Operational Orders Flashcards

1
Q

A detailed map of Duval County which includes boundaries of the jurisdiction will be kept where?

A

Communications Section

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2
Q

JSO possesses concurrent jurisdiction with what cities?

A

Jacksonville Beach, Neptune Beach, Atlantic Beach

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3
Q

JSO possesses concurrent jurisdiction with what other agencies?

A

Airport Police, Duval County Public School Police, UNF Police

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4
Q

If an on-view call is made in the Beaches jurisdiction, can the officer handle the call? If a report is needed?

A

Yes

Call the appropriate agency for assistance

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5
Q

If an on-view call is made in UNF, can the officer handle the call?

A

Yes

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6
Q

If an on-view call is made in Airport Police Jurisdiction, can the officer handle the call?

A

Yes

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7
Q

Can an agency working within JSO jurisdiction request an explosive detection canine for a sweep if needed?

A

Yes, they can contact the Communications center directly to make the request

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8
Q

Who bears the cost of equipment and manpower during mutual aid situations?

A

The sending/furnishing agency

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9
Q

For the purpose of obtaining the assistance of the Florida National Guard, who has the authority to declare a state of emergency?

A

The Mayor - Once declared, the Sheriff contacts the FDLE mutual aid director who contacts the Governor. The Governor then can order the FL Natl Guard to assist.

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10
Q

The arrest of military personnel on base shall require the consent of who?

A

Base Commanding Officer or his designee

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11
Q

Officers investigating offenses occurring on a navy base will be coordinated with who?

A

NCIS or Base Security

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12
Q

Officers serving warrants on a navy base will be coordinated with who?

A

Base Security

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13
Q

Officers in fresh pursuit of a suspect who enters a naval base will do what?

A

Continue Pursuit, Notify Base Security and request assistance and cooperation

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14
Q

The CAU supervisor attends department of Patrol and Enforcement staff meetings to disseminate information and obtain feedback how often?

A

Weekly

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15
Q

CAU analysts attend daily Investigations Division meetings in which units?

A

Burglary, Robbery & Special Assault

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16
Q

While operating JSO vehicles, employees shall have what on their person?

A

A Valid DL

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17
Q

Vehicles are assigned by who through the vehicle coordinators office?

A

Director of Police Services

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18
Q

Can the assigned vehicle privilege be revoked?

A

Yes, it is a privilege not a right

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19
Q

Prior to issuance of a new vehicle what shall the employee do? Where?

A

Report to fuel services at Fleet Management, return current vehicle and fuel cards and sign out fuel cards for newly assigned vehicle

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20
Q

What must be signed before a vehicle is issued?

A

Contract for the Assigned Vehicle Program (P-0143E)

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21
Q

Who will be issued an Operator’s Card?

A

Each employee who is authorized to drive JSO vehicles and/or regularly uses one

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22
Q

If an officer wishes to install a personal gun rack (or other personal equipment) in a JSO vehicle, what must he do? Who gives the final approval?

A

Complete a vehicle modification request form (P-1693) and send it through his chain of command to the Director of Police Services of final approval prior to installation

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23
Q

Once personal items are installed into JSO vehicles, can they be removed when the vehicle is surrendered? If yes under what stipulations?

A

Yes, as long as the cost to return the vehicle to the original condition is borne by the employee and does not adversely affect the vehicle value

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24
Q

Employees who are on temporary limited duty in excess of _________ or who know they will be on temporary limited duty in excess of __________ will have their vehicle removed from personal assignment and turned into the vehicle coordinators office until they return to full duty.

A

30 calendar days

30 calendar days

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25
Q

When an employee is on temporary limited duty in excess of 30 days, he must turn in his vehicle to the vehicle coordinators office. Who can approve an exception to this rule?

A

Division Chief or higher authority

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26
Q

Employees operating JSO vehicles shall carry approved ________ and be appropriately attired to perform police functions.

A

Firearms

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27
Q

In addition to required items patrol officers must carry, Patrol Sergeants will carry what in their vehicles?

A
  1. Official Barricade Sign and Tape
  2. Arrest Warrant Forms
  3. Request for Reimbursement Forms
  4. Injury in the line-of-duty forms
  5. Employee Complaint Forms (P-0235) and Instructions
  6. Issued Digital Camera and Memory Card
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28
Q

How must the e-box be stored?

A

In the Trunk, Unobstructed, Lid on or Off

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29
Q

What are the mandatory items to be stored in the e-box?

A
  1. First Aid Kit (not IFAK)
  2. Crime Scene Tape
  3. Jumper Cables
  4. Rescue Blankets (2)
  5. Fire Extinguisher
  6. Rubber Gloves (1 box)
  7. AED (if applicable)
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30
Q

What optional items may be stored in the e-box?

A
  1. Resuscitation Device
  2. Additional Ammunition
  3. IFAK
  4. Seat Belt Cutter
  5. Flashlight w/ Orange Cone
  6. Traffic Safety Vest
  7. Alcohol Gel
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31
Q

Can bumper stickers be placed on JSO vehicles:

Marked? Unmarked?

A

Marked -Yes, only official JSO issued bumper stickers

Unmarked - No

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32
Q

Children under ___________ years of age and small adults under ___________ should not ride in the front seat of an officer’s assigned vehicle.

A

Under 12 years old

Under 5’ tall

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33
Q

Who must approve any modification to a JSO vehicle?

A

Director of Police Services

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34
Q

What window tint is acceptable for JSO marked units:
Front?
Back?

A

Front - UV Clear (driver and passenger)

Back - no less than 15% or driver back, passenger and rear)

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35
Q

When can an officer leave the keys in the ignition when the vehicle is unattended?

A
  1. Doors locked (extra key carried by officer)

2. A police function is being performed

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36
Q

If an inoperable vehicle is pushed from the roadway by a JSO vehicle not equipped with a push bumper, what will be don and by who?

A

Blue Team report

Completed by the Officer

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37
Q

If an employee’s operator card or vehicle card is lost or stolen, it should be reported to who immediately?

A

Fleet Management Division

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38
Q

A pool vehicle should not be used as a take home vehicle. Who can approve an exception?

A

A/C or higher

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39
Q

An employee who lives more than 10 miles (one way) outside Duval County must park his vehicle at a secure location determined by the Sheriff. The location will be documented on what form?

A

The Affidavit of Assigned Vehicle Program (P-1785).

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40
Q

If an employee living more than 10 miles outside Duval County wishes to change the location his vehicle is stored to another approved location, what must he do? Who approves the move?

A

Form 4 or e-mail through chain of Command to a Division Chief and wait for approval before moving

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41
Q

Employees who live outside Duval County but within 10 miles and have an assigned vehicle shall complete what to document the physical permanent address the vehicle is being parked.

A

Assigned vehicle within 10 miles Form

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42
Q

Vehicles shall only be used outside Duval County when?

A
  1. Only on official business

2. When authorized by a Supervisor

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43
Q
What talk groups are the following off-duty officers required to monitor:
Patrol?
Specialized Units?
Detectives?
Civilians?
A

Patrol - Zone they are traveling in
Specialized Units - Investigative
Detectives - Investigative
Civilians - Not required to monitor

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44
Q

Off duty patrol officers should use what call sign when calling HQ?

A

ID number unless assigned a permanent call number

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45
Q

What are the required service intervals for vehicles:
Marked Vehicle “A” and “C”
Unmarked Vehicle “A” and “C”

A
Marked "A" - 4,500 miles or 4.5 months
Marked "C" - 9,000 miles or 9 months
Unmarked "A" - 6,000 miles or 6 months
Unmarked "C" - 12,000 miles or 12 months
DUI and other unmarked pursuit vehicles default to marked schedules
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46
Q

Officers unable to perform maintenance due to work hours on duty shall do what?

A

Obtain advance approval from immediate supervisor, log out on a 10-59 and submit an overtime request

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47
Q

How often shall supervisors inspect vehicles of officers under their command? Where are they forwarded to?

A

Monthly

Forwarded to Lieutenant in charge of watch/section for review

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48
Q

Employees will need to make emergency repairs, on duty and off-duty, which if not made, would cause damage to the vehicle or restrict its use. What is the cost limit of the repairs? How are they paid for?

A

Repairs will not exceed $50 and will not include brake jobs, tune ups or body work.
Paid for in cash (not check) marked paid by the vendor.

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49
Q

Employees will need to make emergency repairs, on duty and off-duty, which if not made, would cause damage to the vehicle or restrict its use. Whose approval is required prior to making those repairs if the employee is on-duty? Off-duty?

A

On-duty - Immediate supervisor

Off-duty - An on-duty supervisor

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50
Q

If an employee is on an official trip outside of Duval County and the employees needs to make emergency repairs, on duty and off-duty, which if not made, would cause damage to the vehicle or restrict its use. Whose approval is required prior to making those repairs? How are they paid for?

A

No approval needed.

Can be paid for on city credit card

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51
Q

Emergency Vehicle repairs over $50 will not be made with out whose approval?

A

Lieutenant or higher authority

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52
Q

The Reserve Unit falls under which Division of the JSO?

A

Department of Patrol and Enforcement

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53
Q

When a reserve officer is called to duty he will fall under which chain of command?

A

His Control Officer’s Chain of Command

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54
Q

How long is the Reserve Officer FTO program?

A

4 months

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55
Q

The Direct Supervision requirement is met when the Reserve Officer is directly accountable to a control officer that is?

A
  1. Aware the reserve is acting under him
  2. Able to supervise the reserve officer by continuous sight, sound, radio or other telecommunication equipment
  3. Is present in the general vicinity of the scene
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56
Q

Romeo Units consist of 2 reserve officers. Romeo Units will not do what 3 things involving calls for service?

A
  1. Be the first officer on the scene
  2. Handle calls as a primary unit
  3. Be subject to report writing calls
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57
Q

Who will assign the Romeo Units a control officer? Who will be the control officer for Romeo Units?

A

The watch commander will assign a Sergeant as the control officer

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58
Q

CJSTC certified Reserve Officers are authorized to carry approved firearms, on and off-duty if they have completed the prescribed firearm training. When carrying off duty what are the restrictions?

A
  1. Firearm must be concealed
  2. Can’t carry firearm in a commercial establishment where alcohol is sold, served or consumed on premises
  3. Any display or use the firearm while not engaged in JSO business and off duty will be done as a private citizen.
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59
Q

Can a reserve officer make an arrest while under supervisor of a control officer?

A

Yes, he has the same arrest authority as a sworn officer while under a control officer

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60
Q

Can Reserve officers drive JSO vehicles?

A

Yes, if they have completed Driver’s Training and are under the supervision of a control officer

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61
Q

Reserve Officers must obtain _______ working hours per quarter.

A

60 hours

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62
Q

Failure to attain appropriate hours will lead to what punishment for the first occurrence? Second?

A

First - Written warning

Second- Termination from the program

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63
Q

Reserve Officers may not at any time, on-duty or off-duty, do what 4 police functions?

A
  1. Sign a UTC
  2. Initiate or participate in any vehicle pursuit while in a solo or Romeo capacity
  3. Individually make application (or swear under oath) for an arrest warrant
  4. Serve, individually, any arrest or search warrant
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64
Q

The two primary functions of the Reserve Unit are what?

A

Patrol Ride Alongs

Special Events

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65
Q

Each Component of JSO will be inspected how often?

A

At least once every 3 years

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66
Q

During line inspections, who is responsible for ensuring correction and follow up of any deficiency found?

A

The inspecting supervisor

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67
Q

How often will first-line supervisors inspect vehicles and equipment of subordinates?

A

At least Monthly

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68
Q

The Inspections Unit Supervisor will ensure that a Staff Inspection of each component of JSO is conducted how often?

A

At least every 36 months

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69
Q

The JSO Auditor will conduct an inventory of property entered into the property room to ensure accountability how often?

A

Annually

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70
Q

The JSO Auditor will conduct random audits of agency cash activities how often?

A

Quarterly

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71
Q

Once an inspection is completed the inspection team will complete a written report. The report is sent to who?

A

Chief or Professional Standards and the Unit’s Commanding Officer, Chief and Director.

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72
Q

The Commanding Officer will respond within how many days with a plan for addressing the findings of any deficiencies found during Staff Inspections.

A

30 calendar days

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73
Q

The inspections unit will maintain a file of all completed Staff Inspections for how long?

A

4 years

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74
Q

What are the 6 primary Patrol Shifts?

A
Watch 1 - Morning
Watch 2 - Day
Watch 3 - Alpha
Watch 4 - Evening
Watch 5 - Bravo
Watch 6 - Midnight
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75
Q

Under normal conditions, each sergeant will have no more than how many officers assigned to his squad?

A

10

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76
Q

An employee may request temporary assignment to any position via request in writing through his chain of command to his Division Chief/Unit Commander. Whose approval is needed before the assignment is made?

A

Both the employees Division Chief/Unit Commander and the Commanding Officer of the Division/Unit to which the employee is requesting assignment

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77
Q

Special Purpose Vehicle Operators/Custodians will maintain a standardized vehicle checklist and document the vehicle/craft status/function how often?

A

At least monthly

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78
Q

The Mobile Command Vehicle will be available 24/7. Who can request the Mobile Command Vehicle through the Communications Watch Supervisor?

A

Police Lieutenant or Higher

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79
Q

Who is authorized to operate the Mobile Command Vehicle?

A

FTO Office/Emergency Preparedness Unit Personnel or others designated by the FTO/Emergency Preparedness Lieutenant

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80
Q

The COPS Bus is used primarily as a staging point for community events. The COPS bus shall only be used with permission from who?

A

FTO/Emergency Preparedness Lieutenant or as requested by command staff

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81
Q

This vehicle is used primarily to transport ammunition and weapons during man-made or natural disasters, pre-planned special events or other events deemed appropriate by the Chief of Patrol West or higher authority?

A

Cargo Truck

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82
Q

Deployment of the Cargo Truck is at the discretion of who?

A

Emergency Preparedness Unit Commanding Officer

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83
Q

What license is required to operate the Cargo Truck inside or outside the state of Florida?

A

Class “B” CDL with airbrake endorsement

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84
Q

Officers should not leave their assigned areas without the approval of who? Or under what conditions?

A

A supervisor or

As required by official police business

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85
Q

Operation contact requires officers on certain shifts to perform specific tasks during their tour of duty. Under this program what is required of Officers on Day Watch?

A

Contact 1 resident or inspect 1 park

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86
Q

Operation contact requires officers on certain shifts to perform specific tasks during their tour of duty. Under this program what is required of Officers on Evening Watch?

A

Contact 1 resident or inspect 1 park

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87
Q

Operation contact requires officers on certain shifts to perform specific tasks during their tour of duty. Under this program what is required of Officers on Bravo Watch?

A

Contact 1 resident or inspect 1 park
-or-
Inspect 1 park and 1 business

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88
Q

Operation contact requires officers on certain shifts to perform specific tasks during their tour of duty. Under this program what is required of Officers on Midnight Watch?

A

Inspect 1 business or inspect 1 park

Leave Operation Contact Card providing crime prevention tips

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89
Q

Supervisors will ensure officers are making contacts under Operation Contact by reviewing CAD logs how often?

A

At least Quarterly

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90
Q

What signal is used to check out on an Operation Contact?

A

31OC

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91
Q

The SARA method is the standard method used for problem orientated policing. SARA stands for what?

A

Scan - Identify the Problem
Analyze - Investigate the Problem
Respond - Implement a Solution
Assessment - Evaluate the Solution

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92
Q

If implemented who is the designated Administrator of an Interdepartmental Task Force?

A

Undersheriff or his designee

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93
Q

The Field Training and Evaluation unit is a function of what Department?

A

Department of Patrol and Enforcement

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94
Q

Whose responsibility is it to notify the Personnel Division 10 business days in advance of the date that police recruits will be going solo?

A

Field Training Coordinator

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95
Q

What are the requirements of a prospective FTO?

A
  1. Apply to FTO commander through chain of command
  2. Be recommended by current Field Training Sgt, Squad Sgt, Watch Commander and Zone Commander
  3. Minimum 2 years patrol experience with JSO or exception granted by Chief of Patrol
  4. No discipline in the past 12 months
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96
Q

To become a FTO officers must have 2 years patrol experience with JSO. An exception can be granted by who if the officer has previous experience with another police agency.

A

Chief of Patrol

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97
Q

How many hours of field training are required before an officer can become a FTO?

A

40 hours

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98
Q

If at any time and for any reason a FTO is suspended, he will be placed on inactive status. When may he reapply for active status?

A

1 year after returning to duty

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99
Q

How many weeks is the basic FTO program?

A

14 weeks

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100
Q

In FTO there are 4 phases, each phase lasting 1 month with the exception of Phase 4. How long is phase 4 of the FTO program?

A

8 working days

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101
Q

How many re-phase cycles are permitted in the FTO program? How many days each?

A

3 rephrase cycles

8 working days each

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102
Q

How often is the FTO (evaluator) mandated to review guidelines for grading?

A

Prior to each evaluation

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103
Q

Who is in charge of conducting Roll Calls?

A

The oncoming Watch Commander

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104
Q

Guests from outside JSO that want to address Roll Call formations require the approval of who?

A

Chief of Patrol or higher

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105
Q

Which zone does not currently have a day shift?

A

Zone 6

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106
Q

Officers who are arriving after the command for “Fall in” has been given will remain out of formation until when?

A

until acknowledged by their supervisor

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107
Q

Persons wishing to address the Roll Call formation must coordinate with who? When?

A

Watch Commander

at least 30 minutes prior to formation

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108
Q

Persons from outside JSO who wish to address Roll Call formations must obtain permission from who, when addressing the formation?

A

Chief of Patrol

at least 30 minutes prior to formation

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109
Q

Training that is Policy/Procedure review can occur at whose discretion?

A

Watch Commander

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110
Q

Who is approved to present training at Roll Calls?

A
  1. Roll Call Lieutenant
  2. Roll Call Training Personnel
  3. Training Academy Staff
  4. Personnel approved by a Chief of Patrol or designee
  5. Investigations Division Personnel
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111
Q

Officers who are required to stay out of service after roll call will do what?

A

Check on (10-81), log out appropriately, and notify a supervisor

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112
Q

If changes are made to the sector assignments or call signs before or during a shift, who is responsible for notifying the communications center?

A

Roll Call Supervisor

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113
Q

Any delay in checking on and any out of service activity (10-7 more than 10 minutes) requires what?

A

Supervisor’s Approval

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114
Q

If an officer needs to check on via phone, whose approval is needed to do so?

A

Their Supervisor

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115
Q

How many units are allowed to be at check off at one time?

A

No more than 2

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116
Q

Combined roll calls will be held at the discretion of who?

A

Patrol Chief or higher authority

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117
Q

Citizens will only be stopped or detained when what burden of proof has been established?

A

reasonable suspicion to believe that the person stopped has, are in the process of, or is about to commit an infraction of the law

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118
Q

If a motorist/Citizen consents to a search but refuses to sign a Consent to Search Form (P-492) what will be done?

A

Fill out the Consent to Search Form, indicate “consented to search but refused to sign”, insert initials and signature of witnesses in signature block

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119
Q

Any officer who is contacted by a citizen which wishes to file a complaint on an officer in regards to Bias Based Profiling shall do what?

A

Contact his supervisor, supervisor responds and provides the citizen a complaint form

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120
Q

When a supervisor is notified by an officer of a citizen wishing to file a Bias Based Profiling complaint, he shall do what?

A
  1. Respond to the scene
  2. Provide the complainant with a citizen complaint form, 3. Record the citizen’s name, address, phone number,
  3. Report complaint to a watch commander or higher authority prior to end of shift
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121
Q

When a Watch Commander receives a Bias Based Profiling complaint from a subordinate he will forward it to Internal Affairs. Internal Affairs has how long to assign the complaint for investigation?

A

14 days

Unless Internal Affairs Unit Commander grants an extension

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122
Q

Tele Serv can handle calls unless one of the following 4 factors are present, at which time they will be sent to Patrol.

A
  1. Suspect present or immediate apprehension can be made
  2. Physical evidence is present
  3. Communications problems between complainant and Tele Serv and it can’t be determined what happened
  4. Tele-Serv Sergeant deems it necessary to sent the incident to the street
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123
Q

Tele Serv will write missing persons reports from dependency shelters unless the victim is ________ years old or younger, has a __________, or ________ is suspected.

A
  1. 11 years old or younger
  2. Serious Medical/Mental problem
  3. Foul Play is suspected
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124
Q

Tele Serv will write Auto Theft Reports in what 2 circumstances?

A
  1. Rental Vehicle at least 14 days over due

2. Auto Theft Attempt - no suspect

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125
Q

Tele Serv will no write auto burglary reports when what is taken from a vehicle?

A

A Firearm

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126
Q

A Property Watch Report (P-0268) will not be written for a period of time less than how long?

A

24 hours

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127
Q

What is required of the victim if they have an excess of 10 items to add to a report being filed by Tele Serv?

A
  1. Make a list with 2” margin on left side
  2. Include descriptions of items (serial number, etc)
  3. Write CCR, Date, Victim name, address, phone #, race, sex, age and DOB on the top of the page
  4. Mail or e-mail the list to JSO Tele Serv
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128
Q

Tele Serv will write lost property reports when one of what 3 reasons are present?

A
  1. Serial number is available
  2. Valued at $1,500 or more
  3. One of a kind and can be Identified by distinct markings or photo
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129
Q

Tele Serv will write all reports involving child abuse, child neglect, or elderly abuse when requested by who?

A

DCF employees

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130
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing and approving/ rejecting all citizen online reporting system submissions?

A

Tele Serv Sergeant or designee

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131
Q

How long does the Tele Serv Sergeant or his designee have to review and approve/ reject all citizen online reporting system submissions?

A

24 hours

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132
Q

All calls to Tele Serv will be diverted to the Communications Center for dispatch to a patrol unit if any of these 3 factors are present?

A
  1. Incident is in progress
  2. There is physical evidence to collect
  3. An immediate suspect apprehension is possible
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133
Q

What are the 4 criteria for a criminal mischief, theft, theft from the exterior of a motor vehicle and vehicle burglaries to b reported on the Citizen on line reporting system?

A
  1. Reporter must be over 18 years old
  2. No evidence to collect
  3. No suspects are known
  4. Loss or damage is not over $5000
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134
Q

What priority call are officers allowed (and expected to) use emergency equipment when responding to calls?
What exceptions?

A

Priority 1 and 2

Exception: Missing Persons call or tactical approach

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135
Q

Priority 2 Missing Persons calls include those which the victim is what (6 things).

A
  1. 12 years old or younger
  2. From a dependency shelter
  3. Mentally or Physically challenged
  4. Senile
  5. Elderly
  6. Foul play is suspected (any age)
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136
Q

According to call priority, when will the following priority calls be dispatched:
Priority 1? Priority 2? Priority 3? Priority 4? Priority 5? Priority 6?

A
Priority 1 - Immediately
Priority 2 - Immediately
Priority 3 - within 10 minutes
Priority 4 - within 30 minutes
Priority 5 & 6 - aren't dispatched
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137
Q

Priority 4 calls can be stacked for how long?

A

A period of time not to exceed 30 minutes

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138
Q

All crime tips, traffic complaints and abandoned/junk vehicle reports received via the Citizen Online Reporting System will be forwarded to the appropriate unit/zone for follow up by the FTO Coordinator. How long does the unit/zone investigator have to complete a supplement report on the incident and return it to the FTO Coordinator?

A

30 days

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139
Q

Who is responsible for assigning, tracking and monitoring all crime tips, traffic complaints, and junk/abandoned vehicle reports received on the Citizen Online Reporting System and ensuring they are investigated by the proper person?

A

FTO Coordinator

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140
Q

In the MDC system, what information is placed in the Rider section?

A

Civilian observer information and supervisors call sign, or

Supervisor’s call sign

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141
Q

If an officer is signed on the MDC as “Off Duty” and the his vehicle will be left unattended for how long, the officer/supervisor must sign off. What is an exception?

A

1 hour

exception - engaged in secondary employment

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142
Q

An officer is required to sign on to the MDC computer any time he is working secondary employment except under what conditions?

A

He/she is working for the city a the city OT rate

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143
Q

An incident is not considered dispatched until what has occurred?

A

All units have acknowledged

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144
Q

If a unit that has been dispatched a call has not acknowledged the call within how long, the dispatcher will verify by voice that the unit is 10-51.

A

1 minute

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145
Q

The “on-view” screen will not be used to check out on what type calls? (3 types)

A
  1. Traffic Stops
  2. Officer safety may be jeopardized
  3. Signal 35 back up
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146
Q

Anytime a officer is out of service for more than ________ minutes, a supervisor’s approval is required.

A

10 minutes

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147
Q

How long is the authorized meal break?

A

45 minutes

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148
Q

No more than _____ marked, on duty vehicles, will be at any eating establishment, and no more than ______ on duty uniformed officers inside.

A

2 marked units (3 if one is a supervisor), no more than 5 uniformed officers

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149
Q

Between the hours of 0200 and 0600, no more than _____ marked, on duty vehicles, will be at any eating establishment, and no more than ______ on duty uniformed officers inside.

A

3 marked units (4 if one is a supervisor), no more than 5 uniformed officers

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150
Q

Officers may log 10-84 anytime approved by the dispatcher except when?

A

No sooner than 1 hour after beginning of shift and no later than 1 hour prior to the end of shift

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151
Q

For the purposes of 10-84 restrictions and the number of on-duty officers allowed in a restaurant at a time, those officers wearing what are included.

A
  1. BDUs
  2. Shirts with the word JSO name on them
  3. Tactical gear with the word “Police” on them
  4. Other garments that identifies the wearer as a JSO employee
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152
Q

Officers transporting prisoners of the opposite sex shall use the status change screen of MDC to document what?

A

Race and Sex of prisoner and beginning and ending mileage

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153
Q

Any messages sent via MDC shall be what?

A

Work related and professional in nature

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154
Q

When in service and called by a supervisor or HQ officers will respond with their call number and what?

A

Location

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155
Q

Conversations between officers or transmissions expected to last more than how long shall not be conducted on a zone talk group.

A

20 seconds

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156
Q

A “hit” notification must be verified, however a “hit” can be used as P.C. for further investigation and for what purposes?

A

Stop and Frisk purposes

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157
Q

The use of the ramming technique is considered what?

A

Deadly Force

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158
Q

Canine officers, motorcycles, vans, unmarked cars, vehicles without emergency equipment or vehicles with non-police employees as passengers may pursue fleeing vehicles but must do what?

A

Discontinue the pursuit when a marked vehicle with emergency equipment can take over.

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159
Q

Canine officers, motorcycles, vans, unmarked cars, vehicles without emergency equipment or vehicles with non-police employees as passengers may remain primary pursuit vehicle with whose authorization?

A

Lieutenant or higher authority

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160
Q

An officer may engage in a pursuit only under what 5 circumstances?

A
  1. Violator committed or is committing a violent felony
  2. Hazardous driving prior to pursuit
  3. DUI with clear indication of impairment
  4. Hit and Run with Death or Serious Injury
  5. Suicidal subject that is armed or has made threats to commit suicide by cop and failure to apprehend the subject will place others in danger
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161
Q

A pursuit may be cancelled at any time by who?

A

A sworn supervisor

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162
Q

If the PIT maneuver is going to be used, how many units should be involved in the pursuit?

A

3

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163
Q

Canine officers assigned high profile vehicles (SUV) with push bumpers will not utilize the PIT unless what?

A

Deadly force is justified

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164
Q

Can an officer pursue a violator the wrong way on a divided highway against the flow of traffic?

A

No

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165
Q

Pursuits initiated by any unit other than a marked unit shall do what?

A

Relinquish any position in the pursuit to a marked unit as soon as possible

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166
Q

If a pursuit is terminated the pursuing officer shall do what 4 things?

A
  1. Slow down to speed limit
  2. Turn off emergency equipment
  3. Alter direction of travel or stop
  4. Notify HQ
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167
Q

At the termination of a pursuit the responsibility of maintaining control and directing activities will be with who?

A

The most senior officer present in the pursuit until relieved by a supervisor

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168
Q

A Lieutenant will respond to the termination point of a pursuit when what 3 things occur?

A
  1. A forcible stop technique is used
  2. A traffic crash occurs
  3. An Arrest is made
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169
Q

Anytime a pursuit is initiated and later terminated (code N) by a supervisor or the initiating officer, a Vehicle Pursuit Report Form (P-1706) will be completed by who?

A

The responsible Lieutenant

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170
Q

Who can use the Blocking Technique?

A

Officers trained in its use when authorized by a Sergeant or higher authority

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171
Q

Whose authorization is needed to use the Blocking Technique?

A

Sergeant or higher authority

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172
Q

Who may use the “Box-in” technique?

A

Authorized members of the Homeland Security Division when authorized by a Lieutenant or higher authority

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173
Q

Who can authorize the use of the “Box-in” technique?

A

Lieutenant or higher authority

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174
Q

If an officer wants to PIT a vehicle what must he do?

A

Notify a supervisor

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175
Q

PIT can’t be used against vehicles whose tires are spiked, punctured or deflated unless what?

A

Deadly Force is justified

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176
Q

What is the maximum speed the PIT can but used, unless deadly force is justified?

A

55 MPH

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177
Q

PIT is only to be used on passenger vehicles unless what?

A

Deadly Force is justified

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178
Q

Officers who use PIT will complete what report in addition to other required reports

A

RTR in Armor

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179
Q

Ramming a vehicle should only be done when what is justified?

A

Deadly Force

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180
Q

Who can authorize ramming a suspect vehicle?

A

Lieutenant or higher authority

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181
Q

Tire deflation devices will not be used on what vehicles?

A

Motorcycles, Motor Scooters, 3 wheelers, ATVs

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182
Q

Anytime a tire deflation device has been used the deploying officer will record the incident on what?

A

Vehicle Pursuit Report Form (P-1706E)

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183
Q

Anytime death or life threatening injuries result from the deployment of a tire deflation or from the vehicle pursuit, the incident will be reported on a ___________ and who will investigate it?

A

On a General Offense Report

Investigated by Traffic Homicide

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184
Q

Should a Patrol Watch Commander determine that a pursuit incident is a traffic crash, not a lawful immobilization from tire deflation devices, the incident will be reported on a ____________ by patrol and who will investigate.

A

Crash Report

Investigated by Traffic Homicide

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185
Q

Damage to police vehicles which result from crossing a tire deflation device will be documented how?

A

Blue Team Report

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186
Q

Who has the ultimate authority for a pursuits continuation or termination?

A

The Lieutenant monitoring the pursuit

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187
Q

Officers engaged in pursuits for what offense shall terminate their pursuits at the Duval County Line?

A

Hazardous Driving

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188
Q

Officers pursuing Felony vehicles into other jurisdictions may continue the pursuit with the permission of who?

A

A Patrol Lieutenant and the adjoining jurisdiction

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189
Q

Pursuits involving significant property damage, serious bodily injury or death will be reviewed by who?

A

RTR Board or

Safety Board

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190
Q

Pursuits involving significant property damage, serious bodily injury or death require the Patrol Lieutenant to notify who immediately?

A

City Insurance Adjuster

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191
Q

Prior to an officer obtaining a search warrant, he must have a supervisor do what?

A

Approve the P.C. of the warrant and Initial the Search Warrant Checklist

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192
Q

How many copies of a search warrant are needed?

A

2

One left at the premises searched along with an inventory the other is returned to the Judge

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193
Q

NINJAs must be completed how far in advance of serving a search warrant?

A

at least 2 hours

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194
Q

During a search warrant, a supervisor will designate officers to search specific areas. A minimum of how many officers will be assigned to each room during the search?

A

2

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195
Q

If damage to a structure or vehicle is done during a search warrant, who will be responsible for photographing the damage?

A

The supervisor at the scene unless additional processing is needed.

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196
Q

When can an officer keep a signed original warrant that has been issued by a judge?

A

Never - Under no circumstances

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197
Q

How many days does an officer have to return a search warrant to felony intake?

A

within 10 days

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198
Q

If the search warrant is not served in a timely manner or the officer decides to let it lapse, the original signed warrants will be returned to Felony Intake within how many days?

A

within 15 days

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199
Q

Who/where will be the central depository for search warrant case filed for JSO?

A

Narcotics/Vice Section

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200
Q

US Senators and US Representatives are privileged from arrest during their attendance as sessions of their houses and going to/from the same except for what offenses?

A

Treason, Felony and Breach of Peace

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201
Q

If physical arrest of a US Mail vehicle driver, Train Engineer of Bus Driver is necessary, what 2 things must be done?

A
  1. Obtain permission from a supervisor
  2. Arrange for release of the vehicle or accompany the subject back to the depot, bus barn or post office to leave the vehicle
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202
Q

An officer acting as a “private citizen” within Florida, may arrest outside of his county for what reasons?

A
  1. Felony with the officer having P.C.

2. Misdemeanor for “Breach of Peace”

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203
Q

If JSO officer locates a suspect in Nassau/Clay County with an outstanding Duval County warrant/capias can he arrest the suspect? What shall he do?

A

Yes, Arrest suspect and notify Nassau/Clay County of the action, bring suspect to Duval for booking

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204
Q

If a JSO officer has located in Nassau/Clay County a suspect who the officer has developed Probably Cause for a Serious Violent Felony, what should the officer do?

A

Notify Nassau/Clay County Watch Commander to authorize arrest. If authorized, make the arrest and return to Duval County for processing.

If Nassau/Clay Watch Commander doesn’t authorize arrest, return to Duval, get a warrant and return to arrest.

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205
Q

Does Issuance of A NTA constitute an arrest?

A

Yes

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206
Q

If JSO arrests a suspect for a crime that occurs in Clay or Nassau County while acting under the Cops without Borders agreement, where will the suspect be booked?

A

In the county they are arrested in

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207
Q

If a suspect is arrested pursuant to a warrant/capias in Nassau or Clay County and there is a bond amount on the warrant/capias, the suspect can request to be booked where?

A

In that county. The officer does not have to tell the suspect about this option.

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208
Q

Officers acting under the Cops without Borders program must do what?

A

Notify a police supervisor they are taking law enforcement action outside Duval County

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209
Q

When can an arrested suspect be un-handcuffed?

A

At a booking point or by a detective for a prior to booking interview

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210
Q

Who can conduct a strip search?

A

Officers of the same sex

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211
Q

Who can conduct a cavity search?

A

Medical personnel at UF Health

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212
Q

Supervisors will check/approve all arrest and booking reports except what offenses? (5)

A
  1. Shoplifting with no other charges
  2. Capias
  3. Court Orders
  4. Public Intoxicants with no other charges
  5. Rebooks
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213
Q

If an officer is handling a situation involving possible arrest of a suspect about to receive treatment in a local hospital or medical facility or receiving treatment in a hospital or medical facility, he must obtain approval of who prior to arrest? What is an exception?

A

Director of Patrol and Enforcement or Director of Investigations and Homeland Security

Exception - Suspect being treated at UF Health

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214
Q

All preplanned arrests by non-courthouse personnel to be effected inside the Duval Courthouse shall be coordinated through who?

A

Court Security Office

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215
Q

A hold will not be placed on a vehicle unless a detective is conducting a follow-up investigation, except in what cases?

A

Hit and Run,

Vehicle Forfeitures

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216
Q

After a warrant is validated in e-warrants by ID it can only be served for how long before it has be validated again?

A

within the next 12 hours

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217
Q

Which applications for misdemeanor warrants must be made in person?

A
  1. DUI
  2. Domestic related charges
  3. Dating Violence
  4. Stalking
  5. Violation of Injunction
  6. Juvenile Cases
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218
Q

An Assistant State Attorney will review all warrants that remain unserved for how long, to determine if they should remain active?

A

6 months

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219
Q

If a suspect is arrested for out of state charges and has no local charges, he will be charged with what offense on the docket?

A

Fugitive from Justice

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220
Q

If a suspect is arrested for out of state charges and also has local charges, he will be charged with what offense on the docket?

A

Local Charges, Detainer on out of state charges

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221
Q

If a suspect is arrested for charges for jurisdictions within Florida and has no local charges, he will be charged with what offense on the docket?

A

Charges on the warrant

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222
Q

If a suspect is arrested for charges for jurisdictions within Florida and has also local charges, he will be charged with what offense on the docket?

A

Local Charges, Detainer for other Florida Jurisdiction charges

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223
Q

When admission to a residence is pursuant to a search warrant and the officer, while inside the residence, intends to arrest a suspect for a previous offense, the officer must do what?

A

Obtain an arrest warrant for the suspect

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224
Q

If a victim of an offense requiring a VINE PIN is incapacitated and the officer is unable to obtain a PIN, the officer will assign what number as the PIN?

A

9999

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225
Q

Deterimation of criteria for prosecution as a Habitual Felony/Violent Offender is done by who?

A

State Attorney’s Officer

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226
Q

An individual issued a NTA has how long to report to the Clerk of the Courts, Misdemeanor Division?

A

within 10 Working Days

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227
Q

If a subject has had an arrest within the past 6 months, a previous FTA within the past 12 months, or has been convicted of a prior petit theft, he is not eligible for what?

A

A NTA

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228
Q

What are the qualification to issue a NTA? (12)

A
  1. Positive Identification of the suspect
  2. Violator is a Florida resident (except open container)
  3. Violator agrees to sign the citation
  4. No potential for continued violence
  5. Violator’s faculties not impaired
  6. Violator is not a Juvenile
  7. No active warrants for violator
  8. Violator has not had an arrest in the past 6 months
  9. No history of FTA in the past 12 months
  10. If Petit Theft, no previous Petit Theft Arrests
  11. Violator is not charged with a traffic offense
  12. Violator is not charged with domestic violence
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229
Q

Can individuals charged with Prostitution be issued a NTA?

A

No

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230
Q

Once requested, crime scene detectives will be notified within how long of the request.

A

1 hour

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231
Q

If no detective is present at the scene of a crime, who is in charge of the scene?

A

A Supervisor

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232
Q

If a supervisor and a detective is not present at the scene of a crime, who is in charge of the crime scene?

A

Crime Scene Detective

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233
Q

Who can authorize entry into the inner perimeter of a crime scene?

A

Lead Detective or Crime Scene Detective

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234
Q

Patrol supervisors will do what 4 things at the scene of a crime?

A
  1. Ensure adequate man power for needed tasks
  2. Keep Communications Watch Supervisor informed
  3. Ensure officers not needed check back in service
  4. Coordinate the efforts of personnel involved
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235
Q

Crime Scene Detectives shall ensure all reports, photographs and evidence are turned in when? Exception?

A

by the end of their tour of duty

When approved by Crime Scene Detective Supervisor

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236
Q

All evidence pertaining to a specific case (Latents and Physical Evidence) shall be submitted where?

A

The same laboratory

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237
Q

A Crime Scene Detective will be called to a vehicle burglary if the loss is over how much?

A

$5,000

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238
Q

A Crime Scene Detective will be called to a vehicle burglary ______ or more vehicles are involved?

A

5

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239
Q

A Crime Scene Detective will be called to a vehicle burglary if what happens?

A

a suspect is in custody

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240
Q

A Crime Scene Detective will be called to a criminal mischief call when damage is over ___________.

A

$1,000

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241
Q

A Crime Scene Detective will be called to a criminal mischief call when the damage is related to __________?

A

Gang Graffiti

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242
Q

A Crime Scene Detective will be called to a criminal mischief anytime what happens?

A

a suspect is in custody

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243
Q

Under normal circumstances all items of evidence shall be turned into the property room by who?

A

the first officer that touches them

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244
Q

What will be completed on all major crime scenes by the Crime Scene Detective when practical?

A

Crime Scene Sketch

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245
Q

Photographs of injuries will not be requested or taken by a Crime Scene Detective in what 3 circumstances?

A
  1. Injury to the external genitalia
  2. Child victim to be examined by CPT
  3. Adult victim to be examined by SARC
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246
Q

In traffic fatalities, what shall the investigator do with the clothing, shoes, helmet, etc worn by the victim?

A

Forward to the Medical Examiner’s Office with the body

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247
Q

Photographs of JSO vehicles involved in crashes with no injures requiring transport by emergency vehicles to a medical facility will be taken by who?

A

The responding supervisor

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248
Q

Photographs of crashes taken by supervisors of will be turned in where by when?

A

Drop box at the PMB security desk

By the end of their tour of duty

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249
Q

A Crime Scene Detective will process recovered stolen vehicles in what two circumstances?

A
  1. The vehicle was used in a Violent Felony

2. When Requested by a supervisor due to a Pattern or Trend

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250
Q

Officers will process recovered stolen vehicles in what three circumstances?

A
  1. Arrest made when vehicle was stolen from Duval, Nassau, Clay, Baker or St. Johns County.
  2. Usable Evidence is present
  3. Possibly unreported and usable evidence or suspicious circumstances (broken steering column, etc)
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251
Q

Are owners required to have their vehicles processed?

A

No, If requested, the vehicle should be released immediately

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252
Q

If a vehicle is recovered from a county other than Duval, Clay, Nassau, Baker or St. Johns, will it be processed? What about if an arrest is made?

A

No

No

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253
Q

How many specially trained and equipped crime scene detectives will respond to a weapons of mass destruction incident?

A

No less than 2

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254
Q

What is the proper order of processing evidence?

A

Serology, Latent Prints, Ballistics, Functionality

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255
Q

Crime Scene Detectives shall not be called under any circumstances to transport what type of property?

A

Personal property which is not evidence

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256
Q

How often is evidence transported from the Property and Evidence Facility to FDLE for examination?

A

twice weekly

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257
Q

The Latent Print Unit is staffed with civilian personnel assigned to what division?

A

Detective Division

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258
Q

Latent Print Unit requests should be completed how quickly?

A

within 24 hours

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259
Q

The Latent Print Unit is a restricted access area. No guests are permitted without prior approval of who?

A

Latent Print Unit Commanding Officer

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260
Q

All property, whether personal, lost or evidence, will be turned in to the property room when?

A

by the end of their tour of duty

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261
Q

A police hold for property located at a pawn shop is good for how long?

A

90 days unless extended by a court order

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262
Q

Pawn shops must hold property pawned for how long before it can be resold?

A

60 days

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263
Q

Pawn shops must hold property sold to them for how long before it can be resold?

A

30 days

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264
Q

Second Hand Dealers must hold property sold to them for how long before it can be resold?

A

15 days

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265
Q

Secondary Metals Recyclers must hold items sold for how long before they can be melted/resold?

A

No holding period

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266
Q

This is no required holding period for secondary metals recyclers; however a “hold notice” may be placed on located stolen items for how long?

A

15 days

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267
Q

Only detectives from what units are authorized to seize property from pawn shops, second hand dealers or secondary metal recyclers?

A

Property Recovery Unit, Burglary and Scrap Task Force

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268
Q

Release of property seized from a pawn shop requires one of two things prior to release to the victim?

A
  1. Agreement between victim and pawn shop, or

2. Court order signed by a judge

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269
Q

Who is authorized to physically release items/articles of property or evidence held by JSO?

A

Only personnel assigned to the property and evidence unit

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270
Q

Persons arrested with animals in their possession shall be handled in one of 3 ways. What are they?

A
  1. Animal taken to arrestees home
  2. Animal released to animal control- “notification of involuntary sheltering” - form given to PDF intake officer.
  3. Taken to animal hospital/kennel if requested by arrestee if he can pay for boarding.
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271
Q

According to Florida State Statutes, individuals turning found property over to police have the right to make a claim for the property if the owner is not found. What 2 items can not be claimed?

A

Firearms and Derelict vehicles

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272
Q

According to Florida State Statutes, what type of property is not included in the definition of abandoned property?

A

Derelict Vessels

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273
Q

Officers won’t physically release items from the property room to owners unless what?

A
  1. The victim is physically unable to get the property
  2. Signed authorization by the owner
  3. Approval in writing from their commanding officer
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274
Q

How long or a holding period is required for lost, recovered and abandoned property retained by JSO?

A

90 days

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275
Q

Who must be present for the destruction of all narcotics?

A
  1. Sworn Property and Evidence Supervisor
  2. Police Service Technician
  3. 2 members of Integrity
  4. 3 armed guards will escort and witness the destruction
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276
Q

Employees of JSO (except those assigned to the property and evidence facility) can bid on items at JSO auctions under what circumstances?

A
  1. They are off duty
  2. They are not in uniform
  3. They have no prior knowledge of the item being auctioned
  4. The item is not a vehicle
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277
Q

Can JSO employees bid on vehicles at JSO auctions?

A

No

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278
Q

Can members of the JSO Property and Evidence Facility bid on items at JSO auctions?

A

No

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279
Q

How much of a suspects narcotic will be used to conduct a preliminary test for controlled substances?

A

1/10 of a gram or less

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280
Q

Preliminary tests of unknown controlled substances for Probable Cause will be conducted when what 2 factors are present?

A
  1. A substance is found and there is no other probable cause for obtaining a warrant; or
  2. The test will be used to support probable cause or identify a substance for filing charges
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281
Q

When do vehicle holds self cancel?

A

5 days excluding weekends and holidays

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282
Q

Officers/Detectives have how long to determine if an extended hold is required?

A

72 hours from the time of the tow

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283
Q

JSO will be responsible for any storage fees exceeding ________ days if the vehicle is not transferred to the JSO storage facility?

A

5 days

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284
Q

Vehicles that need to be towed shall be handled by a TOL wrecker with what exception?

A

Emergency situations - The officer can request the closest available wrecker

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285
Q

When a vehicle is impounded, the wrecker firm has how many days to notify the owner of the impoundment? In what manner?

A

7 days by Certified Mail

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286
Q

The owner has _______ days to request a hearing regarding the propriety of the impoundment and the owner’s liability for the towing and storage charges, by contacting the VSRU in person.

A

5 business days

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287
Q

A TOL wrecker towing a vehicle for parking violations is entitled to what if the owner arrives after the vehicle is hooked up?

A

half of the hook up fee

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288
Q

A TOL wrecker towing a vehicle for parking violations is entitled to what if the owner arrives before the vehicle is hooked up?

A

nothing, the wrecker will be placed back at the top of the TOL list

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289
Q

Midnight officers assigned an unattended conveyance call shall do what? Who is the information forwarded to?

A

affix a 24 hour sticker, update the vehicle details in the comments section of the dispatch screen and forward the information to the Zone Traffic Sergeant for follow-up

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290
Q

In order for a vehicle to be towed from a tow away zone, what must first occur?

A

parking citation issued and affixed to the vehicle

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291
Q

How long do owners have to respond to take custody of their vehicle when it is recovered?

A

Approximately 30 minutes

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292
Q

What a vehicle is to be stored of impounded and held for further investigation what is required?

A

A supervisor’s approval

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293
Q

If a vehicle is being towed for forfeiture, how soon after the vehicle is towed, does the forfeiture packet need to be completed and submitted?

A

within 24 hours

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294
Q

Unclaimed vehicles towed at the direction of JSO can be released to the TOL firm towing the vehicle. What unit can release unclaimed vehicles to the TOL firms?

A

VSRU

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295
Q

Unclaimed vehicles towed at the direction of JSO can be released to the TOL firm towing the vehicle by the VRSU. Vehicles less than 3 years old can be released after how many days?

A

50 days

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296
Q

Unclaimed vehicles towed at the direction of JSO can be released to the TOL firm towing the vehicle by the VRSU. Vehicles 3 years old and older can be released after how many days?

A

after 35 days

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297
Q

Who can remove a DHSMV hold on a vehicle?

A

Vehicle Storage and Recovery Unit (VSRU)

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298
Q

The forfeiture unit copy of the seizure of property notice form will be forwarded to the Forfeiture Unit within _______.

A

24 hours

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299
Q

Who must be contacted if $5000 or more is seized or forfeited?

A

Narcotics/Vice Unit

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300
Q

If a person is unable to sign the Forfeiture notice due to medical issues what will be written on the signature line?

A

Medically Incapacitated

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301
Q

When property other than currency is seized for forfeiture, the probable cause supporting the seizure will be promptly reviewed by _________________?

A

A supervisor who is not directly involved in making the seizure

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302
Q

The determination of whether to seize currency will be made by who?

A

A supervisor

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303
Q

A vehicle can be seized under what three conditions?

A
  1. DUI - Any vehicle value
  2. Habitual Traffic Offender - Any vehicle value
  3. Any Felony - Vehicle value $2000 or more
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304
Q

Any vehicle used in the commission of a felony and/or is proceeds of felony activity is eligible for seizure if the value is ____________ or more, including contents or special equipment.

A

$2,000 or more

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305
Q

Any cash amount over _______ is eligible to be seized for forfeiture when the cash is connected to felony activity or is the proceeds of felony activity. What amount of cash can be seized if a vehicle is also being seized?

A

$500

Any amount of cash

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306
Q

All prisoners will be handcuffed or otherwise restrained when being transported in a JSO vehicle. No prisoner will be handcuffed or manacled where?

A

To the inside of a vehicle

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307
Q

Prisoners are not permitted what prior to and during transportation?

A

visitors or use of a telephone or any communications with others

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308
Q

Prisoners shall not be transported by an officer alone when?

A

Vehicle not equipped with a safety barrier

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309
Q

If a prisoner is not being extremely violent, is not a danger to escape, hurting himself or damaging a vehicle and the transporting officer needs to remove the suspect from the vehicle what shall he do?

A

Obtain a street supervisor’s approval before removing the suspect

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310
Q

Can juvenile arrestee be transported with adult arrestees? Males with female?

A

Only if they are arrested together in the same offense

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311
Q

If a wheelchair dependent individual is arrested and the officer is unable to transport the wheelchair and prisoner together, the officer will call who?

A

Jail Watch Commander to arrange for transport of the prisoner with the wheelchair

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312
Q

If a wheelchair dependent individual is arrested and the officer is unable to transport the wheelchair and prisoner together, the officer will call the Jail Watch Commander to arrange for transport of the prisoner with the wheelchair. If the Jail Watch Commander is unable to guarantee a response within __________ minutes the officer will secure the chair and transport the prisoner without the chair.

A

30 minutes

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313
Q

If a wheelchair dependent individual is arrested and the officer has requested the Jail Watch Commander to pick up the prisoner’s wheelchair, the officer will provide the Watch Commander with what?

A

The name of the individual who has custody of the wheelchair

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314
Q

When transporting a prisoner to a different stated (interstate), the escort officer must have what?

A

A properly executed Governor’s Warrant or A properly executed waiver

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315
Q

What must happen for a JSO Officer to fly armed on a Commercial Airline?

A
  1. The officer must be flying on official business
  2. The officer must carry a letter on official letter head signed by a supervisor
  3. The officer must have completed the Flying Armed Class
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316
Q

The medical screening nurse at the PDF will check prisoners under what conditions?

A

When the prisoner is bleeding, or complains of injury or illness

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317
Q

What are the 4 supervisory responsibilities upon being notified of an escape?

A
  1. Contact Watch Commander
  2. Establish and maintain perimeter and supervise search
  3. Request any necessary assistance from specialized units (K-9, air unit)
  4. Ensure appropriate reports are completed and NCIC is notified for a BOLO
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318
Q

Arrestee transport vans are available for patrol use a the discretion of who?

A

Patrol Supervisor

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319
Q

Arrestee Transport Vans may be loaned to other units/sections, etc. at the whose discretion?

A

Watch Commander or Higher Authority

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320
Q

Vans will not be used to transport what?

A

Human Remains

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321
Q

Where are all juvenile Baker Acts taken?

A

MHCJ - 3333 W. 20th St

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322
Q

Ex Parte orders are only valid for a set period of time, if no time limit is set in the order it is valid for how long?

A

7 days after it is signed

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323
Q

Officers will not remove any mental patient from a facility without whose approval? What exceptions?

A

Commanding Officer

Felony Violation

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324
Q

Adults who are intoxicated and meet the criteria for involuntary examinations shall be transported where?

A

Nearest Receiving Facility

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325
Q

Adults who are injured and meet the criteria for involuntary examinations shall be transported where?

A

Nearest Emergency Room (complete involuntary examination paperwork and leave it with hospital)

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326
Q

Adults who have Felony Charges and meet the criteria for involuntary examinations shall be transported where?

A

PDF - Notating criteria is met in the narrative of the arrest docket

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327
Q

Adults who have misdemeanor charges and meet the criteria for involuntary examinations shall be transported where?

A

Nearest Receiving Facility - “Criminal Charges Pending” in additional information of the involuntary examination report. “Absentee Booked” with guard placed in suspect.

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328
Q

Adults who meet the criteria for involuntary examinations shall be transported where?

A

Nearest Receiving Facility

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329
Q

Firearms seized pursuant to an involuntary examination shall not be released by the property room without what?

A

A court order from a Judge or
A letter from a Florida Licensed Mental Health Professional stating that a person “is of sound mind to possess a firearm”

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330
Q

Juvenile offenders can be dealt with in one of 3 ways, what are they?

A
  1. Released, no further action
  2. Referral to SAO of DJJ (supervision by parents)
  3. Referral to Juvenile Court
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331
Q

Generally how old must a juvenile be to make an arrest?

A

10 or older, 9 or under requires a supervisor’s approval

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332
Q

If an officer has probable cause to arrest a juvenile, but elects not to, the officer will go to the SAO and file a case when(how long)?

A

The next workday

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333
Q

Juveniles will be arrested as an adult when what has occurred and the offense occurred when?

A

Certified as an adult by the SAO and the offense the juvenile is being charged with occurred after being certified.

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334
Q

The Duval JAC will not accept Florida _________ or juveniles only charged with ______________.

A

Florida Runaways

Charged only with Misdemeanor Traffic Charges

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335
Q

With regards to juvenile release, a person is not considered “A Responsible Adult” if the person has a prior conviction for what 4 things?

A
  1. Any Felony
  2. Child Abuse
  3. Drug Trafficking
  4. Prostitution
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336
Q

If a juvenile commits a offense which would be a felony if committed by an adult, the arresting officer will do what?

A

Route a copy of the General Report to the School Board

If a General Report is not created, complete a FIR to the School Board

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337
Q

Officers will file juvenile cases involving any Felony (P.C. or warrants) within _____________.

A

72 hours

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338
Q

Juveniles who are arrested but meet the criteria for involuntary examination for substance abuse will be taken where?

A

PDF first prior to admission to New Beginnings Detox Center

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339
Q

If a juvenile is how old the SAO has discretion to charge the juvenile as an adult?

A

16 or older

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340
Q

Prosecution of a juvenile ______ or ______ years old as an adult is, in most cases, mandatory if the crime committed is violent or a firearm was used.

A

16 or 17 years old

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341
Q

Juvenile records (arrest and booking reports, supplement reports, fingerprints, photos, etc) are confidential except in what circumstances?

A
  1. Juvenile Traffic Violations
  2. Used for photospreads
  3. Juveniles arrested for a Felony or 3 or more misdemeanors
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342
Q

All juveniles will be advised of their Constitutional rights before any interviews. A parent can be present for those interviews but can’t do what?

A

Invoke or waive the rights of a juvenile

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343
Q

Extended interviews of how long require a juvenile to be provided food and drink at the department’s expense?

A

8 hours or more

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344
Q

Detectives and officers will be trained in interview room usage. Retraining will be offered at least once every how often?

A

At least once every 3 years

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345
Q

Once a juvenile is placed in “secure custody” status. This status can not exceed how many hours, before the juvenile is to be delivered to the appropriate facility of released from “secure custody”.

A

6 hours

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346
Q

A juvenile is considered to be in non-secure status when _________.

A

he is continuously observed by an officer and the interview room is unlocked

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347
Q

What are the only 2 exception to the legal duty to report known or suspected child abuse?

A
  1. Attorney/client privilege

2. Clergy/client privilege

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348
Q

All reports related to ____________, ___________ or _________, regardless if committed by a caregiver or non-caregiver, shall be faxed to DCF or the Florida Abuse Hotline Information System.

A
  1. Child Abuse
  2. Child Neglect
  3. Child Sexual Abuse
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349
Q

A person who is required to report known/suspected child abuse, abandonment, neglect or child abuse and knowingly/willfully fails to do so, commits what degree offense?

A

3rd Degree Felony

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350
Q

Officers are required to notify DCF Abuse Hotline Information System of all abused/neglected children who are what?

A

admitted or treated by a medical facility as a result of the abuse/neglect

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351
Q

Truants who are rejected by their school due to behavior and the parents are unable to take custody of the child will be taken where?

A

Youth Crisis Center

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352
Q

A juvenile will not be considered truant if he is ________ years old and has a valid work permit or certificate providing an exemption from school, or is ______ years old and has withdrawn from school.

A

14 years old

16 years old

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353
Q

What are the curfew hours of Jacksonville?

A

11pm-5am Sunday night - Thursday Night

Midnight -6am Saturday night-Sunday night and legal holidays

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354
Q

What disposition code is used when a civil citation is issued?

A

Code 6

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355
Q

What is the clearance status when a juvenile civil citation is issued?

A

Exceptionally Cleared

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356
Q

In order for a juvenile civil citation to be issued several conditions must be met. To be issued a juvenile civil citation the juvenile must have committed a __________ offense, with no previous civil citations, pending cases, active community control or SAO/DJJ diversion currently or in the past.

A

first time misdemeanor offense

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357
Q

In order for a juvenile civil citation to be issued several conditions must be met. To be issued a juvenile civil citation the juvenile must not be a ____________.

A

criminal gang member or associate

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358
Q

In order for a juvenile civil citation to be issued several conditions must be met. To be issued a juvenile civil citation the juvenile must have committed a qualifying misdemeanor offense and __________________.

A

confessed to have committed the offense

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359
Q

In order for a juvenile civil citation to be issued several conditions must be met. To be issued a juvenile civil citation the victim of a property crime or crime against persons must agreed to _____________.

A

waive restitution

360
Q

The SAO juvenile division will keep accurate statistics on juvenile civil citations. This information will be forwarded to who at JSO, how often?

A

Community Affairs Division

Quarterly

361
Q

Priority 2 missing persons cases involve one of 4 criteria, what are those criteria?

A
  1. victim is 12 years old or younger
  2. From a dependency shelter with foul play
  3. Mentally/Physically challenged
  4. Senile, Elderly or possible foul play is suspected regardless of age
362
Q

Florida State Statutes mandates that a ___________ be broadcast to notify all on-duty Law Enforcement Officers of the existence of a missing child.

A

BOLO

363
Q

In missing persons cases, how long after “receipt of report” does an officer have to ensure the information about the missing person is entered into NCIC/FCIC?

A

2 hours

364
Q

A missing person’s detective will be notified 24/7 on all bona fide incidents after what happens?

A

after initial search fails

365
Q

A missing person’s detective will be notified immediately when what factors are present?

A
  1. Clear evidence of foul play
  2. Elderly Persons (out of character, medical/mental issues)
  3. Children under 12 years old
  4. Mentally incompetent individuals unable to care for themselves
  5. The use of a “Code Red” or a Child is Missing can be activated by the on call missing persons detective.
366
Q

Who can activate a “Code Red”?

A

The on-call Missing Persons Detective

367
Q

Who must be notified when a “Code Red” is activated?

A

PIO and Communications Center Supervisor

368
Q

Homicide shall be notified in missing persons cases when what factors are involved?

A

Clear evidence of foul play or kidnapping/parental kidnapping

369
Q

On bona fide incidents involving endangered missing persons, the ICS will be used. At a minimum what positions will be filled?

A

Incident Command and general staff positions, Operations Section with a Patrol Branch and Investigations Branch

370
Q

In cases of child abduction, an AMBER alert may be issued under what 2 conditions? Who initiates the Amber Alert?

A
  1. Confirmed Child Abduction
  2. Circumstances surrounding the abduction indicate the child is in danger of serious bodily harm/death
    Homicide Supervisor
371
Q

Who initiates an AMBER alert?

A

Homicide Supervisor

372
Q

Runaways between 12-17 years old who are reported missing without foul play and have been reported missing at least once before is what category offense?

A

Category B

373
Q

Missing Persons no located within ________ days require the assigned detective to obtain biological specimens from the family.

A

90 days

374
Q

Runaways from homes or dependency shelters are classified as what category investigations?

A

Category C

375
Q

Children under age 10 who are found and a parent/guardian/caregiver can not be located shall be transported where for placement?

A

Duval Regional Service Center (after hours DCF Abuse Hotilne)

376
Q

Children over age 10 who are found and a parent/guardian/caregiver can not be located shall be transported where for placement?

A

Youth Crisis Center

377
Q

All State Foster Children/Runaway recoveries, where foster parents/home refuses to take custody of the child will be transported where?

A

New Beginnings - 555 Stockton St

378
Q

Who activates the a Silver Alert, after obtaining whose approval?

A

Missing Persons Sergeant or designee

Homicide Unit Commander

379
Q

During normal business hours, the officer in charge of any given situation will be who?
After Hours?

A

A/C of affected Zone

Watch Commander of sector with the emergency

380
Q

Who is responsible for passing necessary information to the communications watch supervisor in patrol incidents?

A

Patrol Sergeant

381
Q

Prior to requesting the Homicide Unit or a Homicide Sergeant be notified, what must occur?

A

The supervisor must arrive at the scene

382
Q

The crimes of ___________ and __________ that occur on Duval County Public School property will be followed up by JSO.

A

Murder and Sexual Battery

383
Q

Category “A” offense case investigations must be completed within how many days?

A

10 calendar days from the date of the original report

384
Q

Patrol has investigative responsibility for category “B” offense cases for how long?

A

20 calendar days from the date of the original report

385
Q

Who can grant an extension for a category “B” offense case?

A

Patrol Supervisor

386
Q

How soon must an officer file a case with the SAO on a Felony arrest?

A

within 24 hours if the officer is working the next day.

within 120 hours if the officer is not working the next day

387
Q

An officer has how long to obtain an arrest warrant/capias for suspects still at large on felony cases?

A

within 36 hours (excluding weekends and holidays)

388
Q

Lost property requires a report when the value of the property is __________ or the property has a __________ available, or is ____________.

A

$1,500 or more
has a serial number available
one of a kind and is identifiable by distinct markings

389
Q

When a kidnapping occurs along with another crime (sexual battery, robbery, carjacking) and the victim is still missing at the time of the report who will investigate the incident?

A

Homicide Detectives

390
Q

If during a field interview a subject fails to verbally identify themselves, the subject may be transported to be fingerprinted. They must be transported back within how many hours?

A

3 hours

391
Q

Who will complete the general offense report on homicide cases?

A

The primary patrol officer after consulting with the Homicide Supervisor or lead detective

392
Q

What category MCI follow up is Burglary where the victim and suspect know each other?

A

Category “A”

393
Q

What category MCI follow up is Theft under $10,000?

A

Category “A”

394
Q

What category MCI follow up is Child Neglect?

A

Category “A”

395
Q

What category MCI follow up are Traffic Crashes with Life Threatening Injuries?

A

Category “B”

396
Q

What category MCI follow up are Child Abuse Cases with injuries which do not require medical attention?

A

Category “B”

397
Q

What category MCI follow up is counterfeit CD/DVD investigations?

A

Category “B”

398
Q

What category MCI follow up is aggravated child abuse?

A

Category “C”

399
Q

What category MCI follow up are fatal traffic crashes and hit and run crashes with serious bodily injuries or fatalities?

A

Category “C”

400
Q

What category MCI follow up are incidents involving gang related violence?

A

Category “C”

401
Q

A pat down of a subject to determine if he is armed with a weapon can be conducted when there is what burden of proof?

A

Reasonable suspicion

402
Q

In cases where death has been caused by fire or hazardous material incidents, officers will not enter the scene until who has declared it safe?

A

the on scene ranking fire official

403
Q

If fire officials will complete their investigation prior to the arrival of Homicide detectives, the officer on scene shall ensure what is recorded?

A

the names of the fire personnel who entered the scene

404
Q

Who will be summoned to the scene by homicide of any death that potentially resulted from criminal means?

A

the on-call Homicide Assistant State Attorney

405
Q

Local next-of-kin notifications of homicide and traffic homicide incidents will be done in what manner by who?

A

In person by the on-duty patrol supervisor and one additional officer

406
Q

Out of County death notifications requests for local next-of-kin will be done in what manner?

A

In person by the on-duty patrol supervisor and one additional officer

407
Q

What should be done prior to establishing a command post or control location at an exploded device scene?

A

a thorough search of the area for secondary devices

408
Q

On bomb threat calls, the sector supervisor will respond to the scene and do what?

A

Establish ICS, assume the role of incident commander, and keep the communications watch supervisor informed

409
Q

If on bomb threat investigation call at a private business, a threat or suspected device has not been located, who has the right to make decisions if the scene will be searched or evacuated?

A

The victim’s representative in authority

410
Q

If on bomb threat investigation call at a public school, a threat or suspected device has not been located, who has the right to make decisions if the scene will be searched or evacuated?

A

The victim’s representative in authority

411
Q

If on bomb threat investigation call at a city building/facility, a threat or suspected device has not been located, who has the right to make decisions if the scene will be searched or evacuated?

A

JSO

412
Q

If on bomb threat investigation call, at any location, a threat or suspected device has been located, who has the right to make decisions if the scene will be searched or evacuated?

A

JSO - an immediate evacuation will be ordered

413
Q

If the scene of a bomb threat is to be searched, a sector supervisor will do what?

A

establish a temporary command post, upwind, up hill, at least 1000 feet from the scene (after the area has been searched for secondary devices)

414
Q

If a temporary command post is established on a bomb threat/located device call, what is the distance and location for the command post? What should be done before establishing the temporary command post

A

at least 1000 feet away from scene, upwind, up hill (searched for secondary devices before establishing)

415
Q

All radio and electronic communications should take place where?

A

command post or outside 1000 ft perimeter

416
Q

Explosive trained canines will not be used to do what?

A

check or verify a located or suspicious package

417
Q

Anytime a threat or suspected items is located the sector supervisor will do what?

A

Immediately order an evacuation and notify the Watch Commander

418
Q

Who can call out the Bomb Squad?

A

Watch Commander or higher authority

419
Q

Who will be the incident commander on bomb calls?

A

Watch Commander until relieved by a higher authority

420
Q

If a device is located, how far should the command post be located from the scene?

A

at least 1000 feet

421
Q

Anytime a suspected device is located, what will be used?

A

ICS

422
Q

Who is responsible for notifying the appropriate agencies and investigators in incidents involving explosive materials?

A

Explosives Technician

423
Q

If a threat or suspected item is to be transported to by the JSO bomb squad to a remote location to be rendered safe, what shall happen?

A

An escort will be provided by marked patrol vehicles

424
Q

In post blast incidents, how big should the inner perimeter of the post blast scene be?

A

50% larger/wider than the debris located furthest from the epicenter

425
Q

Who is the lead investigating agency for all terrorist incidents?

A

FBI

426
Q

Who will have the sole authority over the warm and hot zones until cleared of explosive devices, criminal threats and then until chemical, biological or radiological threats are cleared?

A

JFRD Hazmat Team and JSO bomb squad

After criminal threats are cleared, JFRD hazmat will remain until all chemical, radiological, and biohazard is cleared

427
Q

Who can declare/impose a quarantine based on the type of agent released and potential for further contamination?

A

Florida Department of Health

428
Q

Anytime a biological agent is transported by an explosive device technician, what will happen?

A

a second marked patrol vehicle will follow

429
Q

Who will be notified to respond to all chemical suicide calls?

A

JFRD Hazmat and JSO Bomb Squad

430
Q

Persons who refuse to submit to arrest or detainment for a Baker Act and:
Who officers believe to be armed or have the potential to be armed and pose a threat to citizens and/or officers;
Who are believed to have been involved in a criminal act and/or are a threat to himself and/or to the lives and safety of citizens or officers;
Who are in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment, or are contained in an open area and the approach of officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the suspect.

A

Barricaded Subject

431
Q

On a hostage/barricaded subject call whose responsibility is it to establish an inner and outer perimeter and document such on a perimeter assignment form?

A

First Supervisor on Scene

432
Q

At a hostage/barricaded subject scene, who will request SWAT and the Hostage Negotiator Team?

A

Commanding Officer at the scene (Lieutenant or higher)

433
Q

Once relieved by the SWAT Commander, the responsibility for maintaining the outer perimeter, crowd control and support functions rests with who?

A

Patrol Watch Commander

434
Q

The decisions concerning the length of negotiations and use of force (chemical munitions, etc.) by SWAT rests with who?

A

Division Chief designated as the Incident Commander

435
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the proper reports are completed and submitted and ensuring damaged property is properly secured at a hostage/barricaded subject incident?

A

Patrol Supervisor in command

436
Q

The first supervisor on the scene of a hostage/barricaded subject call should complete the following tasks.
C.R.E.E.M.F.

A
  1. Establish/ maintain inner and outer perimeter - document assignments on a Perimeter Assignment Form (p-1769)
  2. Request the Watch Commander
  3. Set up temporary command post and notify comm center of location
  4. Evacuate endangered or injured persons/bystanders
  5. Establish media staging area
  6. Ensure completion of perimeter assignment form and First Responder Intelligence Form (p-0428)
437
Q

What shall be provided to the Hostage Negotiators when they arrive at the scene of a hostage/barricaded subject call?

A

notes of any negotiations conducted prior to their arrival

438
Q

The supervisor at the scene of a hostage/barricaded subject involving pending criminal charges shall ensure that what is being obtained?

A

an arrest and/or search warrant

439
Q

ICER stands for what?

A

Isolate, Contain, Evaluate, Report

440
Q

Aware alarms will be handled as a priority _______ call.

A

Priority 1

441
Q

If an AWARE alarm is a false alarm, the violator will be issued an alarm citation. What will be written on the citation?

A

AWARE written in the violation section

442
Q

Officers may elect not to issue an alarm citation when the false alarm was caused by severe weather or electrical interference, only after what?

A

consulting with a supervisor

443
Q

Officers may elect not to issue an alarm citation when the false alarm was caused by severe weather or electrical interference, after consultation with a supervisor. Should the call be changed from a 32 to a 31?

A

No

444
Q

In circumstances where officers respond to alarms with unsecured premises, how long does the owner/agent have to respond to the scene?

A

30 minutes. If not issue a citation for 163.103- Failure of representative to respond within 30 minutes

445
Q

Should officers issue a citation for “unlawful operation of an unregistered alarm”?

A

No, only the alarm control officer issues those citations

446
Q

Alarm companies are required to notify JSO communications center with information about the person responding to the scene within how long of the alarm.

A

within 10 minutes

447
Q

All legally authorized evictions are handled through which unit/section at JSO?

A

Enforceable Writs Unit of Civil process section

448
Q

What is the only provision made in state statutes for a police officer to forcibly eject an occupant of a dwelling without a court order?

A

Temporary Guest

449
Q

Indications a guest is not a temporary guest include what 3 things?

A
  1. Premises are the guests only residence
  2. Guest receives mail at the address
  3. Guest has address on his DL or other ID
450
Q

What 4 criteria must be present to eject a temporary guest?

A
  1. Guest must be transient
  2. Guest has been asked to leave
  3. Guest has been refunded unused rent already paid
  4. Guest still refuses to leave
451
Q

During lockouts by a landlord, when may an officer become involved?

A

When there is property inside the residence that is absolutely essential to the health of the tenant and no other alternatives to obtain the property.

The officer may use force to gain entry to the premises to obtain the property

452
Q

If an officer damages property and there is a personal injury involved during the process of obtaining essential property for a tenant during a lockout, who must be notified?

A

City Insurance Adjuster

453
Q

Domestic Violence involves violence between family members or household members. What constitutes family or household members?

A

Spouse, former spouse, persons related by blood or marriage, persons who currently or have in the past resided as a family together and persons with a child in common whether they were ever married or not. Except those with a child in common - all parties must have lived together in the past or are currently living together.

454
Q

Dating violence involves violence between individuals who have had or currently have a continuing relationship of a romantic or intimate nature. The relationship must have been characterized by what 3 factors?

A
  1. Must have been within the last 6 months
  2. Must have had an expectation of affection or sexual involvement
    3, Frequency and type of interaction must have been continuous during the relationship
455
Q

In dating violence situations, the relationship between the suspect and victim must have existed within the past ______ months?

A

6 months

456
Q

Repeat violence requires 2 or more incidents of violence or stalking, one must have occurred within the past how many months?

A

6 months

457
Q

When is notification of the Integrity/SIU necessary by the responding supervisor in domestic violence situations involving JSO employees?

A

Anytime a report is written or an arrest is made

458
Q

If an arrest of a JSO employee is made, who will be consulted?

A

Zone Commander or designee(A/C or higher authority)

459
Q

How will custody orders from another Florida jurisdiction be enforced?

A

Just as a local custody order

460
Q

How will custody orders from out of state jurisdiction be handled?

A

They wont be enforced unless validated by a local circuit judge

461
Q

In domestic violence cases, witnesses that are what age and older should be interviewed?

A

4 and above

462
Q

Domestic Violence cases in which children were present or exposed to the violence require what?

A

Notation of the children’s presence in the narrative and notification of DCF (Florida Abuse Registry Hotline)

463
Q

If probable cause exists in a domestic violence case but the suspect is not present, how long does the reporting officer have to attempt contact to interview the suspect?

A

within 36 hours of the reporting of the incident

464
Q

If after _______ hours, but before ______ hours, the suspect of a domestic violence incident is not contacted/interviewed, the officer will either seek a warrant at the SAO or unfound/E.C. the case.

A

after 36 hours but before 96 hours

465
Q

When a victim of domestic violence is transported to the Hubbard House the reporting officer should note the victim was transported to _______________.

A

A Safe Location

466
Q

Any time an officer responds to a domestic violence call involving intimate partners and the victim sustains injuries and is transported to the hospital for treatment, the officer will notify who?

A

NCIC to have an advocate from Hubbard House to respond

467
Q

If a child is charged with domestic violence against a parent, sibling, or offspring and does not meet the detention criteria, he/she may be held in secure detention for how long?

A

up to 48 hours

468
Q

“Violation of an Injunction for Protection Against Domestic Violence” and “Violation of an Injunction for Protection Against Dating Violence” are what degree offenses?

A

First Degree Misdemeanors

469
Q

Who issues AWARE Alarms?

A

Hubbard House

470
Q

If a Police Officer is the subject of an injunction for protection, may he possess a firearm off duty?

A

Yes, If required by official duties and not in a personal capacity (hunting, etc)

471
Q

If a Corrections Officer is the subject of an injunction for protection, may he possess a firearm off duty?

A

No

472
Q

If a Reserve Officer is the subject of an injunction for protection, may he possess a firearm off duty?

A

No

473
Q

The INVEST team is a collaborative effort between who to provide enhanced services to domestic violence victims.

A

JSO and Hubbard House

474
Q

Victims who participate in Florida’s Address Confidentiality Program (ACP) will have an alternative address. Who will serve as their legal agent?

A

Office of the Attorney General

475
Q

Officers responding to incidents believed to be motivated by Race, Religion or Ethnicity, will notify their supervisor (Sergeant). The responding Sergeant shall notify who, that will respond and verify the incident and begin an investigation. He will also notify who?

A

Intelligence Unit Detective and Watch Commander

476
Q

For a Race, Religion or Ethnicity incident to be classified as verified does it have to actually be motivated by Race, Religion or Ethnic prejudice or is it sufficient that the victim perceived the act as motivated by those factors?

A

It is sufficient if the victim perceives the motivation

477
Q

Final verification of Race, Religion or Ethnicity incidents in the responsibility of who?

A

Intelligence Unit Detective investigating the incident

478
Q

The rescue of any injured persons at the scene of a Hazmat incident should not be attempted until what is done?

A

The hazardous material has been identified

479
Q

The fire department will be called to Hazmat incidents of what size?

A

any size

480
Q

Who is responsible for overall command of a Hazardous Material Incident?

A

JFRD

481
Q

The safe distance range of hazmat incidents/spills is between ________ and __________ feet depending on the size and type of material spilled.

A

50 to 1200 feet

482
Q

At the request of a division inspector, JSO is authorized to stop and detain a motor vehicle and attached containment vessel for the purposes of testing for PCB. How long can the detainment under this provision last?

A

Up to 72 hours

483
Q

The primary purpose of the gas mask issued by JSO is to protect the officer from what?

A

CS and CN gasses

484
Q

When investigating the disappearance of “a child of tender years,” this classification refers to children under how many years of age? Who will be notified in these incidents?

A

Under 13 years old

FBI

485
Q

Luring an enticing a child refers to a person over ______ year old, who intentionally lures, entices, or attempts to lure or entice a child under _____ years old into a structure, dwelling or conveyance for other than lawful purposes.

A

Over 18 years old

Under 12 years old

486
Q

The activation of FEMCA through FDLE shall be the responsibility of the on-call Homicide Supervisor after receiving approval from who?

A

The Homicide Unit Commander or higher authority

487
Q

Who notifies the FBI if the criteria of FEMCA is met?

A

On-call Homicide Unit Supervisor

488
Q

FEMCA stands for what?

A

Florida Emergency Missing Child Alert

489
Q

What 4 specific criteria must be met in order for FDLE to activate an Emergency Missing Child Alert?

A
  1. Child must be under 18 years old
  2. Child is in danger of serious bodily harm or death
  3. Must have enough descriptive information to help
  4. FDLE Regional Crimes Against Children S/A must approve activation
490
Q

If the offense of kidnapping is committed in conjunction with at least 2 other offenses what will be done for reporting purposes?

A

A separate general offense report will be completed for the kidnapping incident with a different CCR number

491
Q

If the offense of kidnapping is committed in conjunction with1 other offense what will be done for reporting purposes?

A

The offenses will be placed on the same incident report

492
Q

If the victim of a kidnapping is 17 or under, the motive for the kidnapping cant be determined and the victim is recovered at the time of the report, who will be called?

A

Special Assault Unit

493
Q

If the victim of a kidnapping is 18 or older, the motive for the kidnapping cant be determined and the victim is recovered at the time of the report, who will be called?

A

Homicide Unit

494
Q

Parental Kidnapping is when a spouse or any other person takes or conceals a child or incompetent person with malicious intent to _________ of a child or incompetent person.

A

deprive another person of his right to custody

495
Q

Parental Kidnapping is what degree offense?

A

3rd Degree Felony

496
Q

Interference with custody is what category MCI follow-up investigation?

A

Category “B”

497
Q

Interference with custody is what degree offense?

A

3rd Degree Felony

498
Q

Who investigates kidnapping incidents of victims 18 or older?

A

Homicide Unit

499
Q

Who investigates kidnapping incidents of victims 17 or under?

A

Special Assault Unit

500
Q

Obscene/Harassing calls where the victim knows the suspect or solvability factors are present is what category MCI follow up case?

A

Category “A”

501
Q

Obscene and/or Harassing phone calls is what degree offense?

A

2nd Degree Misdemeanor

502
Q

Anyone who knowingly allows his phone to be used for the purpose of obscene and/or harassing phone calls is guilty of what degree offense?

A

2nd Degree Misdemeanor

503
Q

If an Auto Theft has occurred within the last _________ a BOLO should be broadcast over the radio and MDC as soon as __________.

A

1 hour

As soon as the tag # is obtained

504
Q

Auto Theft is what category MCI case?

A

Category “B”

505
Q

Stolen trailers which require a license plate require what with regards to reporting?

A

a dispatch number

506
Q

Thefts of Tractor/Trailer combos, Motorbikes, Mopeds, Golf Carts, Dune Buggies, Snow Mobiles and Swamp Buggies will be reported as what type offense?

A

Auto Theft

507
Q

Thefts of Trailers, Boats, Personal Water Crafts, Airplanes, will be reported as what type of incident?

A

Theft

508
Q

What degree offense is Auto Theft?

A

3rd Degree Felony

509
Q

What is the correct charge when a boat, boat motor or boat trailer is stolen?

A

Marine Theft

510
Q

What is the correct charge when an aircraft registered with the FAA is stolen?

A

Aircraft Theft

511
Q

What is the correct charge when a fork lift or back hoe is stolen?

A

Heavy Equipment Theft

512
Q

Do boats, aircraft, boat motors and heavy equipment that are stolen require a dispatch number?

A

No

513
Q

Fraudulently rented vehicles do not require _____________ and shall be reported as Fraud and entered into FCIC/NCIC.

A

14 day waiting period

514
Q

Incidents involving failure to redeliver a hired vehicle require the vehicle to be how many days overdue?

A

7 days

515
Q

Failure to return a hired vehicle is what category MCI follow up case?

A

Category “A”

516
Q

When will a crime scene detective be called to process a stolen vehicle?

A

Evidence the vehicle was used in the commission of a violent felony. All others processed by a patrol officer.

517
Q

JSO will process recovered stolen vehicles for Clay, Nassau, St. Johns, and Baker Counties when what occurs?

A

An arrest is made

518
Q

In what 2 conditions will recovered vehicles have holds placed on them for auto theft?

A
  1. Vehicle with an altered VIN

2. Vehicle burned and unable to be identified

519
Q

How long does the owner of a recovered vehicle have to respond to the scene to take custody of the vehicle?

A

30 minutes

520
Q

If the owner of a recovered stolen vehicle can not be contacted and the vehicle is towed, what will the Auto Theft detective do?

A

Make 2 attempts to contact the owner by phone and then send a certified letter - return receipt requested

521
Q

Who administers the Electronic Freight Theft Management System (EFTMS)?

A

FHP

522
Q

Trespassing in a structure of conveyance is what degree offense?

A

2nd Degree Misdemeanor

523
Q

Trespassing in an occupied structure of conveyance is what degree offense?

A

1st Degree Misdemeanor

524
Q

What is considered adequate notice pertaining to trespassing? (4 things)

A
  1. Posting
  2. Verbal/writing trespass warning
  3. Cultivation
  4. Fencing
525
Q

Who has authorized JSO officers the authority to act as “authorized persons” to trespass suspects from COJ public housing?

A

Director of Jacksonville Housing Authority (JHA)

526
Q

Persons arrested for weapons violations (FSS 790) at any city park, beach, dock, marina, or recreational area shall be trespassed from where for how long?

A

All city parks, beaches, docks, marinas, or recreational areas for 1 year

527
Q

Persons arrested for sexual batter (FSS 749) at any city park, beach, dock, marina, or recreational area shall be trespassed from where for how long?

A

All city parks, beaches, docks, marinas, or recreational areas for 1 year

528
Q

Persons arrested for prostitution (FSS 796) at any city park, beach, dock, marina, or recreational area shall be trespassed from where for how long?

A

All city parks, beaches, docks, marinas, or recreational areas for 1 year

529
Q

Persons arrested for lewd/indecent exposure (FSS 800) at any city park, beach, dock, marina, or recreational area shall be trespassed from where for how long?

A

All city parks, beaches, docks, marinas, or recreational areas for 1 year

530
Q

Persons arrested for any felony violation at any city park, beach, dock, marina, or recreational area shall be trespassed from where for how long?

A

All city parks, beaches, docks, marinas, or recreational areas for 1 year

531
Q

Persons arrested for arson (FSS 806) or criminal mischief at any city park, beach, dock, marina, or recreational area shall be trespassed from where for how long?

A

That city park, beach, dock, marina, or recreational area for 1 year

532
Q

Trespassing on a legally marked/posted construction site is what degree offense?

A

3rd Degree Felony

533
Q

A student currently under suspension or expulsion that enters or remains upon the campus or any other facility of any such school is guilty of what degree offense?

A

2nd Degree Misdemeanor

534
Q

Any person who enters or remains upon the campus or other facility of a school after the principal or designee order the individual to leave commits a trespass upon the grounds of a school facility and is guilty of what degree offense?

A

1st Degree Misdemeanor

535
Q

Individuals/guests (adult offspring, boyfriends, relatives) may be charged with trespass if what 3 factors are present?

A
  1. The person was invited to stay a defined period of tie and both parties agreed it was temporary and the person was a “guest”.
  2. The “guest” was asked to leave by the owner/renter
  3. The “guest” refuses to leave
536
Q

Adult offspring that have been residing in the home since birth or recently moved back home indefinitely as their sole place of residence should be handled how?

A

A civil matter

537
Q

After a trespassing authorization has been in the database for ________ years, the owner/agent will be contacted by the Zone Crimes officer to determine if the authorization should remain in effect.

A

3 years

538
Q

What provides for the placement and treatment of persons who are in need of substance abuse services?

A

Marchman Act

539
Q

Once individuals are taken into custody under the Marchman Act where are they taken for treatment?

A

(AARF) Adult Addiction Receiving Facility (555 Stockton St)

540
Q

Florida State Statutes requires any Law Enforcement Officer who is arresting an intoxicated person, who appears to be inebriated, intoxicated or not in control of his physical functions to do what?

A

Examine the person to ascertain if he is wearing a medic-alert bracelet or necklace which would indicated a medical disability which would account for their actions

541
Q

Officers who encounter juveniles who are intoxicated (incapacitated or not, danger to themselves or not) shall transport them to where?

A

New Beginnings 555 Stockton St

542
Q

Detox centers require what prior to admittance for individuals who have serious injuries?

A

Medical Clearance

543
Q

Alligators under what size should be prodded if near a body of water?

A

less than5 feet

544
Q

Animal care and protective services (ACPS) can be called out 24/7 through NCIC and will respond after hours under what 6 circumstances?

A
  1. Arrest of owner (unable to find care)
  2. Special Ops with animals present
  3. Death or injured persons (unable to access body due to aggressive animal)
  4. Injured animals needing immediate service
  5. Individual bitten by dog and victim is not family of owner
  6. Vehicle crash where the owner is transported
545
Q

As a last resort, can a seriously injured animal be shot? Whose approval is needed?

A

Yes, with prior approval of a Supervisor

546
Q

When an officer is given permission to shoot a seriously injured animal, what must the supervisor do?

A

Respond and complete a RTR report in Armor. This can’t be delegated. Check back on call RTR.

547
Q

Any Incident resulting in a criminal Animal Cruelty Charge that results in serious injury or death to a domesticated animal will be reported to who immediately?

A

ACPS animal cruelty investigator through NCIC

548
Q

If an officer strikes an animal with a JSO vehicle and there is no property damage and the animal leaves what type of report is required?

A

No Report required

549
Q

If an officer strikes an animal with a JSO vehicle and there is damage the the vehicle what type of report is required?

A

Crash Report, Blue Team

550
Q

If an officer strikes an animal with a JSO vehicle and there is no property damage and the animal is killed/injured what type of report is required?

A

If the animal is a domestic animal and is personal property - A general (cite owner for animal running loose)
If the animal is a wild animal - no report (notify DOT or ACPS to remove animal/

551
Q

If an officer strikes an animal with his vehicle and causes damage to the vehicle the officers supervisor will be notified and respond. The supervisor will complete what tasks?

A

Supervisor photographs damages and completes Blue Team Report

552
Q

What must a police barricade say/display?

A

“Police Barricade” “Do Not Cross” and display the JSO name and badged

553
Q

If the first officer on the scene determines that a Police Barricade is needed he will notify who?

A

Communictions Center, His immediate Supervisor and the Patrol Watch Commander

554
Q

All Polcie vehicles used by who will carry “Police Barricade” signs?

A

Sergeant and Crime Scene Detectives (Assigned vehicle program Op Order P.6 requires Patrol Lt to carry them as well)

555
Q

Who has the final authority as to whether a person can enter a restricted area of a “Police Barricade”?

A

Field Commander or his designee

556
Q

Who investigates boating accidents?

A

FWC

557
Q

When does FWC respond to boating accidents?

A

Accidents involving injury, death or missing persons

558
Q

How long do operators of crashed vessels have to notify FWC of the crash?

A

24 hours

559
Q

Boating Accidents with damage less than ________ and no injuries do not require a report?

A

$2000 or less

560
Q

According to FSS 327 who is authorized to board vessels for the purpose of conducting a safety check?

A

All Law Enforcement Officers

561
Q

JSO Marine Unit Officers may also be cross designated as what?

A

ICE Agents with US Immigration and Customs Enforcement

562
Q

Who can declare an assembly unlawful?

A

Patrol Watch Commander or designee

563
Q

Before a crowd is dispersed what must occur?

A

The unlawful assembly declaration and command to disperse must be clearly communicated in person or loudspeaker. It should be recorded where feasible.

564
Q

Who can request the assistance of the Mobile Field Force?

A

Watch Commander or designee

565
Q

Who is responsible for investigating the cause of civilian aircraft crashes?

A

NTSB

566
Q

In what circumstances will the Watch Commander be notified of crashed airplanes?

A

Any crash involving fatalities or substantial property damage

567
Q

In cases of crashed civilian aircraft, the responding supervisor must notify who through NCIC?

A

FAA Flight Standards District Office at Craig Airport and NTSB

568
Q

Local FAA officials will respond to a civilian aircraft crash within how many hours?

A

2 hours

569
Q

Crashed military aircraft believed to be carrying ordinance require how large of a perimeter?

A

at least 2000 feet

570
Q

Who should be contacted to investigate Navy Aircraft crashes?

A

Navy Search and Rescue Coordinator for Jax Navy Complex

571
Q

Who should be contacted to investigate Air National Guard Aircraft crashes?

A

Florida Air National Guard Operations Command Post

572
Q

Who should be contacted to investigate Army National Guard Aircraft crashes?

A

Florida Army National Guard Operations Officer

573
Q

Does NTSB or FAA have jurisdiction over military aircraft crashes?

A

No

574
Q

Police and other non-military aircraft crashes are investigated by who?

A

The operating agency - Does not fall under NTSB Jurisdiction

575
Q

Who will investigate crashes of JSO aircraft with no injuries and no property damage other than JSO property?

A

JSO (NTSB and FAA will not be notified)

576
Q

Who will investigate crashes of JSO aircraft with injuries/death or property damage (other than JSO property)?

A

FAA and NTSB will be notified

577
Q

Operating an aircraft in a reckless or careless manner or while intoxicated is what degree offense?

A

3rd Degree Felony

578
Q

Failure of a pilot to produce a valid Airman’s Certificate is what degree offense?

A

2nd Degree Misdemeanor

579
Q

How often are Pilots Medical Certificates renewed?

A

At least every 2 years

580
Q

What are the minimum altitudes of aircraft flying over congested parts of the city? Other areas?

A

at least 1000 feet

at least 500 feet

581
Q

Major railroad crashes and derailments are investigated by who?

A

DOT, FRA, and/or NTSB

582
Q

Railroad crashes involving fire, serious injury/death, significant property damage, credible evidence of malfunction/failure of an active warning device, evacuations, or receives media attention are considered what type of accidents?

A

Class “A” accident

They are investigated by DOT, FRA or NTSB

583
Q

Class “A” railroad accidents are investigated by who?

A

DOT, FRA or NTSB

584
Q

FRA and NTSB will respond to train crashes in what 7 circumstances?

A
  1. Accident w/ death of a railroad employee
  2. Train vs Train Collision
  3. Derailments with death or serious injury to rail passengers or in a crossing
  4. Railroad hazmat incident with fire, explosion, release of fumes, involving evacuation
  5. Over $1 million dollars in damage to track or equiment
  6. Public interest arrousal
  7. Collisions/derailments with credible evidence of malfunction
585
Q

DOT will respond to train crashes involving derailment of ________ cars or a crash at a crossing with ____ or more fatalities?

A

10 or more cars

3 or more fatalities

586
Q

Where are the shipping papers which contain information on any hazardous material being transported kept on the train?

A

At the head of the train

587
Q

If a crash between a vehicle and a train occurs in at at crossing (in the roadway) what report is submitted?

A

Long Form Crash Report

588
Q

The responding supervisor shall notify the Patrol Watch Commander of a crash involving what?

A

Death, Serious Injury or release of hazardous material

589
Q

The Local DOT investigator will respond to railroad crashes when required within how long?

A

within 2 hours

590
Q

What is the proper report to complete when a train crashes into a motor vehicle on the roadway?

A

Long Form Crash Report

591
Q

What is the proper report to complete when a train crashes into a motor vehicle on private property not open to the public?

A

General Offense (accidental death, accidental injury, damaged property)

592
Q

What is the proper report to complete when a train crashes into an ATV causing a fatality or injury requiring medical treatment?

A

Long Form Crash Report

593
Q

What is the proper report to complete when a train crashes into a bicycle, pedestrian or other non-motorized vehicle?

A

General Offense (accidental death, accidental injury, damaged property)

594
Q

What is the proper report to complete when a train collides with another train and there is no other property damage?

A

No report, No JSO involvment

595
Q

All Railroad lines south and east of the St. Johns River in Duval County are owned by who?

A

Florida East Coast Railway

596
Q

Who is responsible for testing the engineer and crew members for drugs and alcohol at the scene of a major crash or derailment?

A

The Railroad, Results reported to DOT and FRA

597
Q

FSS 860.03 Intoxicated Servant of a Common Carrier makes it unlawful for any person to operate a train, railroad switch, or signal while intoxicated. What degree offense is it?

A

Second Degree Misdemeanor

598
Q

All railroad engineers are required to carry what when operating a train?

A

Engineer’s Certificate

599
Q

Railroad tracks are private property and trespassing on them is what degree offense?

A

1st Degree Misdemeanor

600
Q

Any unauthorized person who intentionally interferes with any railroad track switch or signal is guilty of what degree offense?

A

3rd Degree Felony

601
Q

Any person who rides or attempts to on a train without permission is guilty of what degree offense?

A

2nd Degree Misdemeanor

602
Q

How long may a train block a street crossing in the city for purposes of switching?

A

no longer than 5 minutes in a 15 minute period (does not apply to trains in motion)

603
Q

The Trafficking Victims Protection Act of 2000 (TVPA) defines a sever Human Trafficking victim as sex trafficking in which a commercial sex act is induced by force, fraud, or coercion in which the person induced is under what age?

A

Under 18 years old

604
Q

Officers who come into contact with juveniles who are suspected victims of human trafficking are required to notify who?

A

DCF via Florida Abuse Hotline Information System

605
Q

Officers are required to deliver sexually exploited juveniles to DCF for placement in a short-term safe house located where?

A

New Beginnings - 555 Stockton St - “A Safe Place”

606
Q

Federal U-Visa provisions state that non-US citizens who are victims of certain crimes are eligible to apply for a temporary visa to stay legally in the US for how many years?

A

4 years

607
Q

To be eligible for a Federal U-Visa the person must meet 4 criteria. What are they?

A
  1. Victim of qualifying criminal activity and suffered physical or mental abuse
  2. In possession of information concerning the qualifying criminal activity
  3. Assisting police in the investigation or prosecution of the criminal activity
  4. Criminal activity violated US law or occurred in the US
608
Q

Who reviews U-Visa requests for JSO and makes recommendations to the Sheriff?

A

International Affairs

609
Q

Who handles requests for T-Visas? Who makes final approval/denial?

A

Integrity/SIU - forwarded to Sheriff for final approval

610
Q

If an officer investigates a suspected human trafficking incident who will he notify? Who will that person notify?

A

His supervisor.
Supervisor will notify the detective unit involved with the alleged offense (robbery, special assault) as well as
Integrity/SIU

611
Q

What investigative unit at JSO handles Human Trafficking investigations?

A

Integrity/SIU

612
Q

Under the TVPA of 2000, non-US citizens can obtain a special T-Visa if found to be a human trafficking victim. Are adult victims required to get a letter certified by local law enforcement officers?

A

Yes

613
Q

Under the TVPA of 2000, non-US citizens can obtain a special T-Visa if found to be a human trafficking victim. Are child victims required to get a letter certified by local law enforcement officers?

A

No

614
Q

Who is responsible for the security of JSO substations under normal circumstances?

A

Zone Commanders

615
Q

Who is responsible for the security of the Police Memorial Building under normal circumstances?

A

Chief of Support Services

616
Q

Who is responsible for the security of buildings other than the PMB and Substations under normal circumstances?

A

Highest ranking officer or designee assigned to the building

617
Q

During active shooter incidents, what is the maximum number of officers on a single contact team?

A

5 (one a supervisor if possible)

618
Q

If involved in an active shooter incident and you encounter an IED what should you do and say?

A

Bomb cover, take cover

619
Q

If involved in an active shooter incident and an IED is thrown at you and will land within _____ feet of you what do you do and say?

A

15
Bomb Go
Quickly move past the IED

620
Q

If involved in an active shooter incident and an IED is thrown at you and will land more than _____ feet of you what do you do and say?

A

15

Bomb Cover, find alternative route

621
Q

In active shooter incidents, once the shooter has been stopped, implement the acronym S.I.M. What does SIM stand for?

A

Security, Immediate Action Plan, Medical

622
Q

Should at any time during a rapid response deployment the suspect barricade himself, take hostages, and the deadly activity stops, what should the officer do?

A

Take a position of cover and handle the situation as a hostage/barricaded suspect call

623
Q

Deployments or Directed Patrol Activities which officers will be out of service for ______ or longer require what be completed?

A

1 hour or longer

Directed Patrol Worksheet

624
Q

Whose authorization is needed to conduct Directed Patrol Activities which will take an officer out of service for over 1 hour?

A

Advanced approval of the Watch Commander

625
Q

Once it is determined that a problem should be addressed by a deployment, strategy and tactics will be developed and a ___________ initiated?

A

Directed Patrol Worksheet

626
Q

What is required of each officer anytime a deployment involves a pre-planned high risk operation?

A

Wear approved body armor

627
Q

Anytime a safety check deployment is completed, who is responsible for completing the directed patrol worksheet? Who is it submitted to?

A

Supervisor in charge of the operation

Watch commander or appropriate supervisor

628
Q

The criteria and data used to determine each site of a sobriety checkpoint will be recorded and maintained where?

A

Zone Commander’s Office

629
Q

Who must submit a Form 4 to the Assistant Chief requesting authorization to conduct a sobriety checkpoint? What is required to proceed?

A

Sergeant

A written reply

630
Q

An after action report shall be submitted to _______ by the Sergeant responsible for the sobriety check point within how long following the checkpoint?

A

Zone Commander

No later than 1 week after the checkpoint

631
Q

The lead officer of a sobriety check point is who?

A

The Supervising Sergeant

632
Q

The Sergeant implementing/supervising the sobriety checkpoint shall notify __________ or the activity _______ days before the checkpoint?

A

Sheriff’s spokesperson

2 days prior

633
Q

Whose approval is needed to conduct a stakeout?

A

A/C or higher (made on a Tactical Operations Plan P-1310)

634
Q

How many officers are required for a stakeout?

A

at least 2 or 1 and a reserve

635
Q

Patrol officers conducting stakeout operations will wear what?

A

Patrol Uniform

636
Q

All surveillance operations shall be approved by who?

A

a supervisor

637
Q

Whose approval is required for Patrol Division Personnel to wear non-uniform clothing on a surveillance operation?

A

A/C or higher authority

638
Q

On Stakeout operations, who will ensure that the necessary reports are completed and supervisors are notified?

A

Patrol Watch Commander

639
Q

Who will be in charge of surveillance operations when more than 3 officers are involved?

A

A sergeant or above

640
Q

Who will be in charge of surveillance operations when less than 3 officers are involved?

A

The sergeant will designate a lead officer

641
Q

Who takes pictures of damage caused to a vehicle or structure due to forced entry?

A

supervisor at the scene (unless additional processing is needed by an ET)

642
Q

When a detective or officer is serving a search warrant requiring entry into a structure, he will complete what?

A

Search Warrant Checklist (P-0394)

643
Q

Traffic enforcement squad officers are authorized to use marked and unmarked police cars and motorcycles equipped with radar units and unconventional vehicles for traffic enforcement at the discretion of who?

A

A Patrol A/C (Zone Commander)

644
Q

Officers will not conduct traffic stops using an unmarked vehicle unless it is equipped with __________ and _______, and the operating officer is ____________, unless exigent circumstances exist.

A

equipped with emergency lights
siren
Officer operating the vehicle is in uniform

645
Q

If an officer in an unmarked vehicle makes a traffic stop, he will do what as soon as possible.

A

call for a marked unit

646
Q

How often are radar units serviced and calibrated?

A

every 6 months

647
Q

Written records of all radar maintenance and calibration shall be kept by _____ and for how long?

A

The FTO Sergeant

90 Days past the working life of the unit

648
Q

How often are officers required to field test radar units?

A

At the beginning and end of each shift

649
Q

How long will officers who successfully complete the police solo motorcycle course be placed on an eligibility list?

A

1 year

650
Q

Officers who successfully complete the police solo motorcycle course be placed on an eligibility list for 1 year. How many opportunities will the officer be afforded an opportunity to re-qualify to remain on the qualification list for an additional year?

A

1 opportunity to requalify

651
Q

If an officer who successfully completed the police solo motorcycle course is not selected within how long, he will have to re-attend the Police Solo Motorcycle Class.

A

2 years

652
Q

Once selected to be a police motorcycle officer, how long must the officer be in field training under a certified police motorcycle instructor?

A

15 days

653
Q

Officers requesting a transfer to a traffic enforcement squad should submit a request for transfer to who?

A

Zone A/C

654
Q

How far behind a violator’s vehicle should the police vehicle be parked on a traffic stop?

A

15 - 20 feet (wheels turned to the left)

655
Q

Are violators permitted to sit in the patrol vehicle while an officer writes a citation or conducts business?

A

No, the violator must remain in his vehicle

656
Q

All unmarked or unconventional vehicles used for traffic enforcement will be equipped with what?

A

Emergency Lights and Siren

657
Q

If an officer is called to assist in a DUI investigation, the officer called can proceed as through he observed the violation. In the even an arrest is made, who is responsible for conducting SFEs and completing required reports?

A

The assisting unit responding (DUI unit)

658
Q

Officers are required to FSS to examine any person arrested who appears to be intoxicated or not in control of their physical functions for visible identification of what?

A

Medical disability which would account for the persons actions (medical alert bracelet or necklace)

659
Q

If the driver of a vehicle is involved in a crash and is suspected of DUI, what must be done at the completion of the crash before the DUI investigation begins?

A

Inform the driver you are completing the crash investigation and starting a DUI investigation. Read individual his rights. (Switch Hats)

660
Q

If a subject is unable to perform SFEs due to physical incapacity or high level or impairment, does this constitute a refusal to perform the exercise?

A

No

661
Q

What exercises are approved field sobriety exercises? In what order?

A

HGN
Walk and Turn
One Leg Stand

662
Q

A Florida DUI Uniform Traffic Citation will be completed in all DUI arrests except when?

A

Driver transported to a medical facility and is immediately arrested for DUI and consents to provide blood. DUI citation is written from officer’s regular citation book.

663
Q

Officers will not be required to wait for the results of the intoxilizer test, except when?

A

When the arrestee is a juvenile

664
Q

What will serve as the 10 day permit for individuals arrested for DUI?

A

The arrestee’s copy of the Florida DUI Uniform Traffic Citation

665
Q

What are the eligibility requirements for individuals arrested for DUI to receive a 10 day temporary permit?

A

Arrestee has a current/valid DL (not suspended, etc)

Arrestee has never been issued a previous 7 or 30 day driving permit after 10-01-90.

666
Q

When an officer is subpoenaed for a DHSMV hearing and is unable to attend, he will do what?

A

notify DHSMV in writing prior to the hearing

667
Q

Will a DHSMV hearing be rescheduled a second time if an officer is unable to attend?

A

No, under DHSMV rules no hearing will be continued for a second time for an officer’s failure to appear

668
Q

Under DHSMV rules no DHSMV hearing will be continued for a _________ for an officer’s failure to appear.

A

second time

669
Q

If a suspect has a BAC below .08g/210ml and a higher level of impairment is indicated, what will be requested by who?

A

Urine specimen requested by the arresting officer.

670
Q

If a DUI suspect with suspected drug impairment consents to provide a urine specimen, who will collect the sample?

A

Breath Test Officer`

671
Q

If a DUI suspect with suspected drug impairment refuses to provide a urine specimen when requested, how will it be handled?

A

as a refusal to submit (even if he previously submitted to a breath test)

672
Q

Who maintains a list of qualified DRE officers?

A

Patrol DUI Sergeant

673
Q

For the purposes of juvenile intoxication in violation of FSS 322.2616, officers may test breath for the presence of alcohol using alco-sensor IV. Before doing so how long of an observation period should there be?

A

20 minutes.

If the subject regurgitates during the period, the observation period must be restarted

674
Q

If a person under 21 has their license suspended under FSS 322.2616 the 10 day permit will go into effect when?
When will it expire?

A

12 hours after it is issued

Midnight on the 10th day following the date of issuance

675
Q

What constitutes a medical facility with regard to DUI and blood testing?

A

Hospitals, clinics, an ambulance, emergency medical vehicle

676
Q

In suspected DUI crashes involving life threatening injuries or death, who will direct the drawing of blood?

A

Traffic Homicide Detective

677
Q

In suspected DUI crashes involving injuries that are not life threatening and no fatalities, who will direct the drawing of blood?

A

The investigating officer

678
Q

In DUI investigations with crashes involving a suspect that is not injured and no other individuals involved in the crash have serious injuries or death, should blood be drawn? Can force be used?

A

No blood draw, normal breath test procedures

679
Q

In DUI investigations with crashes involving a suspect that is injured and/or taken to a medical facility for treatment, and no other individuals involved in the crash have serious injuries or death, should blood be drawn? Can force be used?

A

Suspect can refuse if not suffering Serious Bodily Injury

If suspect is conscious but suffering SBI, blood should be drawn and force may be used.

680
Q

In DUI investigations with crashes involving other individuals involved in the crash that have serious injuries or death, should blood be drawn? Can force be used?

A

Yes, Force can be used

681
Q

In DUI investigations with crashes involving a suspect that is injured and/or taken to a medical facility for treatment and is incapacitated and unable to refuse, should blood be drawn?

A

Yes, Consent is presumed

682
Q

Who may draw blood for a DUI crash investigation?

A

Physician, certified paramedic, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, other personnel authorized to draw blood by the hospital, Licensed clinical laboratory director, supervisor or technician. (NOT an EMT)

683
Q

A commercial vehicle is a vehicle used on the streets and highways that has a declared, GVW or actual weight of how many pounds or more?

A

26,001 lbs

684
Q

A commercial vehicle is a vehicle used on the streets and highways that is designated to carry _____ or more passengers including the driver?

A

15 or more

685
Q

A commercial vehicle is a vehicle used on the streets and highways that is transporting _______ and is required to be ___________.

A

Hazardous Materials

Placarded

686
Q

In Commercial Motor Vehicle DUI investigations, what is the enforcement action if the drivers BAC is .00?

A

No enforcement action

687
Q

In Commercial Motor Vehicle DUI investigations, what is the enforcement action if the drivers BAC is .01-.03?

A

Issue a UTC (moving violation), 24 hour out of service starts when UTC is issued. Transport driver back to area near vehicle.

688
Q

In Commercial Motor Vehicle DUI investigations, what is the enforcement action if the drivers BAC is .04-.07?

A

Issue UTC (Moving Violation), 24 hour out of service starts when UTC is issued. Transport driver back to area near vehicle.

689
Q

In Commercial Motor Vehicle DUI investigations, what is the enforcement action if the drivers BAC is .08 or higher?

A

Arrest for DUI, Do FSTs, Follow normal DUI procedures.

690
Q

If a Commercial Motor Vehicle driver is breath tested and has a BAC of .01-.07, he shall be placed out of service for how much time?

A

24 hours

691
Q

If a driver of a commercial motor vehicle blows between .04 and .07 and is issued a UTC for 322.62 and is convicted, he will be subject to how long of a suspension of his commercial driver’s license?

A

1 year

692
Q

A commercial motor vehicle operator who refuses to submit to a breath test, urine test or blood test will suffer how long of a suspension on the first refusal?

A

1 year suspension

693
Q

A commercial motor vehicle operator who refuses to submit to a breath test, urine test or blood test will suffer how long of a suspension on the second refusal?

A

permanent disqulifiation

694
Q

If there is proof that a driver knew his license was suspended, revoked or cancelled the driver can be charged with a what degree offense on his first offense?

A

Second Degree Misdemeanor

695
Q

If there is proof that a driver knew his license was suspended, revoked or cancelled the driver can be charged with a what degree offense on his second offense?

A

First Degree Misdemeanor

696
Q

If there is proof that a driver knew his license was suspended, revoked or cancelled the driver can be charged with a what degree offense on his third offense?

A

Third Degree Felony

697
Q

No valid DL may be charged if a violator has not ever been issued a DL or is has been expired for more than ______ months.

A

4 months

698
Q

Travel to and from grocery shopping in not a violation of the ___________ restriction on a DL.

A

business purposes only

699
Q

If the registration of a vehicle identifies ownership as a business or the joint ownership of the vehicle includes a business or corporation, can the vehicle or license plate be seized?

A

No

700
Q

If a citation is issued for administrative purposes (possession of a controlled substance while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle - FSS 893.13) and does not constitute a civil or criminal charge, is it listed on the Arrest and Booking Report?

A

No

701
Q

If a fingerprint is required on a citation, which finger will be used?

A

Right Thumb

702
Q

If a fingerprint is required on a citation and the right thumb is missing, which finger will be used?

A

Left Thumb

703
Q

If a fingerprint is required on a citation and the right and left thumbs are missing, which finger will be used?

A

Right index finger

704
Q

If a fingerprint is required on a citation and a finger other than the right thumb is used, what must the officer do?

A

Note which finger was used on the citation

705
Q

What 5 circumstances/citations require a fingerprint?

A
  1. No valid ID (Florida ID, DL, or military ID)
  2. Suspended or Revoked DL Violation
  3. Altered DL
  4. DL not carried/exhibited upon demand
  5. violation of DL restriction “Business Purposes Only” from DUI conviction
706
Q

Criminal Traffic Violations which an officer feels arrest is justified should do what? Except what charge?

A

Consult with a Supervisor

DUI

707
Q

Traffic violators who are charged with non-criminal traffic violations or traffic violations not requiring a mandatory court appearance are not required to do what?

A

Sign the citation

708
Q

If the person involved in a traffic crash is unable to provide proof of insurance at the time of the crash (but has valid insurance) and is cited as such, can provide proof of insurance within ______ hours to have the citation voided.

A

24 hours

709
Q

Officers shall not cite individuals with more than _____ traffic citations if the violator is not arrested?

A

3 (Rule of 3)

710
Q

A warning citation or verbal warning will be used when the posted speed limit has been exceed by no more than _______ mph, except if the violation occurred where?

A

5 mph

In a school zone

711
Q

A warning citation or verbal warning will be used when a driver’s tag is expired __________ days or less.

A

30 days or less

712
Q

Misdemeanor traffic violations committed by juveniles are the jurisdiction of what court?

A

County Court

713
Q

Officers shall write ______ in the court section for any juvenile misdemeanor traffic violations?

A

Juvenile - County Court

714
Q

Officers shall write ______ in the court section for any juvenile Felony traffic violations?

A

Juvenile - Circuit Court

715
Q

FHP handles traffic crashes occurring on state roads in what zones?

A

2,3,4 and I-10

716
Q

In Zone 1, 5, 6 and non-state roads in 2,3 and 4 JSO will respond to the scene of a crash and conduct an investigation when a crash involves one of the following 8 criteria.

A
  1. Death or Injury
  2. Hit and Run
  3. Impairment of Driver (Drugs or Alcohol)
  4. Damage to Public Vehicles or Property
  5. Hazardous Materials
  6. Disturbance between drivers
  7. Major Traffic Congestion from Crash
  8. Damage to vehicles in excess of $500
717
Q

In Zone 1, 5, 6 and non-state roads in 2,3 and 4 JSO will respond to crashes involving damage to vehicles in excess of _______.

A

$500

718
Q

Enforcement action at the scene of a crash involving death or life threatening injuries will be done at the discretion of who?

A

Traffic Homicide Investigator

719
Q

When roadway or roadside hazards are contributing factors in a crash and design change needs are discovered who should be notified?

A

DOT via PSD
or
Online via C.A.R.E. report

720
Q

When an officer investigating a traffic crash with damage to state property (guardrails, fences, signs, light poles, barricades) officers will do what?

A

Affix an orange DOT sticker to the property. Date of crash, CCR number and “JSO” printed on the face of it

721
Q

What do wrecker fees consist of?

A

Towing, mileage, storage charges

722
Q

In order to utilize the traffic crash report in smart cop, what must be known.

A

The location of the crash

723
Q

If the location of a crash is unknown, and a smart cop traffic crash can’t be completed, the information will be recorded where? Where is it forwarded to?

A

On an Agency Records Management System (ARMS) Incident/Information Report
Traffic Homicide

724
Q

Any unverified information obtained at the scene of a crash should be listed where?

A

in the narrative of the report and labeled as such

725
Q

A crash is ineligible for the Online Driver Self-Report of a Traffic Crash in what 5 circumstances?

A
  1. Injuries/fatalities from crash
  2. Occupied vehicle impacted by hit and run vehicle
  3. Vehicle towed from the scene
  4. Involves intoxicated drivers
  5. Commercial Motor Vehicle involved
726
Q

If a driver’s self-report of a crash form is provided will a UTC be issued?

A

No

727
Q

How long do driver have to complete an online self-report of a crash?
If mailed to DHSMV?

A

10 days

10 days

728
Q

Crashes reported to JSO that happened outside Duval County require an officer to do what 2 things?

A

Provide the driver a JSO Duval County Driver Report of Traffic Crash Form (P-0621)
Complete an ARMS Incident/Info report routed to Hit and Run Unit

729
Q

If a crash has 3 or less vehicles, bicycles/pedestrians, or motorcycles, officers will provide what to each party involved?

A

Provide a driver exchange of information to each driver

730
Q

If a crash has 4 or more vehicles, bicycles/pedestrians, or motorcycles, officers will provide what to each party involved?

A

Provide a case information card with CCR number to each driver

731
Q

Driving under the Influence investigations that stem from a crash require what?

A

a CCR separate from the CCR of the crash.

CCRs will be associated with each other by HQ

732
Q

Only the registered owner of a vehicle can be cited for an insurance violation in violation of FSS 316.646. Any other driver can be cited for failure to provide insurance - 316.066(3)(A). If a driver is cited with 316.066(3)(A) how long does he have to provide proof of insurance to have the citation voided? To who and who can void the citation?

A

within 24 hours

Any Law Enforcement Officer can void the citation by completing the Report to Dismiss Form (P-0458).

733
Q

If a driver is cited with 316.066(3)(A) provides proof of insurance within 24 hours to an officer and the officer dismisses the citation accordingly, what report must he complete?

A

Traffic Crash Continuation Report

734
Q

In all hit and run crashes, what will be put in the narrative?

A

Investigative time spent (hours and minutes)

735
Q

Holds will be placed on a vehicle if the investigation meets the criteria for follow up by Traffic Homicide. No hold for hit and run is necessary if the vehicle ____________ prior to time which the hit and run occurred.

A

was reported stolen

736
Q

A hit and run vehicle may be towed from public or private property if it is in plain view and being seized as evidence. The vehicle shall not be towed if it is __________.

A

secured within a structure (garage of fenced area secured with a lock) which would have to be forcibly entered to remove it

737
Q

There are legitimate reasons for a driver to leave the scene of a crash. A crash report will be completed if one of the following 5 reasons exist.

A
  1. Driver has valid, usable suspect information
  2. Driver left the scene to pursue a hit and run vehicle
  3. Driver left the scene for his own safety
  4. Driver left to seek immediate medical attention
  5. Driver left the scene and is a reasonable distance away
738
Q

Anytime a JSO vehicle is involved in a traffic crash with death or life threatening injuries the on scene supervisor will request who investigate?

A

JSO Traffic Homicide Unit

FHP will not be used for these investigation

739
Q

Supervisors called to the scene of a crash involving death or life threatening injuries he shall ensure who is called to the scene?

A

ET and Traffic Homicide

740
Q

Supervisors called to the scene of a crash involving death or life threatening injuries he shall ensure what 6 things are done at the scene?

A
  1. Traffic is rerouted
  2. Witnesses are asked to stay at the scene to talk to Traffic Homicide
  3. All drivers are checked for impairment and blood draws are done where needed
  4. Media is coordinated with
  5. Any questions are coordinated with Traffic Homicide
  6. The primary officer conducts a thorough investigation
741
Q

Who must be notified if a JSO/City vehicle is involved in a crash which results in personal injury?

A

City Insurance Adjuster

742
Q

In crashes involving JSO vehicles, who will respond and conduct an investigation?

A

The operators supervisor or an on-duty supervisor

743
Q

The Blue Team accident/incident report shall be completed for damage to a JSO vehicle from what 5 situations.

A
  1. vehicle accidents
  2. vehicle incidents
  3. found damage
  4. criminal acts
  5. any other reported damage to a JSO vehicle
744
Q

A Traffic Crash Report and Blue Team Vehicle Incident Report will be completed in traffic crashes involving JSO vehicles that result in what 3 things?

A
  1. Damage to any other vehicle not owned by JSO
  2. Personal injury to any person
  3. Damage to property not owned or leased by JSO
745
Q

Crashes as a result of justifiable police action are reported on what type of report?

A

General Offense Report

746
Q

All damage (with some exceptions), whether criminal, accidental, found and/or of unknown origin will be photographed where? When?

A

Fleet management division (Commonwealth Garage)

Wednesdays 1300-1400

747
Q

What are the recognized exceptions to the requirements to have the vehicle damages photographed and examined at Fleet Management?

A
  1. Physical evidence, separate from the vehicle at the scene that needs immediate processing
  2. Supervisor determines a necessity to preserve evidence which is perishable or record evidence that renders the vehicle inoperable (graffiti, slashed tires).
  3. Vehicle Glass
748
Q

Who makes the decisions on traffic enforcement and/or arrest if a JSO vehicle is involved in a crash?

A

The responding supervisor

749
Q

Who is responsible for completing the Blue Team Vehicle Accident Incident Report? Photographing the damage?

A

The responding supervisor

750
Q

What type of report will be written when only JSO vehicles are involved in a crash and there are no injuries or property damage?

A

Only a Blue Team Report (completed by supervisor)

751
Q

What type of report will be written when JSO vehicles are damaged by criminal means?

A

General Offense Report and Blue Team Report

752
Q

What type of report will be written when damage is found on JSO vehicles?

A

Blue Team Report (completed by supervisor)

753
Q

Who completes the supervisor assessment on a Blue Team Report?

A

JSO Safety Board

754
Q

Failure to have vehicle damage inspected within _____ days may result in ____________.

A

30 days

the loss of take home car privileges

755
Q

If a vehicle operator is unable to have vehicle damage inspected at Fleet Management within 30 days, who shall he notify?

A

JSO Fleet Administrator

756
Q

In the event a Sheriff’s Office vehicle is involved in an incident with another vehicle or other property which is not owned or leased by JSO and there is no property damage to either vehicle or any other property, the officer shall do what?

A
  1. Call a supervisor

2. Complete a Blue Team Accident Incident Report

757
Q

A copy of every traffic crash report and associated Blue Team Report involving JSO vehicles resulting in death or serious injury shall be forwarded to who for review?

A

Director of Patrol and Enforcement (to determine whether to refer the crash to the JSO Safety Board or Internal Affairs)

758
Q

If a crash occurs on private property which results in death or life threatening injures, who will be called to investigate and what report is written?

A

General Offense Report (if no foul play is suspected)

Traffic Homicide

759
Q

What type of report is required when a traffic crash occurs on private property with life threatening injuries or a fatality?

A

General Offense Report - Traffic Homicide Investigates

760
Q

What type of report is required when a traffic crash occurs on private property and no injury occurs?

A

No report

761
Q

What type of report is required when a vehicle on the roadway catches fire?

A

Crash Report

762
Q

What type of report is required when a train crashes into a vehicle on the roadway?

A

Long Form Crash Report

763
Q

What type of report is required when there is a crash involving a train and a pedestrian or bicyclist with injury or death?

A

General Offense Report (Accidental injury/death)

764
Q

What type of report is required in a traffic crash involving damage to city or state property?

A

Crash Report

765
Q

What type of report is required when a traffic crash occurs involving common carriers with passengers?

A

Crash Report

766
Q

What type of report is required when a traffic crash occurs involving an ATV involving injuries or a fatality?

A

Crash Report - Traffic Homicide is called

767
Q

When will officers wear reflective safety vests? Exceptions?

A

at all times when conducting traffic control duties

In adverse weather when wearing reflective rain gear marked “Police”

768
Q

When can civilian and non-sworn personnel be used to direct traffic?

A

At no time

769
Q

When a patrol officer is called to the scene of a fire and traffic control is needed, who will be notified?

A

A supervisor

770
Q

When a patrol officer is called to the scene of a fire and traffic control is needed, whose permission is needed for vehicular traffic to cross a fire hose?

A

the ranking firefighter present

771
Q

When an officer determines there is a need to erect a barricade he will do what?

A

Contact a supervisor, inform the supervisor of the situation and wait for approval

772
Q

If an emergency situation requires an officer to immediately block off a roadway the officer will do what 4 things?

A
  1. Request a supervisor
  2. Notify a Watch Commander
  3. Notify the Zone Dispatcher
  4. Request any needed equipment and/or manpower
773
Q

Patrol Officers are allowed how many Traffic Citation Books?

A

2

774
Q

Traffic Officers are allowed how many Traffic Citation Books?

A

10

775
Q

How long will citations copies be retained by the issuing officer?

A

180 days from the date the last citation was issued

776
Q

Purgable citations (kept past retention period) will be collected at zone substations and forwarded where?

A

Citation Accountability Clerks or taken to the Records Unit in person.
It is unlawful and official misconduct to dispose of them in any other manner.

777
Q

Citation Accountability Clerks will conduct periodic audits of issued and unused citations how often?

A

Once at least every 3 years

778
Q

If on duty, traffic citations must be turned in to a supervisor when?

A

By then end of the officer’s tour of duty

779
Q

If off-duty, traffic citations must be turned in to a supervisor when?

A

before the end of the shift the citation was issued

780
Q

Errors found on citations by citation accountability clerks require immediate correction. Minor errors can be made by clerks with the officer’s approval. Failure to make the required corrections by the officer immediately will results in the officer’s __________ being notified?

A

Zone/Unit Commander

781
Q

Citations needing to be voided after being issued to a violator require whose approval?

A

A Patrol Chief

782
Q

Citations needing to be voided after being issued to a violator and already logged with the clerk of the courts require whose approval?

A

Chief Circuit Judge at the request of a Chief or higher authority

783
Q

Citations that are damaged, unusable or needing to be voided after being filled out but not issued to a violator require whose approval to be voided?

A

Watch Commander (Lieutenant) or higher authority

784
Q

All citation books which contain unused citations shall be reissued in the traffic data entry computer program by a citation accountability clerk within _______ of the original issue date.

A

6 months

785
Q

Officers who transfer to divisions/sections which do not require the use of citation books shall return the books to ________ on or before the effective date of the transfer.

A

Records Unit

786
Q

Can officers issue parking citations on private property?

A

Yes, if summoned by a citizen and there is a violation of parking code

787
Q

Does the “Rule of Three” apply to parking citations?

A

Yes

788
Q

Handicap parking violations for M.O. 804.1012 is a fine of how much?

A

$250

789
Q

Supervisors will ensure returned parking citations with errors are corrected and returned to the citation accountability clerk within how long?

A

within 48 hours (excluding weekends and holidays)

790
Q

Parking citations shall only be voided if they were issued in error. Who must approve a parking citation be voided if all the copies are in the possession of the officer?

A

Watch Commander (Lieutenant) or higher

791
Q

Parking citations shall only be voided if they were issued in error. Who must approve a parking citation be voided if the citation has already been logged with the clerk of the courts?

A

Chief Judge at the request of the Chief of patrol

792
Q

Information on a person’s political, religious, racial or social views, associations of activities or sexual orientation may not be stored in case files unless __________.

A

it is directly related to an investigation

793
Q

Information retained in the criminal intelligence files shall be classified to indicate the degree to which it should be kept confidential. The classifications of intelligence from most to least restricted are what?

A
  1. Sensitive - Limited to LEO with specific need to know
  2. Confidential - Limited to LEO with specific need to known and right to know
  3. Restricted - Info that was prior sensitive or confidential but no longer is
  4. Unclassified - Info the general public has access to
794
Q

Who can authorize the release of Sensitive intelligence information?

A

Unit Commander or higher

795
Q

Who can authorize the release of Confidential intelligence information?

A

Unit Commander or higher

796
Q

Who can authorize the release of Restricted intelligence information?

A

Intelligence Unit Investigator

797
Q

Who can authorize the release of Unclassified intelligence information?

A

Intelligence Unit Investigator

798
Q

Information stored in files obtained from another law enforcement agency shall not be released unless authorization has been first obtained from that agency. This rule is known as what?

A

The Third Agency Rule

799
Q

Upon intelligence personnel determining such a request for “Sensitive” or “Confidential” information meets the requirements established for JSO, the request shall be forwarded to who?

A

Unit Commander or higher

800
Q

Requests for disclosure of information pursuant to Florida public records law should be coordinated through who?

A

Public Information Officer

801
Q

What type of information is exempt from public records request laws?

A

“Active” criminal intelligence

802
Q

When criminal intelligence information becomes inactive it becomes public record. The intelligence Unit shall not retain information that is considered to be __________ .

A

Public Record

803
Q

An _________ is informational in purpose and shall contain information related to a single incident or activity.

A

Intelligence Brief

804
Q

Data will be purged from filed and indices of the Intelligence Unit after a period of _____________. If the data is no longer relevant, obsolete of can not be used for any present or future strategic or tactical purpose.

A

5 years

805
Q

Who will conduct an annual review of the criminal intelligence operations procedures and processes of the Intelligence Unit to ensure effectiveness?

A

Lieutenant of the Intelligence Unit
The report is forwarded to through the chain of command to the Director of Homeland Security
Final copy sent to Accreditation

806
Q

Who will be the central depository for search warrants for JSO?

A

Narcotics/Vice Unit

807
Q

Who will assign a supervisor to be in charge of an undercover operation?

A

Narcotics/Vice or higher authority

808
Q

How soon before an incident, shall a NINJAS deconfliction be submitted for an undercover operation? By who?

A

at least 2 hours before the incident

The supervisor will ensure it is done

809
Q

NINJAS stand for what?

A

Narcotics Information Network Joint Agency System

810
Q

How often shall the Assistant Chief of Narcotics/Vice Unit submit a written report summarizing vice, drug and organized crime activities to the Sheriff through the Director of Investigations and Homeland Security?

A

Monthly

811
Q

A major drug reverse (Sting) is the legal sale of a controlled substance by police to a known or suspected narcotics law violator. If such an operation involves cocaine, how much cocaine shall be used?

A

in excess of 1 ounce

812
Q

A major drug reverse (Sting) is the legal sale of a controlled substance by police to a known or suspected narcotics law violator. If such an operation involves marijuana, how much marijuana shall be used?

A

in excess of 1 pound

813
Q

A major drug reverse (Sting) is the legal sale of a controlled substance by police to a known or suspected narcotics law violator. If such an operation involves Heroine, how much Heroine e shall be used?

A

any ammount

814
Q

A major reverse sting requires opening a major criminal narcotic investigation case file. The case agent must have the advance approval of who?

A

Assistant Chief of Narcotics/Vice or higher

815
Q

In narcotics investigations, narcotic samples will be given to a suspect only upon the approval of who?

A

Director of Investigations and Homeland Security or higher authority
Must be kept to a minimum

816
Q

No mass seizures of pornography or obscene material will be undertaken. Officers will seize up to, but not more than 3-4 copies of each items by title or copy. The only exception to this is _____________ in which all material will be seized. Who will be notified in such an event?

A

Child pornography

ICAC

817
Q

Officers needing a fictitious Florida DL should make the request in writing to who? Who has the final approval?

A

Immediate Supervisor

A/C of Narcotics/Vice Section

818
Q

Officers needing a fictitious identification other than a Florida DL (AT&T, UPS, Etc.) should make the request in writing to who? Who has the final approval?

A

Immediate Supervisor

A/C of Narcotics/Vice Section

819
Q

Officers initiating a DART activity within the perimeter of an OSS problem solving area should deconflict with who prior to submitting the DART packet?

A

OSS Unit Commander

820
Q

There is a prescription drug drop box at the PMB. The keys to the prescription drug drop box shall be maintained by who?

A

The prescription drug squad sergeant
The Narcotics Lieutenant
The Narcotics Unit A/C

821
Q

Who will check the prescription drug drop box at the PMB and how often?

A

Prescription Drug Squad Sergeant

Monthly

822
Q

All digital media to be examined by the Computer Forensic Unit must be accompanied with what prior to examination?

A

Written Consent, Search Warrant or verbal consent documented on a Form 4 or e-mail

823
Q

The Chief of Investigations will meet with the SAO representative and the Chief Judge of the courts for coordination purposes how often?

A

At least annually

824
Q

Work hours will be reviewed how often by ________ to determine the best use of resources.

A

Bi-Annually

A/Cs of Investigations Divisions

825
Q

Can a case by “Cleared by Arrest” if a principal, aider, abettor or conspirator is arrested?

A

Yes

826
Q

Can a case by “Cleared by Arrest” if a principal, aider, abettor or conspirator is arrested for a lessor offense?

A

Yes

827
Q

If the decision is made to clear a case by exception based on a decision by the SAO, what will be listed in the narrative of the report?

A

The ASAs name and date he was contacted

828
Q

Case files containing juvenile ________, ________ and _______ must be maintained separately than adult case files.

A

Arrest Records, Photographs or fingerprints

829
Q

Detectives from detective units will attend patrol roll calls as needed. Detectives will coordinate with who to obtain permission.

A

Appropriate Patrol Watch Commander

830
Q

All persons subject to what will be advised of their Constitutional Rights.

A

Custodial Interrogation

831
Q

All appropriate physical evidence will be preserved and placed in the property room by who?

A

The first officer that touches the evidence, unless directed by the lead/assigned detective or supervisor

832
Q

When the lead/assigned detective in any major case is notified by FDLE or FBI crime lab that major case prints are needed for comparison he will notify who?

A

Latent Print Unit Supervisor

833
Q

Who must grant authorization to video or audio record the photospread process?

A

The detective/officer’s supervisor

834
Q

JPICS stand for what?

A

JSO Photo-Imaging Capture System

835
Q

In the event a detective requests to photograph a suspect who is not under arrest, after normal business hours, for purposes of compiling a photospread, he shall bring the suspect to intake/transfer/release (ITR) and contact who? If the suspect is a juvenile?

A

ITR Sergeant

Corrections Watch Lieutenant (prior to being brought)

836
Q

If a subject is stopped “within a reasonable time” and a show up is done, can the suspect be transported to the victims for the show up?

A

No,
Per FSS 901.151 “The detention shall not extend beyond the place where it was first effected”
The victim and witness must be transported to the suspect location

837
Q

The use of a task force to address a crime problem will be approved by who?

A

Chief of Investigation

838
Q

All persons placed in interview rooms will be visually observed every _______ minutes, unless exigent circumstances exist. At no time will the period of time between visual observations exceed ______ minutes.

A

15 minutes

30 minutes

839
Q

Retraining for detectives and patrol officers in interview room usage will be conducted at least how often?

A

Once every 3 years

840
Q

When a suspect is placed in an interview room all items except what will be taken/removed from the detainee.

A

Jewelry and money

841
Q

If subsequent to arrest, a detective is interviewing a suspect and there is an emergency which requires evacuation of the PMB, all persons in interview rooms will be removed from the building by the detective or his designee and taken where?

A

The PTDF where they will remain until it is safe to return to the building

842
Q

The Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act (JJDPA) compliance monitoring form will be forwarded to the Burglary Unit Commander by who and by when?

A

by the commanders of each unit or their designee

by the last working day of each month

843
Q

According to the JJDPA, a juvenile is considered placed in a non-secure status if he is ________ and the __________.

A

Continuously observed and the interview room is unlocked

844
Q

According to the JJDPA, once a juvenile is placed in secure custody status, the secure status can not exceed _______ hours before the juvenile must be delivered to the appropriate juvenile detention facility or released.

A

6 hours

845
Q

Detectives shall not walk more than ________ detainee(s) to the PDF without assistance.

A

more than one

846
Q

How often will the commanding officer or his designee inspect each interview room under his command?

A

at least monthly

847
Q

All potential suspect interviews conducted by Investigations division personnel will be audio and video recorded unless extenuating circumstances exist. Any deviation will be approved by who?

A

A/C of Crimes Against Persons
or
A/C of Crimes Against Property

848
Q

Under no circumstances shall a private conversations between a criminal suspect and who be recorded in an interview room.

A

his lawyer

849
Q

Who is in charge of a sex crimes investigation unless relieved by a supervisor or special assault detective?

A

The first officer on the scene

850
Q

Per FSS 960 - Victims Rights, adult victims of sexual battery are no required to __________ in order to receive a forensic exam (taken to SARC)

A

make a police report

851
Q

When victims of sex crimes are under what age, the information about for the report should be obtained from an adult?

A

under the age of 12

852
Q

Patrol officers shall no do what involving any sex crimes victim under any circumstance?

A

take a written statement

853
Q

If a sexual assault occurred within the last __________ , advise the victim not to shower, bathe or otherwise alter their physical appearance.

A

within 3 days

854
Q

If any penetration occurred within the past _________ hours, the victim should be taken to SARC/CPT.

A

within 72 hours

855
Q

Patrol supervisors shall call out a Special Assault Detective if the victim sustains ____________.

A

significant injury (broken bones, serious lacerations, and other injury likely to cause permanent disfigurement)

856
Q

Advocates for sexual assault victims should respond within ________ minutes.

A

45 minutes

857
Q

Children that are victims of sexual assault shall be taken where for examination and interview?

A

Child Protection Team (CPT)

858
Q

All allegations of child sex crimes are investigated by who?

A

Special Assault Unit

859
Q

If the parent or guardian of a child victim of sex crimes is not available to give the required permission for the medical examination of a juvenile, FSS 39.304 authorizes who to authorize and sign for the exam.

A

Police, DCF or CPT investigator

860
Q

Officers must notify who regarding incidents of child abuse, neglect, or sex-related crimes against children. Notification must be documented in the report.

A

Florida Abuse Hotline and Tracking System

861
Q

If a drug-facilitated sexual assault occurred within the last ________ hours, he shall notify a supervisor so an urine sample can be obtained by a Crime Scene Detective or at SARC.

A

12 hours

862
Q

A Special Assault Detective shall be called out as soon as the criteria for a call-out are met for a felony sex crime under what 5 circumstances?

A
  1. Arrest is made
  2. Victim sustains significant injury
  3. Burglary in connection with the incident
  4. Part of a pattern or series
  5. Incident involves another serious crime in addition to a sex crime
863
Q

The Florida Safe Harbor Act helps ensure the safety of juvenile victims who have been trafficked for sexual exploitation. Officers investigating cases of sexually exploited children, human trafficking of juveniles or suspect trafficking of juveniles shall notify who?

A

Integrity/SIU
and
DCF via Florida Abuse Hotline Information System

864
Q

Can a law enforcement officer, prosecutor or government ask or require a victim of a sexual offense to submit to a polygraph exam as a condition of the investigation?

A

No

865
Q

In investigations involving burglary/sexual battery the detective assigned the case has how many days to pick up the sexual assault kit from the examination location?

A

5 days

866
Q

In cases of custodial sexual offenses involving juvenile victims, interviews with victims what age should be conducted by CPT and DCF employees.

A

Under 12 (11 years old or younger)

867
Q

FSS 798 and 800 deal with lewd and lascivious behavior, lewd, lascivious of indecent assault or act upon or in the presence of a minor child under the age of _________ .

A

16 years old

868
Q

The “walk in their shoes” act allows what?

A

the victim of a sexual battery to review the final report and provide a statement as to the accuracy prior to submission

869
Q

If a vehicle is obtained with a worthless document and fraud or forgery is involved the offense on the general offense report will be what?

A
#1 Auto Theft
#2 Fraud/Forgery
870
Q

The victim of all worthless document cases will be the person, company or institution that ___________.

A

would have suffered the loss

871
Q

An Economic Crimes detective will interview arrested suspects in which cases?

A
  1. Forgery
  2. Worthless Check/Fraud
  3. Identity Theft
  4. Credit Card Fraud
  5. Frauds or Flim Flams
872
Q

Fraudulent Use of a Credit Card with use 2 or fewer times in 6 months or goods valued at less than $100 is what degree offense?

A

1st Degree Misdemeanor

873
Q

Fraudulent Use of a Credit Card with use 2 or more times in 6 months or goods valued at more than $100 is what degree offense?

A

3rd Degree Felony

874
Q

If during the course of an officers investigation, an officer comes across a computer they believe to be part of a counterfeit operation, who will be contacted?

A

Secret Service Duty Agent 24/7

875
Q

Fraud Cases are what category MCI follow up offense?

A

Category “B”

876
Q

The Secret Service will be notified in all counterfeit money cases anytime what happens?

A

a suspect is arrested or identified (tag obtained)

877
Q

Who is the victim of counterfeit DVD cases?

A

Motion Picture agency of Association of America

878
Q

Who is the victim of counterfeit CD cases?

A

Recording Industry Association of America

879
Q

In cases involving counterfeit W2 tax refunds, who will be contacted?

A

Secret Service duty agent and Economic Crimes Detective if an arrest is made

880
Q

W2 tax refund scheme investigations are what category MCI follow-up?

A

Category “B”

881
Q

To be defined as a criminal gang member a person must meet how many criteria?

A

2 or more

882
Q

Someone who meets on gang criteria or admits to criminal gang association?

A

Criminal street gang associate

883
Q

Gang related intelligence data will not be released without the approval of who?

A

Gang Investigations Unit Sergeant

884
Q

Graffiti complaints require a general offense report be written. The report should be routed to who?

A

Gang Investigations Unit and Community Affairs

885
Q

Under the Graffiti Abatement Program, how long does a private property owner have to remove graffiti after code enforcements first visit?

A

up to 30 days

886
Q

Under the Graffiti Abatement Program, how long does Community Affairs, Crime Prevention officer have to complete his investigations?

A

60 days - may be extended by crime prevention supervisor

887
Q

What is it called when the actual buyer of a firearm uses another person to execute the paperwork necessary to purchase a firearm from a FFL dealer.

A

Straw Purchase

888
Q

The Gun Crime Unit will be called out/notified in what 6 incidents?

A
  1. Theft of firearms from a FFL business
  2. Burglary/Attempt to a FFL business
  3. Suspect arrested for burglary, attempted burglary or theft from a FFL business
  4. Prohibited individual arrested in possession of 2 or more guns
  5. Individual arrested for machine gun, short barrel rifle or shotgun
  6. Individual arrested for trafficking drugs and has a gun
889
Q

A red light infraction notice of violation will be sent via first class mail to the registered owner of a vehicle within _______ days of the violation.

A

19 days maximum

890
Q

If the fine from the notice of violation of a red light camera is not paid within _______ days the registered owner will be sent a UTC via certified mail.

A

60 days

891
Q

If an unmarked JSO vehicle is in violation of a red light signal infraction, the violation will be forwarded to who?

A

The Community Affairs/Tele Serv Lieutenant then to the Officer’s A/C for further investigation

892
Q

What are the administrative guidelines for running a red light unjustifiably for the first offense?

A

Informal up to Formal - Loss of take home vehicle for 5 calendar days

893
Q

What are the administrative guidelines for running a red light unjustifiably for the second offense?

A

Formal; up to loss of take home vehicle for maximum 10 calendar days

894
Q

What are the administrative guidelines for running a red light unjustifiably for the third offense?

A

Written Reprimand Level 1; up to loss of take home vehicle for a maximum 20 calendar days

895
Q

What are the administrative guidelines for running a red light unjustifiably for the fourth offense?

A

Written Reprimand Level 2; up to loss of take home vehicle for a maximum calendar days