and metals. Radioactive material is any material that emits radiation. This material is unstable, and it attempts to stabilize itself by changing its structure in a natural process called decay. As the substance decays, it emits radiation until it stabilizes. The energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source is alpha, beta, gamma (x-ray), or neutron radiation. Alpha is the least harmful type of penetrating radiation and cannot move through most objects. In fact, a sheet of paper or the body’s skin easily stops it. Beta radiation is slightly more penetrating that alpha and requires a layer of clothing to stop it. Gamma rays are far faster and stronger than alpha and beta rays. These rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to stop them. Neutron particles are among the most powerful forms of radiation. Neutrons easily penetrate through lead and require several feet of concrete to stop them. It is important to note that any form of ionizing radiation is harmful if ingested.
Your ultimate goal in caring for a patient with an acute psychiatric crisis should be to:
A) obtain as much information as you can.
B) safely transport the patient to the hospital.
C) gather all medications that the patient is taking.
D) determine if the patient is a threat to him- or herself.
Answer: B
Acute psychiatric crises present a challenge for the prehospital care provider. As an AEMT, your ultimate goal should be to transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility, while ensuring the safety of yourself, your partner, and the patient. Definitive care for these patients can only be provided in a hospital setting. When caring for a patient with an acute psychiatric crisis, you should get law enforcement involved.
During a mass-casualty incident, incoming personnel gather at a central point, where they are sent to various areas of the scene. This central point is referred to as the:
A) staging area
B) triage sector.
C) command post.
D) transport sector.
Answer: A
The staging area in a mass-casualty incident (MCI) is where all incoming resources congregate and are sent to the most appropriate locations by the staging officer, who should be in constant communication with the incident commander.
What is the MOST common reason that victims of spousal abuse do not report the crime?
A) Inconvenience
B) Feelings of guilt
C) Fear of retribution
D) Love for their spouse
Answer: C
Male and female patients who have been abused by their spouses typically do not report the crime to the authorities because of the fear of retribution from their spouse. These patients generally want to come forward; however, they are simply scared.
Which of the following situations BEST depicts gross negligence?
A) An AEMT documents that a laryngoscope handle is fully functional, although he knows that the batteries are dead
B) An AEMT incorrectly inserts a supraglottic airway device, but quickly recognizes the error and takes corrective action
C) An AEMT administers epinephrine to a patient in anaphylactic shock after contact with medical control is unsuccessful
D) An AEMT administers oral glucose to a conscious diabetic, who subsequently loses consciousness and aspirates the glucose
Answer: A
Gross negligence occurs when the AEMT knowingly performs an action that is clearly inappropriate. Documenting that a piece of equipment is functional when it clearly is not is an example of gross negligence. Direct harm could come to a patient if the equipment is needed but is non-functional. If a mistake is made and corrective action is taken, the likelihood of being accused of gross negligence is minimized. Patients clinical conditions are dynamic; they can change at any moment. If a patient is conscious and has a low blood sugar level, oral glucose is an appropriate intervention. It is beyond the AEMT’s control that the patient subsequently loses consciousness, and although the AEMT should immediately suction the patient’s airway, aspiration may still occur.
Which of the following requires immediate removal of an ambulance from service?
A) Belt noise
B) Tire squeal
C) Brake fade
D) Rightward drift
Answer: C
Any mechanical malfunction of an ambulance should be addressed by a mechanic as soon as possible; however, not all problems require immediate removal of the unit from service. Tire squeal for example, warrants a mechanic’s attention as soon as possible, but does not necessarily require immediate removal of the ambulance from service. Tire squeal is a singing sound that occurs when you turn the vehicle, especially at parking speeds. Squealing is normal on very smooth concrete, but not on asphalt. The most common cause of tire squeal is an underinflated tire, a problem that can easily be fixed by checking the tire pressure and adding air as needed. Belt noise is a chirping or squealing sound, synchronous with engine speed (not road speed). It is usually related to a load on one of the appliances operated by a drive belt. Belt noise is always significant and will eventually keep an ambulance from operating; however, it does not warrant immediate removal of the ambulance from service. Drift is a finding that when you let go of the steering wheel, the vehicle consistently wanders left or right. Any vehicle may normally drift slightly to the right because most roads are built with a crown in the center (so water drains toward the gutters). A vehicle should not consistently drift to the left, however. Any problem with the vehicle’s brake system warrants immediate removal of the vehicle from service. Brake fade is a sensation that an ambulance has lost its power brakes. Common causes of brake fade are overheating of brake surfaces, loss of vacuum, loss of brake fluid, wet or greasy brake drums, or a failed master cylinder. Even a single instance of brake fade warrants immediate removal of the vehicle from service.