Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBAA CAM > Operations > Flashcards

Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Which document is THE best reference document for SMS?

A

ICAO Doc 9859

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Flight operations hazard/incident report should be submitted:

(Reference: NBAA Prototypical Safety Program Manual
Content Area: OPS6 )

A

when a safety concern is detected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the BEST definition of a Sterile Cockpit?

A

Crew does not participate in non-essential conversations, reading, paperwork, use of mobile devices during ground operations involving taxi, take-off/landing or other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL except when an aircraft is in cruise flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Operational Control according to the FAA is determined by:

A

Exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, and terminating a flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A Part 135 operator is subject to the Twelve-Five Standard Security Program. The operator must adopt and carry out a security program that:

(Reference: 49 CFR 1544.103
Content Area: OPS8)

A. is approved by the POI at the local FSDO.

B. is subsequently posted in a common employee area.

C. prevents the carriage of firearms aboard program aircraft.

D. includes the name of the Aircraft Operator Security Coordinator.

A

D. includes the name of the Aircraft Operator Security Coordinator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who can perform an operational check of an aircraft after flight characteristics have been substantially affected

A

Appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilots certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The following facts about fatigue are true, except:

A

Fatigue can linger for up to 16 hours
Fatigue involves brain electrical activity
Fatigue decreases mental performance
–> Fatigue can be corrected with a good, overnight sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A company is planning to expand on an international level. The aviation department manager is responsible for:

(Reference: NBAA Management Guide
Content Area: OPS7)

A

assuring flight crews and aircraft comply with regulations involving airspace that will be flown through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The responsibility for the aviation department safety culture originates with the:

(Reference: NBAA Management Guide
Content Area: OPS6)

A

Corporate officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common type of Emergency Response exercise?

A

Tabletop Exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following training should be completed annually?

A. Safety Management Systems (SMS) Training & First Aid
B. CRM (crew resource mgmt.) / TEM (Threat & error mgmt. training)
C. Weather and weather avoidance training (NexRad and/or stormscope procedures)
D. International procedures training

A

A. Safety Management Systems (SMS) Training & First Aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During a nighttime arrival at MDW airport, the air carrier crew of the aircraft crossed an active runway while taxing to the FBO. While no other aircraft were affected by this runway incursion, the crew was reprimanded by ground control.

A

The crew does not need to notify the NTSB because the incursion did not affect any other aircraft operating at the airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An employee sustains a work-related wound at the company hangar that requires opening a first-aid kit for cleaning and bandaging a wound. Per OSHA reporting requirements:

(Reference: Occupational Safety & Health for Technologists, Engineers, & Managers, 8th Edition
Content Area: OPS3)

A

Correct Answer: A - the incident is not required to be reported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How often must RVSM monitoring be carved out in accordance with North American RVSM minimum monitoring requirements chart?

A

1000 hours or two years whichever occurs longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is the MOST important activity of a safety audit?

(Reference: Safety Management Systems in Aviation, 2nd edition
Content Area: OPS4)

A

Conduct detailed analysis of maintenance records and passenger logs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Safety Assurance includes which elements?

A
  1. Continuous improvement
  2. Safety performance monitoring and measurement
  3. Management of change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An aviation department manager is developing a safety management system (SMS). Which of the following personnel should be included in the development team?

(Reference: Business and Corporate Aviation Management, by John Sheehan. McGraw-Hill, 2013
Content Area: OPS6)

A

chief pilot, dispatcher, maintenance supervisor and refueling supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An important factor in determining the success of a safety reporting system is:

(Reference: Safety Management Systems in Aviation, 2nd edition
Content Area: OPS6)

A

Corrective actions taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hazard identification would fall under which pillar of SMS:

A

Safety risk management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

While at 8,500 ft, which was cruise level for this flight, and approximately 45 minutes before landing, the PIC asked the flight attendant for a cup of coffee. Per the rules of a sterile cockpit, this request was:

A

Legal because the aircraft was in cruise flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

After scuba diving, what is the minimum waiting time before going to cabin pressures about 8000 feet?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Part 91 requires the presence of a flight attendant on any aircraft carrying more than 19 passenger SEATS.

True or False?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who has operational control of an occupied flight conducted by a fractional ownership program under Part 91, Subpart K?

A

The owner is ultimately responsible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Safety Risk Management includes which elements?

A
  1. Hazard identification
  2. Safety risk assessment and mitigation

Risk Management-> “Identify, Assess, Mitigate”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Safety policy includes which elements?

A
  1. Safety accountabilities
  2. Coordination of the ERP
  3. SMS documentation
  4. Appointment of key safety personnel
  5. Management commitment and responsibilities

ALL OF THEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following changes can affect an organization’s level of safety risk?

A
  1. Change in aircraft type
  2. New director of maintenance
  3. Covid-related changes
  4. New organizational structure

ALL OF THEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The most common form of corporate training is:

A

Classroom training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The aviation department manager improves organizational health and communication within the maintenance organization by integrating technical skills, human factors, and interpersonal skills training. This is an example of which of the following?

(Reference: Business and Corporate Aviation Management, by John Sheehan. McGraw-Hill, 2013
Content Area: OPS9)

A

Maintenance resource management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Flight operations hazard/incident report should be submitted:

( Reference: NBAA Prototypical Safety Program Manual
Content Area: OPS6 )

A

When a safety concern is detected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the BEST definition of a Sterile Cockpit?

A

Crew does not participate in non-essential conversations, reading, paperwork, use of mobile devices during ground operations involving taxi, take-off/landing or other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL EXCEPT when an aircraft is in CRUISE flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Operational Control according to the FAA is determined by:

A

Exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, and terminating a flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If a malfunction occurs that results in an in-flight fire, which agency location must the operator immediately notify?

A

The nearest NTSB field office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A corporate flight operations manual should be reviewed and approved by the:

( Reference: NBAA Management Guide
Content Area: OPS1 )

A

CEO of the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What version of TCAS does the European Aviation Safety Agency require for all fixed wing turbine powered aircraft that have a maximum takeoff weight greater than 12,566 lbs or more than 19 passenger seats?

A

TCAS II Version 7.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Whether you need an OpSpec versus a Letter of Authorization depends upon:

A

Type of operation conducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

TRUE or FALSE: All members of the organization should complete SMS training.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is required to remove a Class 2 electronic flight bag (EFB) prior to continued aircraft operations?

A

Log book entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The company has a trip to the CEO’s 2nd home in Vail for the weekend. All 3 crewmembers decide to go skiing. One falls and breaks his leg. Now the company will have to hire a Contract Pilot to cover the next 3 months of flying. This situation presents a problem because:

A

Crewmembers should be encouraged to mitigate risky activities while on a trip and act professionally even when off duty.

39
Q

An aviation department is planning to complete in-house pilot flight training in a light, twin engine aircraft. Which of the following TSA considerations are applicable?

(Reference: CFR 49 part 1552.1 - 1552.3 (h)(I), (II)
Content Area: OPS8 )

A

A copy of acceptable proof of US citizenship must be kept for five years

40
Q

When a Flight Attendant is planning catering for the crew, he/she should consider the following:

A

Each Crewmember should be served a different meal

41
Q

Electronic Flight Bags (EFB) are now part of the many flight operation tools available to a crew. The use of these devices should be in line with FAA recommendations outlined in:

A

AC120-76B

42
Q

Strategic planning is the process of determining:

( Reference: NBAA Management Guide
Content Area: OPS5 )

A

long-range objectives and capital spending.

43
Q

If FMS, GPS and other advanced navigation systems are certified for IFR approach operations, Flight Operations Manual (FOM) guidance should include:

( Reference: NBAA Management Guide
Content Area: OPS1 )

A

mode awareness procedures, including verbal callouts.

44
Q

The responsibility for determining the airworthiness of an aircraft for a flight is the pilot-in-command (PIC) and:

( Reference: Business and Corporate Aviation Management, by John Sheehan. McGraw-Hill, 2013
Content Area: OPS2 )

A

owner/operator.

45
Q

True or False: Part 121 or Part 135 may not execute an instrument approach when the visibility is reported to be less than the prescribed landing minimum for the airport. However, under Part 91 rules, a business aircraft operator may initiate an instrument approach with the weather reports below minimums.

A

True

46
Q

Most flight crews prefer which type of communication as the means to ensure that monitoring is being accomplished and that any deviation from acceptable operating limits is recognized and corrected:

A

Challenge and Response

47
Q

Under Part 91 flight operations, who is directly responsible for and the final authority on the operation of the aircraft?

A

Pilot in Command

48
Q

A company must have clear procedures established for their pre-accident plan, NTSB regulation 830.6 requires the following information to be provided to the agency:

A

Name of owner and operator

49
Q

Which are the 4 Pillars of SMS:

Content Area: OPS6
Reference: FAA AC 120-92)
(Business & Corporate Aviation Management P.233)

A
  1. Safety Policy & Objectives,
  2. Safety Risk Management,
  3. Safety Assurance
  4. Safety Promotion
50
Q

Who ultimately decides if the level of risk has been reduced to as low as reasonably practical?

A

Accountable Executive

51
Q

In an operation conducted under FAR Part 135, the operator has been asked to transport a disabled passenger and a battery-operated wheelchair in the corporate aircraft. Should an emergency occur, this passenger could evacuate the aircraft only with the assistance of two other people. The company’s Operations Manual MUST contain which of the following procedures concerning this operation?

( Reference: FAR Part 135
Content Area: OPS2 )

A

Carrying individuals who may need evacuation assistance and procedures for carrying batteries

52
Q

As part of an organization’s pre-accident plan, clear procedures for responding to an aircraft accident should be developed that:

( Reference: NBAA Management Guide
Content Area: OPS5 )

A

support the immediate needs of the next of kin.

53
Q

The goal of a safety management system (SMS) is to:

( Reference: NBAA Management Guide
Content Area: OPS6 )

A

mitigate risk to a level as low as reasonably practical.

54
Q

CRM process includes all of the following except:

  • Air traffic controllers
  • Aircraft dispatchers
  • Flight attendants
  • Lead passenger
A

Lead passenger

55
Q

During the Safety Risk Management process, risk is defined in terms of ____ and ____.

A

Probability, severity

56
Q

Safety promotion policy and objectives are found in what flight department program?

A

Safety Management Systems

57
Q

ICAO and regulatory authorities around the world recommend the use of ___________ as a framework for fatigue management.

A

SMS

58
Q

What source should be referred to determine the amount of dry ice that may be carried on board an aircraft?

A

FARs - 49 CFR 175.10 (a) (10). 5.5lbs per person

59
Q

Each flight crewmember shall wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at which altitudes, that is more than 30 minutes in duration?

A

At cabin-pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet ASL, but not exceeding 13,000 feet ASL

60
Q

Duty time limits listed in the FAR’s for a Part 91 operation are:

A

No duty time limits

61
Q

For aircraft requiring an MEL to allow flight with inoperative instruments or equipment, approval is issued through a Letter of Authorization from the:

A

Flight Standards District Office

62
Q

Operational control is the:

A

Exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight.

63
Q

On a CFR Part 135 flight, the lead passenger was drinking from a flask containing alcohol he brought onboard. The flight attendant confiscated the flask and returned it to the lead passenger at the destination. The lead passenger wants the flight attendant reprimanded. Which of the following statements is true?

( Reference: FAR Part 135.121
Content Area: OPS2 )

A. The lead passenger could have served himself the drink

B. The flight attendant should not have returned the flask

C. The flight attendant could have served the lead passenger

D. The lead passenger was the ultimate authority concerning these matters

A

C. The flight attendant could have served the lead passenger

64
Q

What organization is a code of practice designed to help flight departments achieve high levels of safety and professionalism?

A

IS-BAO

65
Q

Which of the following are two key factors in pre-accident planning?

( Reference: Business and Corporate Aviation Management, p.326
Content Area: OPS5 )

A

Education and Communication

66
Q

Which statement below is true regarding crew flight/duty time:

A

The authority to extend duty times once the flight has begun, by some finite amount may be given to the flight crew as a consensus decision

67
Q

Select the option that does NOT need to be reported to the NTSB:

A

A complete loss of information from less than half of an aircraft’s electronic displays (including flickering)

68
Q

With regard to a corporate aviation emergency response plan, who is the company’s highest priority?

A

Families of those involved in the accident

69
Q

What is one objective of the Standards of Excellence in Business Aviation (SEBA) program?

A

Clearly defined industry training standards

70
Q

Which of the following conditions is required for an aviation department, as a whole, to embrace safety in all of its operations?

( Reference: Safety Management Systems in Aviation, 2nd edition
Content Area: OPS6 )

A

All employees accept safety as a lifestyle

71
Q

ICAO’s definition of an SMS is: A systematic approach to managing safety, including the necessary ______, accountabilities, policies, and procedures.

A

Organizational structures

72
Q

The first priority when responding to an aircraft emergency is:

A

Save lives

73
Q

Organizations identify hazards via which methods?

A

Reactive and Proactive

74
Q

What acronym can be used to recall SMS components?

A

The Safety P.O.R. M.A.P. !

Policies & Objectives
Risk Management
Assurance
Promotion

75
Q

The OSHA 300 Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses and the OSHA 300A Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses must be retained on file for _________ .

(OPS3) OSHA Recording and Reporting, NBAA Business Aviation Safety Manual)

A

5 calendar years

76
Q

OSHA Requires Reporting:

  • Within ______hours after the _____of any employee from a work-related incident or
  • The in-patient hospitalization of _____ or more employees as a result of a work-related incident

(OPS3) OSHA Recording and Reporting, NBAA Business Aviation Safety Manual)

A
  • 8 hours, death

* 3 or more

77
Q

According to OSHA, when you see a fire just beginning to happen or develop, which is your first step?
(Ops3)

A. Select the appropriate type of fire extinguisher and use the P.A.S.S. technique
B. Identify a safe evacuation path - do not allow the fire, heat or smoke to come between you and your exit route.
C. Sound the fire alarm and call the fire department
D. Evacuate immediately

A

C. Sound the fire alarm and call the fire department

Practical applications in business aviation, P.346

78
Q

The minimum training and testing requirements for Part 91, Part 125 and Part 135 operators can be found in _______

A

Part 61 - CERTIFICATION

79
Q

Part 135 Duty/Flight/Rest requirements (2 pilots)
Part 135 Duty/Flight/Rest requirements (1 pilot)
(Part 135.267 “subpart F”)
versus

NASA/Flight Safety Foundation Duty/Flight/Rest recommendations
(Business and Corporate Aviation Management P.240)

A
  • Part 135: 14h/10h/10h
  • Part 135: 14h/8h/10h

• NASA/FSF: 14h/12h/10h

80
Q

The authority to extend duty times or contract duty times once the flight has begun, by some finite amount, may be given to:

  1. The flight crew
  2. The chief pilot
  3. The program manager
  4. The aircraft owner

(Business and Corporate Aviation Management P.241)

A
  1. The flight crew

The extension may not exceed 2h

81
Q

According to ICAO and most country’s regulations, who has the final responsibility to determine that the aircraft is airworthy for a given flight?

a) the PIC
b) whoever has operational control of the flight
c) the director of maintenance
d) dispatch

(Business and Corporate Aviation Management P.248)

A

a) the PIC

82
Q

Under Part 91K, an owner is considered to have operational control EXCEPT in the following circumstances:

A. A program aircraft is used for a flight for administrative purposes such as demonstration, positioning, ferrying, maintenance, or crew training.

B. The aircraft being used for the flight is being operated under part 121 or 135 of this chapter.

C. No passengers or property designated by such owner are being carried

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

83
Q

When establishing an ERP, the “all-hazards” approach attemps to:

(Ops 5, Practical Airport Operations, Safety, and Emergency Management P.396)

  1. predict and plan for all possibilities
  2. be prepared for the foreseeable hazards that are typical to the operation
  3. establish an SMS reporting goal
  4. conduct safety drills with every other entity located at the home-base airport
A
  1. be prepared for the foreseeable hazards that are typical to the operation
84
Q

What is the order of the “priorities of work” in an ERP:

(Ops 5, Practical Airport Operations, Safety, and Emergency Management P.398)

  1. Lives, property, environment, scene stabilization
  2. Property, environment, lives, scene stabilization
  3. Scene stabilization, lives, property, environment
  4. Lives, scene stabilization, property, environment
A
  1. Lives, scene stabilization, property, environment
85
Q

What acronym can be used to remember the SMS pillars and item list?

A

P.O.R.M.A.P. 5232

Policy and Objectives (P.O. - 5 items)
Risk Management (R.M. - 2 items)
Assurance (A - 3 items)
Promotion (P - 2 items)

86
Q

An aviation department manager of a part 135 operation is developing a flight operations manual. The document is important because:

A. it serves as a contract between the company’s CEO and the aviation department
B. It is mandatory for Part 135 Operators
C. It communicates expectations, limitations and objectives to the flight department and users
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

87
Q

What is the difference between a dry lease and a wet lease:

A. Fuel is provided on the wet lease agreement
B. Flight Crew is provided on the wet lease agreement
C. Fuel, Oil and other consumables are provided on the wet lease agreement
D. A wet lease agreement includes all the management fees

A

B. Flight Crew is provided on the wet lease agreement

88
Q

Operational Control is defined by the FAA as:

A. To use, cause to use, or authorize the use of an aircraft
B. The Exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight.
C. Having a possessory interest in the aircraft.
D. The person paying for the majority of the costs of operating the aircraft retains operational control.

A

B. The Exercise of authority over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight.

89
Q

What is the youngest a passenger can be to fly unaccompanied by an adult?

A. 18
B. 16
C. 12
D. 10

A

C. 12

Children under 12 years of age MUST be accompanied by an adult.

90
Q

RVSM initial and recurrent monitoring must be completed as followed:

  1. Initial within 6 months of authorization
  2. Initial on first flight following authorization
  3. Recurrent every 1000h or 2 years, whichever is later
  4. Recurrent every 1000h or 2 years, whichever is earlier

A. 1&3
B. 2&3
C. 1&4
D. 2&4

A

A. 1&3

91
Q

When detecting or responding to a fire, the order of priorities should be the following:

A. (R.A.C.E.) Rescue lives, Activate alarms & 911, Confine the fire, Evacuate
B. (R.A.C.E.) Review the ERP, Apply the ERP, Complete the ERP, Evaluate the ERP.
C. (F.I.R.E.) Fight the fire, Initiate 911 call, Rescue lives, Evacuate.
D. (Li.S.P.E) Preserve lives, Preserve the Scene, Preserve Property, Preserve the Environment.

A

A. (R.A.C.E.)

Rescue lives, Activate alarms & 911, Confine the fire, Evacuate

(Practical applications in business aviation, P.346)

92
Q

The Advisory Circular 120 series applies to which of the following:

A. Flight Information
B. Aircraft Maintenance and Operation
C. Air Carriers, Air Travel Clubs, and Operators for Compensation or Hire Certification and Operations
D. Part 91, 121, and 135 operators

A

C. Air Carriers, Air Travel Clubs, and Operators for Compensation or Hire Certification and Operations

93
Q

The best reference for a Director of Aviation to use to establish proper compliance, standards and regulatory processes would be:

A. CFR Title 49 Part 830
B. AC 120-1
C. AC 120-68C
D. FAA Order 8900.1

A

D. FAA Order 8900.1 “Flight Standards Information Management System”

business and corporate aviation management p296

NBAA CAM (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions