Operational Procedures Exam Revision Flashcards
Readability scale
1 - Not readable 2 - Readable now and then 3 - Readable with difficulty 4 - Readable 5 - Perfectly readable
When is a pilot readback always required?
- Clearances and instructions regarding runways (enter, take off, land, cross, taxi, backtrack.)
- Route clearances
- Runway in use
- Altimeter settings
- SSR codes
- Level Instructions
- Heading and speed instructions
- Frequencies
Aerodrome MET minima
1500ft cloud ceiling
5km visibility
VFR MET minima for class C & D airspace
1000ft vertically distanced from cloud
2000m horizontally distanced from cloud
below 10000ft = 5000m visibility
at or above 10000ft = 8000m visibility
VFR MET minima for class G airspace
above 3000ft (or 1000ft above terrain) - same minima for class C & D
at or below 3000ft
- clear of cloud
- in sight of ground
- 5000m visibility
VFR minimum safe heights
Populated area
- 1000ft AGL
- 600m horizontally from the highest point
General airspace
- 500ft AGL
- 150m horizontally from the highest point
NZ cruising level rules
North (270° - 089°) - ODD levels
South (090° - 269°) - EVEN levels
Define VFR
A flight conducted in accordance with visual light rules
Define VMC
Visual meteorological conditions are expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling equal to or better than a specified minima
Define IFR
A flight conducted in accordance with instrument flight rules
Define IMC
Instrument meteorological conditions are expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling, less than the specified minima for visual meteorological conditions
At what height do cruising levels start in NZ airspace?
3000ft
Lowest VFR cruising level
3500ft (northbound)
In air right of way rules
Approaching head on
- neither aircraft has the right of and both aircraft will alter their heading to the right
Converging
- when 2 aircraft are on converging tracks the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way
Overtaking
- an aircraft being overtaken has the right of way; a n aircraft wishing to overtake must give way to the ahead aircraft
Right of way: take off and landing
Any aircraft taking off or about to take off has the right of way over any aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area
Any aircraft landing or on final approach to land has the right of way over any aircraft in flight or operating on the ground or water
When is an FPL required?
- any IFR flight
- the PIC plans to proceed more than 50nm from shore
- the PIC requires an alerting service
Elements of Essential Traffic Information
"Essential Traffic" Direction of traffic Type of aircraft Level of traffic Position report
Vertical separation minima up to FL290
1000ft
Define RVSM
Reduced Vertical Separation Minima
Reduction in vertical separation minima between FL290 - FL410 from 2000ft to 1000ft
This separation is only between RVSM approved aircraft
ATC clearance (verbatim)
Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by ATC and is only valid within controlled airspace and with respect to know air traffic
Does a clearance which violated flight rules absolve a pilot from compliance with CAR?
No
An ATC clearance does not absolve a pilot from compliance with CAR or any procedures established for safety of flight or any other purpose
Elements of an ATC Clearance (in order)
- aircraft identification
- if applicable, reason for unavailability for a route or level
- clearance limit
- route instructions
- level instructions
- any other necessary instructions or information
3 general types of separation
Visual
Vertical
Horizontal
Define same/crossing/reciprocal tracks
Same track
- any track that intersects another at less than 45° or more than 315° from a particular direction of flight
Crossing track
- any track that intersects another at an angle between 45° - 135° or between 225° - 315° from a particular direction of flight
Reciprocal track
- any track that intersects another at more than 135° or less than 225° from a particular direction of flight
Provided safety is not jeopardized, provide 3 traffic priorities
- any aircraft known or believed to be in a state of emergency has priority over all other aircraft
- any aircraft landing or on final approach has priority over a departing aircraft
- any aircraft landing or taking off ahs priority over any taxiing aircraft
Priority given to aircraft not in emergency (list 4)
- ambulance or mercy missions
- search and rescue
- civil defence or police emergencies
- carriage or heads of state
- if a more orderly and economic flow of traffic can be achieved
- if an aircraft would suffer from a significant economic penalty (eg holding a light aircraft over holding a jet)
Emergency frequencies
- 0 MHz
121. 5 MHz
Define distress and urgency
Distress
- a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
Urgency
- a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or person but which does not require immediate assistance
Distress and Urgency RTF messages
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
Emergency SSR codes
7500 - unlawful interference
7600 - communications failure
7700 - general emergency
What flights are issued with an altering service?
- all aerodrome traffic when ATS is in attendance
- all aircraft provided with ATC service
- all aircraft that have filed a flight plan
- any aircraft known to be in need of assistance
- any aircraft subject to unlawful interference
3 alerting phases
Uncertainty phase - INCERFA
- where uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
Alert phase - ALERFA
- where apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
Distress phase - DETRESFA
- where there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave an imminent danger and require immediate assistance
Exceptions to VFR/SVFR MET minima
- helicopter operating in class G airspace with visibility less than 5km at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic and obstacles to avoid collisions
- an aircraft performing agricultural operations in class G with visibility less than 5km but not less than 1500m
- an aircraft performing flight instruction may operate within a low flying zone with visibility less than 5km but not less than 1500m
Define FPL
Filed flight plan
- the flight plan as files with an ATS unit, without any subsequent changes
Define CPL
Current flight plan
- a flight plan becomes current when the aircraft is airborne and the flight plan has been activated. A CPL includes changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances
Define SARTIME
SARTIME is the time at which search and rescue action is initiated if the SARTIME is amended or cancelled, or a VFR flight plan for which a SARTIME has been nominated is not terminated
How can a pilot terminate a flight plan or SARTIME?
- contacting the NBO (national briefing office
- online via IFIS
- requesting termination from any ATS unit
Denial of clearance
- traffic reasons
- limitations of equipment
- procedures
- MET conditions
- emergencies
- when instructed by the ANS delivery manager
When is an ATC clearance required?
- all aircraft, vehicles and pedestrians wishing to enter and operate on the maneuvring area at a controlled aerodrome
- all flights wishing to enter and operate within the traffic circuit or to take off or land and a controlled aerodrome
- all IFR flights to operate in class A,C,D airspace
- all VFR flights to operate in class C,D airspace
- all parachute descents in controlled airspace
List 4 items from the scope of flight information (RAC 10)
MET
- SIGMET
- SPECI
- TAF
- significant information received from other flights
- appropriate altimeter settings
OTHER
- traffic information in accordance with instructions below
- information concerning volcanic activity
- information concerning the release of radioactive or toxic materials into the atmosphere
- other reasons for a NOTAM
Time parameters for passing information to IFR flights
IFR flights shall be informed of any relevant MET or other information that has been issued within the last 60 minutes
Elements of RT traffic information
- “traffic”
- Direction of traffic or nature of the operation
- Type of aircraft
- Level information
- Position information
- present position or track
- relative bearing or distance
- ETA at appropriate reporting point
Keyword when giving traffic avoidance advice
“SUGGEST”
Traffic avoidance can include such things as vectoring. What else? (name 2)
- vectoring
- re-routing
- holding
- altitude change
What special action is required when you receive an SS message?
Send an acknowledgement within 5 minutes of receipt
What is the appropriate priority indicator for the following criteria:
Distress messages
Urgency messages
Movement and control messages
Administrations messages
SS - Distress messages
DD - Urgency messages
FF - Movement and control messages
GG - Administrations messages
AFTN message acronyms
DLA - Delay CHG - Change or modification CNL - Cancel flight plan DEP - aircraft Departure ARR - aircraft Arrival EST - Estimates CDN - Coordination ACP - Acceptance RQP - Request flight plan RQS - Request Supplementary flight plan SPL - Supplementary flight plan AIS - Aeronautical Information Service TAF - Terminal aerodrome forecast ARFOR - area forecast
2 categories of search and rescue in NZ
Category I
- limited operations that are controlled by NZ police using their own and some civil resources
Category II
- SAR operations controlled by RCCNZ using all necessary available military and civil resources
In the event of notifying a CAT II emergency?
IFERC
In the vicinity of an aerodrome who is authorized to permit the use of other aircraft?
RCC
What should you do when it is known or believed that an aircraft is in a state of emergency or in need of assistance?
- give priority and render all possible assistance
- declare emergency phase
- take actions in accordance with guidance and instructions in RAC 7, AEP, IFERC
Define IFERC
In-Flight Emergency Response Checklists
Enroute emergency checklist outside of aerodrome airspace
What section of MATS will you find the procedure for the notifications of an incident?
ADM
Define accident
An occurrence that is associated with the operation of an aircraft and takes place between the time any person and all persons disembark and the engine comes to rest
- a person is fatally or seriously injured
- the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure
- the aircraft is missing or inaccessible
With reference to IFERC what should you do when it is known that an aircraft is in a state of emergency?
- acknowledge declaration
- assign traffic priorities
- provide assistance
- limit workload
- declare emergency phase
- record information and action taken
- notify
Rules for testing ELTs
- aircraft grounded
- within the first 5 minutes past the hour
- no more than 3 sweeps
- no longer than 20 seconds
What must a pilot do when finishing a flight in respect of an inadvertent activation of their ELT?
- tune into 121.5 and listen for ELT
- if heard, ensure that their own ELT is not operating
- if found to be operating, switch it off and immediately report occurrence to nearest ATS unit
3 aerodrome emergency phases
Local standby
- declaration of local standby with bring all aerodrome-based emergency services to a state of readiness but they will remain at their posts
Full emergency
- declaration of full emergency will bring all facilities, both on the aerodrome and in the community to a rendezvous point on the aerodrome. Alert hospital for possible reception and clear road traffic for emergency vehicles
Crash
- declaration of a crash will bring all facilities to immediate action
Who is responsible for obtaining readback of safety-related parts of clearances and instructions?
ATS personnel
What phrases shall be used to authorise an aircraft to operate in controlled airspace? (8)
- CLEARED
- RECLEARED
- ENTER
- LEAVE
- JOIN
- REMAIN
- MAKE
- OPERATE
What are the 2 types of horizontal separation?
- Lateral
- Longitudinal
What is the RVSM stratum?
FL290 - FL410
