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Airways 051 > Operational Procedures Exam Revision > Flashcards

Operational Procedures Exam Revision Flashcards

1
Q

Readability scale

A 
1 - Not readable
2 - Readable now and then
3 - Readable with difficulty
4 - Readable
5 - Perfectly readable
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2
Q

When is a pilot readback always required?

A
  • Clearances and instructions regarding runways (enter, take off, land, cross, taxi, backtrack.)
  • Route clearances
  • Runway in use
  • Altimeter settings
  • SSR codes
  • Level Instructions
  • Heading and speed instructions
  • Frequencies
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3
Q

Aerodrome MET minima

A

1500ft cloud ceiling

5km visibility

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4
Q

VFR MET minima for class C & D airspace

A

1000ft vertically distanced from cloud
2000m horizontally distanced from cloud
below 10000ft = 5000m visibility
at or above 10000ft = 8000m visibility

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5
Q

VFR MET minima for class G airspace

A 
above 3000ft (or 1000ft above terrain)
- same minima for class C & D

at or below 3000ft

  • clear of cloud
  • in sight of ground
  • 5000m visibility
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6
Q

VFR minimum safe heights

A

Populated area

  • 1000ft AGL
  • 600m horizontally from the highest point

General airspace

  • 500ft AGL
  • 150m horizontally from the highest point
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7
Q

NZ cruising level rules

A

North (270° - 089°) - ODD levels

South (090° - 269°) - EVEN levels

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8
Q

Define VFR

A

A flight conducted in accordance with visual light rules

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9
Q

Define VMC

A

Visual meteorological conditions are expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling equal to or better than a specified minima

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10
Q

Define IFR

A

A flight conducted in accordance with instrument flight rules

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11
Q

Define IMC

A

Instrument meteorological conditions are expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling, less than the specified minima for visual meteorological conditions

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12
Q

At what height do cruising levels start in NZ airspace?

A

3000ft

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13
Q

Lowest VFR cruising level

A

3500ft (northbound)

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14
Q

In air right of way rules

A

Approaching head on
- neither aircraft has the right of and both aircraft will alter their heading to the right

Converging
- when 2 aircraft are on converging tracks the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way

Overtaking
- an aircraft being overtaken has the right of way; a n aircraft wishing to overtake must give way to the ahead aircraft

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15
Q

Right of way: take off and landing

A

Any aircraft taking off or about to take off has the right of way over any aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area

Any aircraft landing or on final approach to land has the right of way over any aircraft in flight or operating on the ground or water

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16
Q

When is an FPL required?

A
  • any IFR flight
  • the PIC plans to proceed more than 50nm from shore
  • the PIC requires an alerting service
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17
Q

Elements of Essential Traffic Information

A 
"Essential Traffic"
Direction of traffic
Type of aircraft
Level of traffic
Position report
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18
Q

Vertical separation minima up to FL290

A

1000ft

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19
Q

Define RVSM

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

Reduction in vertical separation minima between FL290 - FL410 from 2000ft to 1000ft
This separation is only between RVSM approved aircraft

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20
Q

ATC clearance (verbatim)

A

Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by ATC and is only valid within controlled airspace and with respect to know air traffic

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21
Q

Does a clearance which violated flight rules absolve a pilot from compliance with CAR?

A

No
An ATC clearance does not absolve a pilot from compliance with CAR or any procedures established for safety of flight or any other purpose

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22
Q

Elements of an ATC Clearance (in order)

A
  • aircraft identification
  • if applicable, reason for unavailability for a route or level
  • clearance limit
  • route instructions
  • level instructions
  • any other necessary instructions or information
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23
Q

3 general types of separation

A

Visual
Vertical
Horizontal

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24
Q

Define same/crossing/reciprocal tracks

A

Same track
- any track that intersects another at less than 45° or more than 315° from a particular direction of flight

Crossing track
- any track that intersects another at an angle between 45° - 135° or between 225° - 315° from a particular direction of flight

Reciprocal track
- any track that intersects another at more than 135° or less than 225° from a particular direction of flight

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25
Q

Provided safety is not jeopardized, provide 3 traffic priorities

A
  • any aircraft known or believed to be in a state of emergency has priority over all other aircraft
  • any aircraft landing or on final approach has priority over a departing aircraft
  • any aircraft landing or taking off ahs priority over any taxiing aircraft
26
Q

Priority given to aircraft not in emergency (list 4)

A
  • ambulance or mercy missions
  • search and rescue
  • civil defence or police emergencies
  • carriage or heads of state
  • if a more orderly and economic flow of traffic can be achieved
  • if an aircraft would suffer from a significant economic penalty (eg holding a light aircraft over holding a jet)
27
Q

Emergency frequencies

A
  1. 0 MHz

121. 5 MHz

28
Q

Define distress and urgency

A

Distress
- a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

Urgency
- a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or person but which does not require immediate assistance

29
Q

Distress and Urgency RTF messages

A

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

30
Q

Emergency SSR codes

A

7500 - unlawful interference
7600 - communications failure
7700 - general emergency

31
Q

What flights are issued with an altering service?

A
  • all aerodrome traffic when ATS is in attendance
  • all aircraft provided with ATC service
  • all aircraft that have filed a flight plan
  • any aircraft known to be in need of assistance
  • any aircraft subject to unlawful interference
32
Q

3 alerting phases

A

Uncertainty phase - INCERFA
- where uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants

Alert phase - ALERFA
- where apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants

Distress phase - DETRESFA
- where there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave an imminent danger and require immediate assistance

33
Q

Exceptions to VFR/SVFR MET minima

A
  • helicopter operating in class G airspace with visibility less than 5km at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic and obstacles to avoid collisions
  • an aircraft performing agricultural operations in class G with visibility less than 5km but not less than 1500m
  • an aircraft performing flight instruction may operate within a low flying zone with visibility less than 5km but not less than 1500m
34
Q

Define FPL

A

Filed flight plan

- the flight plan as files with an ATS unit, without any subsequent changes

35
Q

Define CPL

A

Current flight plan
- a flight plan becomes current when the aircraft is airborne and the flight plan has been activated. A CPL includes changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances

36
Q

Define SARTIME

A

SARTIME is the time at which search and rescue action is initiated if the SARTIME is amended or cancelled, or a VFR flight plan for which a SARTIME has been nominated is not terminated

37
Q

How can a pilot terminate a flight plan or SARTIME?

A
  • contacting the NBO (national briefing office
  • online via IFIS
  • requesting termination from any ATS unit
38
Q

Denial of clearance

A
  • traffic reasons
  • limitations of equipment
  • procedures
  • MET conditions
  • emergencies
  • when instructed by the ANS delivery manager
39
Q

When is an ATC clearance required?

A
  • all aircraft, vehicles and pedestrians wishing to enter and operate on the maneuvring area at a controlled aerodrome
  • all flights wishing to enter and operate within the traffic circuit or to take off or land and a controlled aerodrome
  • all IFR flights to operate in class A,C,D airspace
  • all VFR flights to operate in class C,D airspace
  • all parachute descents in controlled airspace
40
Q

List 4 items from the scope of flight information (RAC 10)

A

MET

  • SIGMET
  • SPECI
  • TAF
  • significant information received from other flights
  • appropriate altimeter settings

OTHER

  • traffic information in accordance with instructions below
  • information concerning volcanic activity
  • information concerning the release of radioactive or toxic materials into the atmosphere
  • other reasons for a NOTAM
41
Q

Time parameters for passing information to IFR flights

A

IFR flights shall be informed of any relevant MET or other information that has been issued within the last 60 minutes

42
Q

Elements of RT traffic information

A
  • “traffic”
  • Direction of traffic or nature of the operation
  • Type of aircraft
  • Level information
  • Position information
    • present position or track
    • relative bearing or distance
    • ETA at appropriate reporting point
43
Q

Keyword when giving traffic avoidance advice

A

“SUGGEST”

44
Q

Traffic avoidance can include such things as vectoring. What else? (name 2)

A
  • vectoring
  • re-routing
  • holding
  • altitude change
45
Q

What special action is required when you receive an SS message?

A

Send an acknowledgement within 5 minutes of receipt

46
Q

What is the appropriate priority indicator for the following criteria:

Distress messages
Urgency messages
Movement and control messages
Administrations messages

A

SS - Distress messages
DD - Urgency messages
FF - Movement and control messages
GG - Administrations messages

47
Q

AFTN message acronyms

A 
DLA - Delay
CHG - Change or modification
CNL - Cancel flight plan
DEP - aircraft Departure
ARR - aircraft Arrival
EST - Estimates
CDN - Coordination
ACP - Acceptance
RQP - Request flight plan
RQS - Request Supplementary flight plan
SPL - Supplementary flight plan
AIS - Aeronautical Information Service
TAF - Terminal aerodrome forecast
ARFOR - area forecast
48
Q

2 categories of search and rescue in NZ

A

Category I
- limited operations that are controlled by NZ police using their own and some civil resources

Category II
- SAR operations controlled by RCCNZ using all necessary available military and civil resources

49
Q

In the event of notifying a CAT II emergency?

A

IFERC

50
Q

In the vicinity of an aerodrome who is authorized to permit the use of other aircraft?

A

RCC

51
Q

What should you do when it is known or believed that an aircraft is in a state of emergency or in need of assistance?

A
  • give priority and render all possible assistance
  • declare emergency phase
  • take actions in accordance with guidance and instructions in RAC 7, AEP, IFERC
52
Q

Define IFERC

A

In-Flight Emergency Response Checklists

Enroute emergency checklist outside of aerodrome airspace

53
Q

What section of MATS will you find the procedure for the notifications of an incident?

A

ADM

54
Q

Define accident

A

An occurrence that is associated with the operation of an aircraft and takes place between the time any person and all persons disembark and the engine comes to rest

  • a person is fatally or seriously injured
  • the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure
  • the aircraft is missing or inaccessible
55
Q

With reference to IFERC what should you do when it is known that an aircraft is in a state of emergency?

A
  • acknowledge declaration
  • assign traffic priorities
  • provide assistance
  • limit workload
  • declare emergency phase
  • record information and action taken
  • notify
56
Q

Rules for testing ELTs

A
  • aircraft grounded
  • within the first 5 minutes past the hour
  • no more than 3 sweeps
  • no longer than 20 seconds
57
Q

What must a pilot do when finishing a flight in respect of an inadvertent activation of their ELT?

A
  • tune into 121.5 and listen for ELT
  • if heard, ensure that their own ELT is not operating
  • if found to be operating, switch it off and immediately report occurrence to nearest ATS unit
58
Q

3 aerodrome emergency phases

A

Local standby
- declaration of local standby with bring all aerodrome-based emergency services to a state of readiness but they will remain at their posts

Full emergency
- declaration of full emergency will bring all facilities, both on the aerodrome and in the community to a rendezvous point on the aerodrome. Alert hospital for possible reception and clear road traffic for emergency vehicles

Crash
- declaration of a crash will bring all facilities to immediate action

59
Q

Who is responsible for obtaining readback of safety-related parts of clearances and instructions?

A

ATS personnel

60
Q

What phrases shall be used to authorise an aircraft to operate in controlled airspace? (8)

A
  • CLEARED
  • RECLEARED
  • ENTER
  • LEAVE
  • JOIN
  • REMAIN
  • MAKE
  • OPERATE
61
Q

What are the 2 types of horizontal separation?

A
  • Lateral

- Longitudinal

62
Q

What is the RVSM stratum?

A

FL290 - FL410

Airways 051 (6 decks)

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