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Sergeant Exam 2016 > General Orders > Flashcards

General Orders Flashcards

1
Q

What are the six primary parts of JSO

A
  1. Administration
  2. Dept. of Patrol and Enforcement
  3. Dept. of Investigation and Homeland Security
  4. Dept. of Police Services
  5. Dept. of Personnel and Prof. Standards
  6. Dept. of Corrections
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2
Q

What 8 staff/units report directly to the sheriff and under-sheriff?

A
  1. All Directors
  2. The Division Chiefs
  3. A/C’s
  4. Unit Commanders
  5. Legal Unit
  6. Public Information Unit
  7. Integrity/SIU
  8. Internal Audit Unit
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3
Q

What divisions fall under the patrol and enforcement division?

A
  1. Patrol Divisions

2. Community Affairs/Special Events

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4
Q

What division is responsible for training and supervision of the school crossing guards?

A

The safety education officers under community affairs and special events

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5
Q

The investigations division is broken into 2 sections. Crimes against person and crimes against property. Where does victim services fall?

A

Persons

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6
Q

The investigations division is broken into 2 sections. Crimes against person and crimes against property. Where does crime scene fall?

A

Property

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7
Q

The investigations division is broken into 2 sections. Crimes against person and crimes against property. Where does inter-agency fall?

A

Property

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8
Q

The investigations division is broken into 2 sections. Crimes against person and crimes against property. Where does photo lab fall?

A

Property

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9
Q

The special events division contains what four units?

A
  1. special events unit
  2. secondary employment unit
  3. vehicle storage and recovery unit
  4. marine unit
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10
Q

What two groups form the inter-agency group?

A

General Counsel Unit

State Attorney Unit

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11
Q

What unit does the Mayor’s Liaison investigator fall under?

A

Intelligence Unit

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12
Q

The aviation unit and dive team fall under what division?

A

Homeland Security and Special Enforcement

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13
Q

What section are the computer forensic investigation unit (CFIU), technical support unit, covert warehouse, and forfeiture unit under?

A

Narcotics and Vice section

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14
Q

The internal affairs unit fall within what department and what division?

A

Dept of Personnel and Professional Standards

Professional Standards Division

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15
Q

This is a one stop shop whereby ex-offenders returning from local, state, or federal incarceration can be provided assistance for successful reentry into our community, provide on site felony registration.

A

“Portal of Entry”

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16
Q

The JSO legal advisor will meet with the SAO how often?

A

At least quarterly

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17
Q

The chief of investigations or a designee will meet with judges in Duval county how often?

A

monthly

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18
Q

Copies of all meeting minutes, agendas, and reports shall be forwarded to what unit?

A

The Accreditation unit

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19
Q

Commanding officers shall keep or cause to be kept, a record of each members: (5 things)

A 
attendance
overtime
time off
awards
sick leave
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20
Q

Who is responsible for proper preparation and presentation of cases in court by members or their command?

A

Commanding officers

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21
Q

The responsibility for presenting officers with Anniversary Pins is handled at what level up to the 20th year. Employees with 20 year anniversaries and above will receive pins from the sheriff.
How often do members get an anniversary pin?

A

Division Level—every 5 years

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22
Q

What are the frequency of meetings for Executive Officers of Dept. and Divisions?

A

weekly

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23
Q

What are the frequency of meetings for Division, Sections, and Unit Supervisors?

A

as needed

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24
Q

Upon assuming or relinquishing command of their unit, commanding officer will review all inventory, processes, and documentation in their unit within how long?

A

90 days

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25
Q

Supervisory review is a function of who, and is intended to ensure that each assignment has been satisfactory completed and reported.

A

first line supervisor

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26
Q

Unless specified otherwise, the number of employees under the immediate control of any supervisor should be?

A

No more than 12

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27
Q

When a supervisor gives an order requiring a subordinate not under his command to leave his regular post or assignment, the supervisor giving the command shall do what?

A

As soon as practical, inform the commanding officer of the subordinate of the action taken.

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28
Q

What is the order of precedence in absence of sheriff?

A
  1. Undersheriff
  2. Dir. Patrol and Enforcement
  3. Dir. of Investigations and Homeland Security
  4. Dir. Personnel and Professional Standards
  5. Dir. of Corrections
  6. Dir. of Police Services
  7. Chief of Patrol East
  8. Chief of Patrol West
  9. Chief of Community Affairs and Special Events
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29
Q

Who is the chairperson of the meritorious awards review board?
Other Members?

A

Chairperson: Dir. of Patrol and Enforcement
Members: All Chiefs

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30
Q

Nominations will not be accepted by the meritorious award review board on an incident if is is how long from the incident initial occurrence?

A

After 1 year

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31
Q

Requests or recommendation for an award may be received from who?

A

Any reliable persons (employees, supervisors, commanding officers, members of the community)

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32
Q

Name the 3 medals that JSO awards from the highest honor down?

A
  1. Medal of Honor
  2. Medal of Valor
  3. Medal of Merit
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33
Q

When the Medal of Honor is presented what will occur?

A

Vehicle # and ID # are permanently retired
Awarded Posthumously to family
Highest JSO Honor/Award

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34
Q

Recipients of the Medal of Valor will receive what type of breast bar/medallion?

A

Red, White, Blue breast bar

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35
Q

Under what condition given is the Medal of Valor given?

A

Members who distinguish themselves by conspicuous acts of gallantry or extraordinary heroism. Must be voluntary in excess of normal demands, with imminent threat to safety. Above and beyond call of duty at risk to life.

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36
Q

Recipients of the Medal of Merit will receive what type of medallion/breast bar?

A

White and Blue breast bar

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37
Q

Under what conditions is a Medal of Merit given?

A

Awarded for exceptional meritorious action by demonstrating exceptional courage by performing a voluntary course of action in an extremely dangerous situation.

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38
Q

The recipient of a lifesaving award will receive what type breast bar/medallion?
When??

A

Red, White, Red

Intervention in a life threatening situation which directly results in saving a human life.

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39
Q

What does the purple heart award breast bar look like?

When awarded??

A

Solid Purple breast bar

Any serious injury inflicted while performing official duties and by criminal means or friendly weapon fire

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40
Q

Employee of the Year for Police for police, corrections officer, civilian reserve officer, police supervisor, corrections supervisor, and civilian supervisor will receive what type of breast bar?

A

Navy Breast Bar with Star

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41
Q

“Of the Month” award recipients receive how much annual leave as a reward?
“Of the Year”?

A

Month: 1 day

Year: 4 days

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42
Q

Which board is responsible for determining whether a crash, pursuit, or any other incident, resulting in personal injury or property damage was caused by a violation of Sheriff’s Office procedures, negligence or lack of good judgement?

A

JSO Safety Board

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43
Q

Who reviews incidents involving the use of PIT?

A

Response to Resistance Board

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44
Q

Who is the JSO Safety Board Coordinator?

A

FTO Unit Commander

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45
Q

Who is the JSO Safety Board Chairperson?

A

Chief of Patrol East (on even years)

Chief of Patrol West (on odd years)

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46
Q

Who is the JSO Safety Board members?

A

Other Chief of Patrol
Academy Training Director
Chief of Professional Standards
Chief of Investigations

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47
Q

All points of chargeable acts assigned by the safety board shall remain on the employees record for how long?
Points are cumulative

A

5 years from the date assigned

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48
Q

Vehicle Operation Violations:

Careless driving-how many points?

A

1-4 points

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49
Q

Vehicle Operation Violations:

Willful Violation of Traffic Laws-how many points?

A

5-8 points

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50
Q

Vehicle Operation Violations:

Reckless Driving-how many points?

A

9-12 points

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51
Q 
Speeding in an Sheriff's Office Vehicle:
MPH Over posted:
5-9: 
10-19:  
20-29:  
30+:
A

5-9 - Max informal
10-19 - Formal, up to 10 days loss of car
20-29 - Level 1, up to 20 days loss of car
30+ - Level 1, up to 30 days loss of car

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52
Q

Who is the Chairperson of the Response to Resistance Board?

A

Director of Investigations and Homeland Security

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53
Q

The Response to Resistance Board will review what type of cases?

A
  1. all discharge of firearm cases
  2. any R.T.R incident that results in death or great bodily harm
  3. Recommendation by any staff member of incident when other types of force were used
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54
Q

The chairperson (director of investigation and homeland security) has the authority to excuse members from appearing before the board if they discharged their firearm under what circumstance?

A
  1. on command of a supervising officer during a swat call out
  2. to kill an animal
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55
Q

What are the 3 potential recommendations of findings by RTR Board?

A
  1. No further action
  2. Further training required +/or
  3. Administrative review.investigation by internal affairs
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56
Q

Once the Sheriff has rendered a decision in a RTR Board Review, the commanding officer of the affected employee will have how many days to implement the Sheriff’s decision?

A

90 days ( he will send email to RTR coordinator within 10 days of completion)

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57
Q

The five members of the Disciplinary Review Board membership consists of who?

A

2 selected by administration
2 selected by charged employee
1 selected by 4 others

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58
Q

If the decision rendered by the Sheriff after review by the disciplinary review board he has how many days to appeal?? To who??

A

Within 10 days

To the Civil Service Review Board

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59
Q

When is the Medal of Honor awarded and who is it awarded to?

A

Posthumously to the family of the officer

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60
Q

All members are required to notify who and by what means if they are arrested or cited for a criminal violation within _________ hours of the members return to work following the incident.

A

Sheriff in writing within 24 hours

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61
Q

At a minimum employees shall receive ethics training how often?

A

Biennially

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62
Q

Members shall obey the lawful orders of supervisors, including those relayed from a superior by an employee of the same or lesser rank unless.

A

The orders are known to be unlawful

obedience to an order known to be unlawful is no defense against legal or disciplinary action

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63
Q

When requested by the public members shall identify themselves by what?

A

Name, ID and Division

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64
Q

What is the proper method of addressing the national anthem when outside or inside, in uniform and covered?

A

Formal Salute at first note

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65
Q

What is the proper method of addressing the national anthem when outside or inside, in uniform and uncovered?

A

Stand at Attention

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66
Q

What is the proper method of addressing the national anthem present but not in uniform?

A

Right hand over heart

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67
Q

What is the proper method of addressing the national anthem present but not in uniform and covered?

A

Remove hat, place right hand over heart (at over left shoulder)

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68
Q

What is the proper method of addressing the national flag when present, in uniform and covered?

A

Salute the Flag

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69
Q

What is the proper method of addressing the national flag when present, in uniform and uncovered?

A

Stand at Attention

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70
Q

What is the proper method of addressing the national flag when present, in civilian clothing and covered?

A

Uncover, right hand over heart, hat over left shoulder

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71
Q

What is the proper method of addressing the national flag when present, in civilian clothing and uncovered?

A

Hand over heart

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72
Q

Members must first obtain permission from who prior to publishing articles as an official representative?

A

Sheriff

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73
Q

When taking medication or using therapeutic treatment that could impair the member’s performance, members shall immediately notify who, by what means?

A

Their supervisor by Form-4.

Supervisor will forward it to the Personnel Division to be placed in the employee’s medical file

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74
Q

When a supervisor is informed that a subordinate is taking medication or using therapeutic treatment that could impair the member’s performance, the supervisor will do what?

A

Observe the employee and determine if the employees performance is satisfactory

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75
Q

If a member is served with process for conduct arising in the course and scope of their employment, the employee must immediately notify who?

A

Office of the General Counsel

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76
Q

Members who have a damage suit brought against them by reason of the acts performed by the officer in the line of duty, shall immediately notify who?

A

Their Commanding Officer - Forwarded to Risk Management

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77
Q

Members shall furnish notification in writing, of their intent to file suit arising out of their official duties in an court of law to who and when?

A

Their supervisor, not less than 5 days before the actual filing date. It is forwarded to the Office of the General Counsel.

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78
Q

If an injunction is filed against a member, the member must notify who, by what means?

A

Their Commanding Officer in writing. Forwarded to Internal Affairs

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79
Q

No member shall, while wearing a uniform required for employment, take an active part in management of what?

A

a political campaign

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80
Q

No member shall engage in any political activity during the hours of employment, nor shall any person solicit political contributions from employees of the city or independent agency during the hours of employment or where?

A

In any city facility

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81
Q

No member shall give testimonials or permit their names or photos to be used for advertising while inferring employment with JSO unless what is obtained, from who?

A

Written permission is obtained from the Sheriff

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82
Q

All requests for employees to speak to any public or private group as a representative of JSO are referred to the PIO so the PIO will complete a speakers bureau form. What JSO employees are exempt from this rule?

A

Sheriff’s Administration and Staff, Community Affairs and PAL Officers (during normal on-duty assignments)

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83
Q

Members may accept a reward with the written approval of who?

A

Division Chief or Higher

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84
Q

A member shall notify who in what means if they are going to testify as a character witness on behalf of a defendant in a criminal case?

A

Undersheriff in writing

Shall not wear JSO uniform while testifying

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85
Q

The officers discretion to choose an alternative course of action instead of arrest is explicitly recognized and encouraged unless what 3 factors dictate otherwise?

A
  1. JSO directives require arrest
  2. Orders of a Supervisor
  3. Orders of another competent authority
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86
Q

Who is responsible for reporting suspected, observed or is informed of misconduct by an employee?

A

Any JSO member sworn or civilian
The information will be reported to a supervisor or Internal Affairs
If criminal/potentially criminal violation - reported directly to Integrity

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87
Q

What are the 2 classification of Misconduct?

A

Minor and Serious

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88
Q

Minor misconduct is conduct which does not require a ___________ and if sustained may result in informal counseling, remedial training or minor disciplinary action handled by the Watch or Unit Commander.

A

Formal Internal Investigation

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89
Q

Serious misconduct is conduct which warrant a detailed investigation by Internal Affairs, which if sustained could lead to _________, _______ or ________.

A

suspension, demotion or dismissal

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90
Q

Supervisors receiving complaints in person at the PMB during normal work hours shall do what?

A

Escort the complainant to the Internal Affairs Unit

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91
Q

Supervisors receiving complaints in person at the PMB after normal work hours shall do what?

A

Notify the Appropriate Watch Commander who will respond and investigate

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92
Q

Supervisors receiving complaints in person while in the field during normal work hours shall do what?

A

Obtain complainant information and call Internal Affairs

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93
Q

Supervisors receiving complaints in person while in the field after normal work hours shall do what?

A

Call the Watch Commander

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94
Q

Supervisors receiving complaints by phone shall refer complainants to where during normal work hours or who after normal work hours?

A

Internal Affairs

Communications Watch Commander

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95
Q

Supervisors receiving complaints by phone shall obtain what from the complainant and ensure what is provided to the complainant by mail, fax or e-mail.

A

Complainants name and phone number

Complaint form is mailed, faxed, or e-mailed to them

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96
Q

Can an anonymous complainant make a complaint against an officer? How do they receive a complaint form?

A

Yes

On the JSO website

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97
Q

The Integrity Unit will be notified immediately where there are reported cases of misconduct involving violations of local, state or federal laws that are ________.

A

In progress

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98
Q

When an allegation of misconduct is serious in nature who must be notified?

A

Internal Affairs

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99
Q

Investigations of misconduct must be completed within _________ after the allegation is received by a person authorized to investigate the misconduct (Lieutenant or Higher)?

A

180 days or no discipline shall be undertaken

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100
Q

Who is authorized to initiate an investigation into an allegation of misconduct?

A

Lieutenant or higher authority

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101
Q

During an investigation of misconduct, if the accused employee is a police or correctional officer, he will be advised of what before an interview?

A

Law Enforcement Officers/CO Bill of Rights and any other rights.
Must be placed under oath

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102
Q

During an investigation of misconduct, if the accused employee is a police or correctional officer, he will be allowed to do what before an interview?

A

Review the complaint, all evidence, statements, interview videos, etc.

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103
Q

With regard to misconduct investigations, placing an officer under oath only applies to what type investigation.

A

Formal Investigation requiring a summation

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104
Q

What are the 6 possible disposition classifications of Internal Affairs Investigations?

A
  1. Unfounded
  2. Exonerated
  3. Not Sustained
  4. Sustained
  5. Policy Revision
  6. Misconduct not based on original complaint
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105
Q

If an allegation is sustained and warrants a formal counseling, supervisors will document the action on what form? It will be maintained where?

A

Employee Improvement Form (P-0646)

In the employee’s supervisor’s file

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106
Q

Complaints relating to Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) require Internal Affairs notify who with the disposition of the complaint?

A

The city’s ADA Coordinator

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107
Q

Supervisors who receive reports of misconduct from a subordinate shall do what?

A

complete an employee complaint for (P-0235) and route it in a sealed envelope as the form directs

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108
Q

If an employee directly observes another JSO employee violating local, state or federal laws he shall do what?

A

Immediately notify the appropriate Watch Commander or the Integrity Unit

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109
Q

A formal investigation will not be classified as completed until what occurs?

A

Not until the highest ranking authority has reviewed, dated and signed the Disciplinary Actions Recommendation Form (P-0129)

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110
Q

A formal counseling is documented outside an employees personnel file on an Employee Improvement Form (P-0646). The form will be maintained where?

A

The original is kept in the Employee’s Supervisor’s File

A copy is given to the employee

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111
Q

Training, Informal Counseling and Formal Counseling are not considered what?

A

Disciplinary Action

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112
Q

A Written Reprimand Level 2 shall document all Formal Counseling received within the prior _________ months.

A

12 months

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113
Q

Written Reprimand Level 1 and 2 are considered discipline and are filed where?

A

Internal Affairs

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114
Q

Upon completion of a staff review, a Written Reprimand Level 2 shall be documented on Office of the Sheriff Letterhead and administered by who?

A

The employees Unit Commander or higher authority

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115
Q

Who has the authority to suspend, reduce pay, cause forfeiture of leave time, demote or dismiss an employee?

A

Only the Sheriff or his designee

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116
Q

Who has the authority to impose an emergency suspension without pay?

A

Any commanding officer. Must be an extraordinary situation. The commanding officer will notify the Chief of Professional Standards

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117
Q

When an employee is placed on an emergency suspension, what will be taken from the suspended employee?

A

ID card, Badges, All issued weapons, city vehicle

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118
Q

What disciplinary action is associated with Step 1 discipline?

A

Written Reprimand Level 1

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119
Q

What disciplinary action is associated with Step 2 discipline?

A

Written Reprimand Level 2

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120
Q

What disciplinary action is associated with Step 3 discipline?

A

Suspension without pay, Reduction of pay, Demotion

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121
Q

What disciplinary action is associated with Step 4 discipline?

A

Dismissal

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122
Q

Failure to attend wellness of cancel the appointment prior to 24 hours of the appointment could result in a formal counseling and what?

A

Loss of take home vehicle for 2 weeks

can’t borrow vehicle for 10-60

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123
Q

Information relating to an active Internal Affairs investigation will not be release to anyone without the approval of who?

A

Commanding Officer of Internal Affairs or

The Undersheriff

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124
Q

The Undersheriff of his designee may temporarily reassign or suspend a member in what cases?

A

Allegations of Serious Misconduct

and/or Substance Abuse

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125
Q

__________ are allegations which if proven true could result in the employee being suspended, demoted or terminated and require an extensive Internal Affairs Investigation.

A

Serious Allegations

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126
Q

_______ are allegations of misconduct which are investigated at the supervisory level and not in Internal Affairs.

A

Minor Allegations

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127
Q

Internal Affairs cases where the classification is determined to be exonerated, not sustained, unfounded, or sustained with a recommendation of disciplinary action of a Written Reprimand Level 2 or less, require the case packet be approved by who?

A

Department Director

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128
Q

In cases of a highly sensitive nature or where allegations are sustained with a recommendation of suspension, demotion or dismissal will be reviewed and approved by who?

A

The Undersheriff

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129
Q

All investigations sent to the employees chain of command for supervisory investigation shall be completed within ___________ days?

A

within 60 calendar days from the date the complaint is sent to the employees chain of command

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130
Q

All investigations conducted by Internal Affairs will be completed within ___________.

A

120 calendar days

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131
Q

Members of the JSO who are the principal of an Internal Investigation will be advised of what 3 things prior to the interview?

A
  1. They are part of an Administrative Investigation
  2. Florida LEO / CO Bill of Rights
  3. Administrative Proceedings Rights Form
    (Also, allowed to review all statements, reports, evidence, etc with counsel and representative of their choice)
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132
Q

Internal Affairs is responsible for drug testing under what circumstances?

A

When there is a reasonable suspicion that the member has used, is found in possession of or has been identified as using a drug, alcohol, or controlled substance in violation of JSO directives, rules or regulations

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133
Q

If an employee is suspected of substance/alcohol abuse and is on-duty and involved in a crash/incident and the employees behavior can not be explained, the Internal Affairs Investigator shall contact _________ to seek approval for immediate drug/alcohol testing?

A

Employee’s Division Chief

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134
Q

Can results of an administrative chemical breath test be used in criminal prosecution?

A

No

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135
Q

If a member is placed on leave without pay subsequent to a failed chemical test, he may be immediately transferred if during normal business hours. If after normal business hours he will be told to do what?

A

Report to his Division Chief the following working day at 0900.

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136
Q

Who has the authority to counsel or require additional training for an employee without prior approval?

A

First Line Supervisor

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137
Q

The sale, purchase, transfer, use or possession of illegal drugs or drugs obtained illegally is a violation of law and will result in what?

A

Dismissal

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138
Q

JSO requires that all members while in any other state or country, shall not sell, purchase, transfer, use or possess any drug which would be __________.

A

illegal in the state of Florida

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139
Q

Based on General Order XV.7 Drug Screening Program, an employee is considered to be “under the influence” if he has a breath test result of over _______.

A

.000

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140
Q

Any JSO member using legal, over-the-counter, non-prescribed drugs which in any way impair or affect their job performance are responsible for bringing this fact to the attention of who?

A

Their Immediate Supervisor and the Personnel Medical Section Designee on a Form-4

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141
Q

If an employee ingests a drug in the performance of their duties, he will immediately do what?

A

Notify the supervisor on duty. The supervisor will document the incident on a Form-4.

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142
Q

If an employee is subject to passive inhalation of drugs during the performance of their duties, he will do what?

A

Notify the supervisor on duty via Form-4. (include type of drug, duration of exposure and necessity of exposure)

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143
Q

Which section of JSO is responsible for drug testing of applicants and basic recruit training?

A

Professional Standards Division

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144
Q

Which section of JSO is responsible for drug testing of probationary police/corrections, transfers in and out of drug units, random drug screening and fit for duty tests?

A

Personnel Division

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145
Q

Which section of JSO is responsible for drug testing of employees suspected of drug use and/or found in possession of drugs?

A

Internal Affairs Unit

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146
Q

Which section of JSO is responsible for drug testing of employees with prior disciplinary proceedings related to drugs?

A

Internal Affairs Unit

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147
Q

When an employee is notified by their Division Chief or designee of their selection to be drug tested, they shall do what?

A

Report directly to one of the 3 testing locations

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148
Q

If an employee selected for random drug screening is off work for a short duration (____ days or less), what shall occur?

A

14 calendar days or less

The employee will be sent when he returns to work

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149
Q

If an employee selected for random drug screening is off work for a long absence (14 calendar days or more), what shall occur?

A

A Form 4 will be sent to the Chief of Personnel explaining why the employee was not sent

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150
Q

In computing time limits of each step in the grievance process, what days will not be counted?

A

Regular Scheduled Days Off

Holidays and Weekends

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151
Q

A copy of all grievance reports will be forwarded to what 2 places/person once a final disposition has been reached?

A

Internal Affairs Unit and

Chief of Personnel

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152
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring attendance is accurate on a daily basis?

A

Supervisor or designee

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153
Q

If an employee is reported to be Absent without Leave (AWL), documentation stating the reason for carrying the employee in that status will be submitted where?

A

The Personnel Division

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154
Q

Who can initiate the IOD roll call attendance code?

A

Roll Call Supervisor

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155
Q

All employees shall be reported on the roll call at the actual work assignment regardless of duration of the assignment, with the exception of __________.

A

Academy Classes

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156
Q

Who initiates a transfer in EIS?

A

The employee’s current roll call supervisor

The new roll call supervisor is responsible for reviewing and approving the transfer

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157
Q

In both the Patrol and Investigations Division, if a roll call assignment or attendance status changes after the beginning of a shift, who will notify the communications center watch commander and update EIS?

A

The roll call supervisor or higher authority

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158
Q

How often will supervisors sign off on the previous weeks time sheet for the assigned roll calls? When is this done?

A

On a weekly basis

First day back after regular days off

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159
Q

What attendance code is to be used only when an employee is out of town on JSO business, and is not to be used for when he is away from his regular duty station such as at in-service training or at the range?

A

Special Duty (SD)

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160
Q

An individual convicted of a _________, any ___________ , or with an __________ will not be allowed to participate in the Observer Program.

A
  1. Convicted of a Felony Crime against a person
  2. Convicted of a Felony Drug Charge
  3. Outstanding Warrant
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161
Q

In the Civilian Observer Program, an individual convicted of a felony crime against property, misdemeanor drug charges, morals charge, or persons with any pending criminal charges will not be permitted to ride for a period of ______ years from the last conviction.

A

5 years

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162
Q

In the Civilian Observer Program, an individual convicted of any other misdemeanor charge(s) will not be permitted to ride for a period of _______from the last conviction.

A

1 year

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163
Q

Civilian Observers are required to submit their observer program request/release form (P-0596) to their appropriate sub station how many days prior to the date they wish to ride?

A

3 days prior

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164
Q

Civilian Observers, once approved, are permitted to ride one time within any 2 week period, unless otherwise approved by a Chief of Patrol or higher. The approval is valid for how long?

A

a 14 day period

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165
Q

How old must individuals be to participate in the Civilian Observer Program?

A

At least 16 (if under 18 - must have parent/guardian notarized written consent)

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166
Q

If an officer is initiating a request for an observer, it shall be submitted by when?

A

At least 24 hours prior to the requested ride along

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167
Q

If an officer is initiating a request for an observer, it shall be submitted at least 24 hours before the requested ride along, if not submitted 24 hours prior to the ride along, it requires whose approval?

A

Watch Commander

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168
Q

Prior to allowing the Civilian Observer to begin the ride along, the assigned officer shall do what?

A

Verify the observer’s identity via government issued photo ID against the observer applicant

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169
Q

Observer program request/release forms will be maintained for how long?

A

Four anniversary years after the ride along

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170
Q

Employees who are going to be on annual/personal or military leave for more than 30 calendar days shall do what?

A

Return their assigned vehicle to the fleet coordinators office. Must leave vehicle card in the vehicle.

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171
Q

Sick leave will be initiated each day in EIS unless the illness is extended past _________ days, at which time it can be input in work cycle increments.

A

10 days

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172
Q

If carried as sick leave on an EIS roll call, employees are expected to be found where during normal duty hours, unless they have permission from their commanding officer or an authorized representative.

A

Home, Physicians office, hospital or enroute to/from one of these locations

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173
Q

Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) requires covered employers to provide 12 weeks of paid (use of leave) or unpaid job-protected leave for medical reasons. To be eligible an employee must have worked for JSO/city for ______ months and _________ hours.

A

at least 12 months and 1250 hours

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174
Q

A Temporary Limited Duty is a duty assignment required by a medical, physical or psychological impairment, which debilitates an employee and a medical provider states in writing, the employee can not perform the duties of his job for a limited duration and is treatable. How long is the limited duration as defined by this law?

A

not more than one year

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175
Q

Requests for temporary limited duty are generally initiated by the employee. They are routed to the Assistant Chief and up the chain of command. Who makes the final determination on a temporary limited duty assignment?

A

Director

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176
Q

Are employees on temporary limited duty authorized to carry a firearm?

A

Yes, if concealed and current on firearms certification

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177
Q

Are employees on temporary limited duty authorized to have a take home vehicle?

A

No, they are only allowed to drive city vehicles during work hours with the approval of a Chief or higher authority.

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178
Q

Are employees on temporary limited duty authorized to work off duty?

A

No, if it involves the exercise of police authority

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179
Q

Are employees on temporary limited duty authorized to work overtime?

A

No, also no overtime is permitted for medical appointments related to workers compensation

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180
Q

Is overtime authorized for attendance at medical appointments related to workers compensation?

A

No

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181
Q

What is required to return to full duty after a temporary limited duty assignment? Who is it provided to?

A

A physicians release statement

Provided to the Personnel Division Medical Designee

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182
Q

Corrections and Police Military Reservists may not exceed 240 training hours per ____________ ?

A

Fiscal Year

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183
Q

Civilian Reservists may not exceed 240 training hours per ____________ ?

A

Calendar Year

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184
Q

Reservists activated for deployment will be transferred to a personnel division active duty roll call. Upon return the employee will complete the military return checklist and furnish a DD-214 to the personnel division within ________ days.

A

60 days

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185
Q

A leave of absence without pay may be granted for personal reasons for up to ______ days in a calendar year?

A

10 work days

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186
Q

A leave of absence without pay may be granted if the leave is not personal and deemed beneficial to the service of the city for how long in a calendar year?

A

6 months initially and extended an additional 6 months

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187
Q

If an employee is activated to active duty for more than ______ days he must turn in his issued equipment. If less than ______ days he may keep the equipment. (excluding assigned vehicle which must be turned in if leave is over 30 days)

A

45 days

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188
Q

Any officer whose actions result in a death or serious bodily harm shall be removed from the line of duty assignment and placed on Administrative Leave by who?

A

A/C of Crimes Against Persons or higher

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189
Q

Employees on limited duty status due to a critical incident shall not do what 4 things while on the ADL status?

A
  1. Wear a uniform
  2. Drive a take home vehicle
  3. Use police powers
  4. Work off-duty
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190
Q

According to IOD, “on duty” refers to an employee engaged in their primary duty of enforcing criminal, traffic or penal laws in primary or authorized secondary employment. Employees are also covered while coming and going to work in an official Law Enforcement vehicle, except when?

A

A distinct deviation for a non-essential personal errand

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191
Q

Are reserve officers performing a police function covered by workers compensation?

A

Yes, when activated by the Sheriff

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192
Q

Are authorized volunteers of JSO covered by workers compensation?

A

Yes, if in performance of duty

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193
Q

Are police explorers covered by workers compensation?

A

No

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194
Q

When supervisors become aware of an injury on duty they are required to complete “the supervisors investigation report of employee injury or illness” and the Florida Dept of Labor and Employment Security “First Report of Injury or Illness” forms within _______ hours.

A

24 hours

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195
Q

Overtime requests are not authorized for medical appointments relating to worker compensation injuries except what 2 situations?

A
  1. The employee is receiving initial treatment that goes beyond the end of his shift
  2. Employee must be seen by the workers compensation treating physician the following day which falls on a RDO.
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196
Q

Any request for overtime must be approved by ________ or_________ when seeking treatment for an IOD.

A

Director of Personnel and Professional Standards or the Chief of Personnel

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197
Q

The police officer whose name appears on the arrest report as the arresting officer is required to file charges with the SAO promptly within _________ hours if scheduled to work the next day or within ________ if not scheduled to work the next day.

A

24 hours

120 hours

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198
Q

An exception to the requirement of officers to file within 24 hours if working the next day or 120 hours if not working the next day is what?

A

Detectives with prior approval of their supervisor

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199
Q

All sworn officers, except who, shall file on duty unless exigent circumstances and prior approval of a supervisor.

A

Midnight Shift Officers

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200
Q

Witness fees are a function of the court system and not JSO, employees are entitled to a witness fee if they are __________ and under __________.

A

they are not on duty and under subpoena of the SAO or PD office

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201
Q

If an officer is placed on “telephone standby” by the SAO, PD or Private Attorney, he will notify the Court Liaison and provide what to the Court Liaison?

A

his location and a telephone number to reach him at

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202
Q

Officers shall appear for depositions without a subpoena, upon written notice of taking depositions delivered at the address of the law enforcement agency _________ days before the date of the deposition.

A

5 days prior

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203
Q

If it is necessary that a telephone conversation with a defense attorney be conducted off duty, the employee will be entitled to _________, up to a maximum of __________.

A

Straight time for 1 hour for any portion of an hour

Up to a maximum of 2 hours (documented as pager standby in EIS)

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204
Q

Any member changing their name or requiring a marital status change is required within ___________ days after the change, to report to the Personnel Division in person with the proper documentation.

A

30 calendar days

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205
Q

For emergency and recall purposes, all members are required to have a contact number during off duty hours. Cell phones are suitable as long as they are not ____________.

A

a prepaid account

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206
Q

Employees shall update any change of address or contact telephone # in the EIS within ________ of their return to duty after the change.

A

24 hours

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207
Q

The Tele Serv Sergeant is authorized to give the contact number of an employee to another employee of the JSO who has properly identified by what?

A

Name, home phone # and agency ID number

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208
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that a phase III test of the emergency recall plan is conducted on a JSO wide basis at least every 6 months, or at the request of the Sheriff?

A

Director of Investigations and Homeland Security

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209
Q

What phase of employee recall involves the use of on-duty personnel from the patrol division and/or the hold over of on-duty shift of the patrol division? It is done by the authority of who?

A

Phase I

On Duty Patrol Watch Commander or higher

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210
Q

What phase of employee recall involves the call up of oncoming shift of the patrol division and the hold over of on-duty personnel? It is done by the authority of who?

A

Phase II
Zone Commander or higher
Zone Commander notify Lts, Lts notify Sgts, Sgts notify officers

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211
Q

What phase of employee recall involves the use of all personnel necessary from the entire JSO? Activation is done by the authority of who?

A

Phase III

Director of Investigation and Homeland Security or higher

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212
Q

At a Phase III and IV employee recall, what is cancelled? Except what?

A

regular days and all other leave

except sick leave

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213
Q

What phase of recall involves the request for and utilization of outside agencies including, but not limited to, other law enforcement agencies and state and federal forces. Activation is done by the authority of who with whose assistance?

A

Phase IV
Sheriff or designee
Assistance of the Mayor

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214
Q

How often are phase III recall tests conducted at JSO?

A

every 6 months

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215
Q

For the purpose of obtaining assistance from the Florida National Guard, a state of emergency must be declared. Who has the authority to declare a state of emergency?

A

The Mayor

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216
Q

Who has the authority to order the National Guard to assist in emergency situations?

A

The governor

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217
Q

Uniformed members shall receive a new pair of boots/shoes every how often? Reserves?

A

Once a year

Once every 2 years

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218
Q

Loss of or damage to JSO issued uniform, clothing, insignia or equipment shall be reported by the employee to who, by what means?

A

e-mail to their Assistant Chief

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219
Q

Loss of a firearm, badge, portable radio, JSO ID card, or other equipment which has as serial number or unique number requires what?

A

General Offense Report

e-mail to their Assistant Chief

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220
Q

Once an officer is trained in the deployment of a CEW, the officer may choose whether or not to continue wearing his issued impact weapon on his duty belt.
If an officer chooses not to wear his impact weapon, he will have the weapon where?

A

in his assigned vehicle in a readily accessible area

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221
Q

Who can approve wearing of items other than regulation issued items of uniform clothing/shoes, body armor, insignia, brass and equipment?

A

Division Chief or higher

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222
Q

No visible jewelry other than __________, _________, and __________ will be worn by uniformed personnel

A

Rings, watches and bracelets (rings limited to 1 ring per hand - wedding set considered one)

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223
Q

Female employees may wear ear rings that are ________ and that are ____ in diameter or smaller (one matching in each ear).

A

round and 7mm or smaller

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224
Q

How many bracelets are officers allowed to wear? What type are not allowed?

A

One

Bangles or charm bracelets

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225
Q

The uniform, or any part of it, shall not be worn while an officer is what?

A

Under Suspension

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226
Q

The wearing of a uniform while in a limited duty status is only permitted with the approval of who?

A

Sheriff

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227
Q

Officers may wear a single or double magazine pouch, but not what? If a triple magazine pouch is worn officers will be responsible for what?

A

two singles

purchasing the magazine and pouch

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228
Q

Officers may wear what type of magazine pouch on their belt as long as it doesn’t interfere?

A

Rifle magazine

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229
Q

A black ribbon or black tape may be worn over the face of the badge upon notification of an officer’s death until when? It may also be worn when?

A

the completion of funeral service

During police memorial week

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230
Q

Senior police officers are officers with how many years of service?
Master police officers are officers with how many years of service?

A

senior - 8

master - 16

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231
Q

Senior and Master police officers shall wear what on which collar instead of JP.

A

Service Chevrons

Right collar point up

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232
Q

Senior police sergeants shall wear three service chevrons and what on each sleeve?

A

One Rocker

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233
Q

Master police sergeants shall wear three service chevrons and what on each sleeve?

A

Two rockers

234
Q

Breast bars and pins indicating meritorious awards issued by JSO may be worn over the nameplate. “Safe driver” and “years of service” pins are limited to how many?

A

1 each

235
Q

Breast bars and pins indicating meritorious awards issued by JSO may be worn over the nameplate. Organizational pins are limited to how many?

A

2

236
Q

Officers may wear how many pins at one time on the uniform?

A

no more than 3

237
Q

Wearing body armor is mandatory during all secondary employment unless approved by who?

A

Division Chief or higher

238
Q

Female non-uniform employees may wear dress shoes with a heal ________ high or lower.

A

2”

239
Q

Officers in an non-uniform status assignment shall carry what at a minimum?

A

Employee ID card, badge, issued/approved weapon, extra ammunition, handcuffs

240
Q

How long can an employees who carry firearms, make arrests, or are in contact with prisoners/inmates have their fingernails?

A

shall not extend more than 1/8” past the end of the finger

241
Q

Tattoos above where or below where are prohibited. Unless the employee was employed with JSO and had the tattoo applied before 06-10-14, which are exempt.

A

Above the collar bone or below the wrist

242
Q

Female hairstyles shall not be longer than where?

A

the seamline of the uniform shirt

243
Q

Hair clips, pins and barrettes shall be of ___________.

A

a single color (silver, gold, dark blue, black)

244
Q

Male hair styles shall be evenly trimmed, not below ________, height and depth not to exceed ______, not over the ________.

A

the middle of the ear
2” in depth
over the collar

245
Q

Sideburns shall not be below where, trimmed straight, not wider than _____” and no more than ______” in depth.

A

below the earlobe
1 1/2” wide
1/4” in depth

246
Q

Mustaches must be neatly trimmed, not below _____ “ of the corner of the mouth. Thickness not more than ______ “ and the ends not waxed or twisted.

A

1/4” below mouth

1/4” thickness

247
Q

Time service patches will be worn on which sleeve?

A

Left Sleeve only

248
Q

Newly hired employees will be provided a copy of the JSO __________.

A

Mission Statment

249
Q

Except in the event of exceptional need, emergency, or the existence of compelling need, all academy instructors shall be certified in accordance with CJSTC rules and must complete what FDLE course?

A

The FDLE instructor technique course

250
Q

The JSO will strive for continuity of training by retaining full-time instructors for a minimum of how long?

A

2 years

Part time instructors will be used as needed

251
Q

Civilian employees who predominantly deal with citizens will receive what type of training prior to being placed in contact with the public.

A

Mental Illness Training

252
Q

All JSO training programs will be evaluated, updated and revised annually by who?

A

The training committee

253
Q

Training lesson plans will be maintained where?

A

Training center master file at the training center.

Lesson plans may not be removed without prior approval of the training center director or designee

254
Q

Trainees must attend all sessions of an training courses which they are enrolled, except for absences approved by the training center director. Such absences will not exceed ______ percent of the course length.

A

10%

255
Q

All training documentation of courses completed at the training center and training records from other training medias are maintained in what system?

A

ACADIS

256
Q

What 4 civilian positions require assigned employees to complete specialized on-the-job training within 30 days of the assignment?

A
  1. Communications
  2. Finger Print Technician
    3> Latent Print Unit
  3. Photo Lab
257
Q

Tuition reimbursement is limited to how many hours per calendar year?

A

18 credit hours

258
Q

Employees are not permitted to ________ or _______ during assigned work hours, unless such time is covered by approved leave.

A

attend courses or engage in course work

259
Q

An employee seeking tuition reimbursement must submit a certificate of completion with documentation of grade, receipt showing payment, course ID and promissory note to personnel within ________ of the end of the course term.

A

no later than 4 weeks after the end of the course’s term

260
Q

Who shall be designated and trained as career counselors?

A

all agency supervisors

261
Q

Career counselors must register and attend SLII training within _________ months of their promotion to a position as a career counselor.

A

within 6 months

262
Q

What is the life of Internal Priority 1 eligibility lists?

A

2 years

263
Q

What is the life of Internal Priority 2 eligibility lists?

A

90 days

264
Q

What is the life eligibility of external eligibility lists?

A

1 year

265
Q

Once an examination is given, no applicant will be given a special examination, except what 2 circumstances?

A

Reasonable accommodation for an application with a disability
Employee’s military leave has prevented participation in the exam

266
Q

Transfer is the lateral movement in which the assignment is expected to last how long?

A

More than 3 months

267
Q

All supervisors will create a performance plan for their subordinate employees in EPMS when each year?

A

Each October

268
Q

When will annual evaluations be completed by supervisors for their subordinate employees each year?

A

Each September

269
Q

Probationary police officers will have evaluations documented on a performance evaluation form when?

A

Monthly and end of probation

270
Q

An exit evaluation will be completed when an employee transfers from a different classification, department or division, or a new probation (promotion) occurs. No exit evaluation is necessary if the employee has been with the current supervisor less than how long?

A

90 days

271
Q

When will all supervisors compete an annual evaluation on their subordinate employees?

A

each september

272
Q

What are the 3 responsibilities/components of a performance plan?

A
  1. Universal Responsibilities
  2. Positional Responsibilities
  3. Individual Responsibilities
273
Q

When can a supervisor initiate a performance improvement plan if an employee’s performance is unsatisfactory?

A

At any time during the evaluation period.

Notification shall be given to the employee at least 90 days prior to the end of his annual rating period

274
Q

Annual evaluations are due on ___________ and are accessible to the supervisor ____________.

A

Due - September 30th

Available - September 1st

275
Q

If an employee refuses to sign the evaluation, what will happen?

A

the supervisor will call in a witness to sign the evaluation on the supervisor’s computer (witness can not be the employee’ supervisor or reviewer).

276
Q

If an employee disagrees with his completed performance evaluation, how long will he have to enter a comment into the system documenting his disagreement?

A

15 days after receiving their evaluation

277
Q

EAP is available to who for assistance with personal problems through initial assessments, short-term counseling and when appropriate professional resources.

A

employees, their immediate families and dependents

278
Q

Can an employee visit EAP on paid work time?

A

Yes, the employee’s first visit can be on paid work time, workload permitting, provided the employee notifies his supervisor in advance and provides proof of attendance from EAP

279
Q

An employee’s first visit can be on paid work time, workload permitting, provided the employee does what?

A

notifies his supervisor in advance and provides proof of attendance from EAP

280
Q

What are the three avenues involving EAP which supervisors may use?

A

Informal Suggestion
Supervisory Written Encouragement to use EAP
Supervisory Formal Referral

281
Q

This type of supervisory referral to EAP is done during counseling for job performance issues?

A

Informal

282
Q

This type of supervisory referral to EAP is done if performance problems exist to the extent that the supervisor feels an oral or written disciplinary action is indicated?

A

Supervisory Written Encouragement to use EAP

283
Q

If an employee is involved in a circumstance or incident that could lead to their suspension, termination or which may involve extended plans for improvement, the supervisor may initiate a what type of EAP referral?

A

Supervisor Formal Referral

284
Q

In circumstances of Supervisor Formal Referrals to EAP, what will the supervisor do to begin the process?

A

Contact EAP, schedule an appointment for the employee and notify the employee in writing. (the employees decision to accept the appointment is completely voluntary)

285
Q

The EAP will not discuss with supervisors an employee’s specific personal, emotional, health problems, or the recommended treatment plan unless the employee gives his written permission, except in what circumstances?

A

A clear and immediate probability of physical harm to the patient or client to other individuals, or to society

286
Q

The victim has the right to be protected from intimidation. What degree offense is it to tamper with a witness?

A

3rd Degree Felony

287
Q

A victim notification form will be completed in which offenses?

A 
Homicide
Sexual Offenses
Attempted Murder
Stalking
Cyber-Stalking
Domestic Violence
Kidnapping or False Imprisonment relating to Dom. Vio
Dating Violence
Warrants for the above cases
288
Q

A victim notification is not required for individuals arrested for __________ or ____________.

A

VOP or Capiases for VOP

289
Q

How many people can be listed as designated contacts or registered for telephone notification?

A

unlimited (others beyond the victim will register themselves on the VINE system)

290
Q

Upon release, escape or transfer from the custody of JSO, the VINE computer will notify the victim, next of kin, or designated contact. If contact is not made what happens?

A

A letter of notification will automatically be prepared

291
Q

When an officer/detective enters any information on the “Law Enforcement Information Reporting Form” that would disqualify the applicant from receiving compensation, ________________ , must review the circumstances of the disqualifying information prior to forwarding the form to the Victim Services Counselor.

A

an Investigations Division Unit Commander and/or Patrol Watch Commander, or above

292
Q

If during the course of work, an officer encounters an individual with a hearing impairment, he should attempt to communication using a note pad. If it is not effective or the individual requests an interpreter, the employee shall do what?

A

notify a supervisor

the supervisor will contact PSA and request a sign language interpreter

293
Q

When covering more than one subsector, officers will use the call sign of what?

A

the lowest subsector being covered

294
Q

Which talk groups are recorded on the communication recording system?

A

All “A” flight channels except the 4 special events talk groups

295
Q

It is the responsibility of the unit supervisor to notify _________ when an employee leaves his unit, and a new employee is transferred to his unit. He/She or their designee will be responsible for assigning the new employee with an appropriate call sign.

A

the Communications Center Major

296
Q

What is automatically transmitted when the officer keys the microphone of his portable radio?

A

Assigned officer’s ID number

297
Q

Who is responsible for the assignment, re-assignment, inventory and repair of pagers issued by JSO?

A

The Supply Unit

298
Q

Who is responsible for the assignment, re-assignment, inventory and repair of cell phones issued by JSO?

A

The Communications Administration Section

299
Q

Officers shall use the MDC to advise HQ when enroute to a call and when arriving except when?

A

at the scene of priority 1 calls which require that voice radio be used

300
Q

When an officer is contacted by a supervisor via radio, he will provide what?

A

provide his location

301
Q

What is the name of the auto-telenotification system designed to broadcast an emergency message in a matter of minutes. It is used to notify communities of time sensitive concerns, pre-determined functions, and crime prevention alerts.

A

“Code Red”

302
Q

When broadcasting a “Code Red” what must be included in the script?

A

An identification line within the first 5 seconds (This is JSO) and proper contact numbers

303
Q

When a “Code Red” is broadcast the Communications supervisor will notify who of the broadcast.

A

The appropriate watch/section commander, special assistant to Sheriff and PIO

304
Q

The Security Communications Assistance Network (SCAN) provides an efficient means of communications between private security and the JSO. What talk group is it on and who monitors it?

A

B-7

Zone 6 dispatcher

305
Q

The SCAN frequency will be used to report ___________ incidents.

A

Felony

306
Q

When communicating on a multi-agency or mutual aid channel officers should always do what?

A

Use plain text/clear talk with no codes or signals

307
Q

Simplex radio networks are frequencies that do not have repeaters. What channels are the two simplex talk groups of JSO?

A

B-11 and B-12

308
Q

Media outlets must publish how often to have access to the Media Room “blotter” where police reports, arrest and booking reports and crash reports are maintained?

A

Once a week or more

309
Q

If the crime scene involves a specialized unit, who will ensure release of information at the scene and notify the PIO of the statements made?

A

The highest ranking official from the units chain of command

310
Q

Who is responsible for the timely and proper fulfillment of public records requests, including proper review, redacting and billing of public records request?

A

All JSO supervisors

311
Q

Reports that are sent to the PIO are not available immediately to the media, these reports include ___________ and ___________.

A

Sex offenses and incidents involving juveniles

312
Q

Who can authorize the release of a photograph of a police/corrections officer that is arrested?

A

Undersheriff

313
Q

The Watch Commander or designated supervisor, incident commander, the investigating officer as designated by the commander, or the PIO if activated by policy or by the commander will be responsible for what?

A

the release of information to the media at the scene of an incident

314
Q

The PIO will respond to any other incident at the request of ____________. In the case of a traffic homicide, ________ may activate the PIO.

A

a Lieutenant or higher authority

a sergeant

315
Q

A sergeant can activate the PIO in what type of incident?

A

Traffic Homicide

316
Q

Request to enter a designated crime scene shall be made to who?

A

The ranking officer controlling the scene

317
Q

All overtime must be authorized by who prior to being worked, unless the overtime is a result of a call for police service directed to an off duty officer by HQ.

A

A Supervisor

318
Q

What are the current overtime limits?

A

A maximum of 16 on duty hours per day

A maximum of 20 hours of overtime per pay period

319
Q

The three types of overtime are categories are what?

A

Pre-planned, un-planned and special events

320
Q

Patrol division employees shall notify an on-duty street supervisor after the first hour of over time and gain the approval of who every hour thereafter?

A

On-duty Watch Commander

321
Q

Supervisors should review and approve all overtime requests by when?

A

prior to the end of their shift

322
Q

When an off-duty employee is required to appear before any hearing board, arbitrator or internal investigation as a fact witness as the result of receiving a subpoena or direct order in the course and scope of employment, overtime requests will be submitted and approved by who?

A

Commander of Internal Affairs or designee

323
Q

Who will maintain liaison with the juvenile court system at least quarterly?

A

Chief of Community Affairs

324
Q

The Directive Review Committee is composed of the chairman _____________, and what other members?

A

Chairman - Director of Personnel and Professional Standards

Members - All Directors and all Chiefs

325
Q

The lead supervisor of any COJ venue shall complete and forward to the secondary employment unit an after action report within __________ days.

A

3 working days

326
Q

The maximum monthly hours for secondary employment that is enforcement related is what?

A

Per General Orders - 120/ month

Per Contract - 104/ month

327
Q 
What are the disciplinary guidelines for violations of secondary employment hours worked?
1st offense
2nd offense
3rd offense
Subsequent
A

1st - Formal, loss of 10-60 for 7 days
2nd - Level 1 - loss of 10-60 14 days
3rd - Level 2 - loss of 10-60 30 days
Subsequent - Determined by employees chain of command w/ Chief of Community Affairs

328
Q

Cancellations may be made at any time, however if the cancellation is made with less than a 48 hour notice to the officer, scheduler or Secondary Employment Office, _______________will be incurred by the requesting party.

A

a minimum of three hours salary

329
Q

The secondary employment authorization form is required for what 8 situations?

A
  1. Free or reduced rent or other forms of compensation for services
  2. Non-paid volunteer enforcement related jobs
  3. Teaching outside the agency
  4. All non-enforcement related secondary employment
  5. Employees starting/owning a business
  6. Employees providing enforcement related services for a service, allowance or benefit
  7. Consulting services
  8. All schedulers of secondary employment
330
Q

In instances where an officer wishes to volunteer his time in secondary employment that is enforcement related, he must submit a secondary employment authorization form (P-0052). The waiver of any administration fees of use of agency equipment must be approved by who?

A

Director of Patrol and Enforcement or higher

331
Q

How many officers are required to work enforcement related secondary employment at a premises licensed for sale/consumption of alcohol?

A

a minimum of 2
Restricted to L/E action only (can’t be a bouncer)
Under no circumstances will 1 officer be left alone at a business

332
Q

Who can approve secondary employment when an urgent situation arises requiring immediate enforcement related duties and an on-duty presence is not available, appropriate, or necessarily required and the employer is not already in the Secondary Employment database?

A

Watch Commanders
999 -emergency job code
Employee working the job will ensure the paperwork is turned in to Secondary Emp. Unit within 3 working days

333
Q

If an officer is authorize to work secondary employment at a job not in the Secondary Employment database by a Watch Commander, the officer working the job will ensure that the Secondary Employment Application is completed and forwarded to the Secondary Employment Unit within ____________ after
working the job.

A

three working days

334
Q

During secondary employment, a supervisor, the rank of Sergeant or above, is required for every ______ police officers scheduled to work at a specific time and location.

A

5

335
Q

The complete patrol uniform, including body armor, shall be worn during all ___________ secondary employment jobs.

A

Enforcement Related

336
Q

What vehicles are authorize to conduct funeral escorts?

A

Any marked agency vehicle with emergency equipment

337
Q

Only agency employees who have completed __________ are authorized to conduct funeral escorts.

A

agency approved escort instruction course

338
Q

Probationary police officers who have a minimum _______ years of experience at another agency prior to JSO and those with the approval of who can work secondary employment prior to completion of probation.

A

4 years

Director of Patrol and Enforcement

339
Q

An issued jobsite number may be suspended at any time without advance notice, by who, if it is determined that it is not in the best interest of the agency or employees.

A

A Watch Commander

340
Q

When the secondary employment site is down and an officer is unable to log out on a job, all information related to the secondary employment must be entered within _______ hours?

A

within 24 hours

341
Q

A Tactical Action Plan (TAP) shall be utilized for major events when the expected attendance is greater than ________ or _______ or more officers.

A

20,000

50 officers or more

342
Q

Job schedulers pay a flat fee of what for each job they schedule and receive a scheduling fee. By when each month?

A

$15.00/job

10th of the following month

343
Q 
What are the disciplinary guidelines for scheduling fee violations?
1st Offense
2nd Offense
3rd Offense
Subsequent
A

1st - Informal
2nd - Formal
3rd - Level 1 - Loss of 10-60 14 calendar days
Subsequent - Determined by employees chain

344
Q

If an officer/supervisor is paid at a higher rate than all other officers/supervisors working the same job, he is considered what?

A

A Paid Scheduler

345
Q

What are the current Administrative Fees for secondary employment? Traffic related?

A

$5.00/hour

$7.00/hour

346
Q

Confirmation of secondary employment must be done in the secondary employment database by when each month?

A

no later than the 6th of the following month

347
Q 
Failure to validate secondary employment by the 6th of the following month can lead to what discipline/sanctions?
1st Offense
2nd Offense
3rd Offense
Subsequent
A

1st - Informal
2nd - Formal to chain
3rd - Level 1 - Loss of 10-60 for 14 calendar days
Subsequent - Determined by employees chain of command

348
Q

Paid job schedulers shall be limited to scheduling no more than _____ paid jobsites and a total combination of no more than __________ paid sub-sites and sites.

A

3 paid jobsites

9 total sub-sites and sites

349
Q

If an employee is starting their own business he must notify who by what means?

A

Chain of Command

Secondary Employment Authorization Form (P-0052)

350
Q

Personnel engaged in secondary employment are covered by workers compensation and liability indemnity portion of self-insurance when engaged in __________.

A

Authorized enforcement related secondary employment

351
Q

Employees will not engage in secondary employment following sick leave, bereavement leave, IOD, light duty, suspension with or without pay or administrative leave until they have _____________ or ______________.

A

been on regular days off for 2 days or worked 1 day

352
Q

Inventoried property/equipment items are items with an original purchase cost of ________ or more.

A

$1,000 or more

353
Q

What unit is responsible for all inventory functions within the JSO?

A

The Supply Unit

354
Q

All lost property with a value of ____________ or which has ______________, all property damaged through criminal mischief, and all thefts of property will require completion of a General Offense/Incident Report and a Form 4 (P-0004).

A

$1,000.00 or more

a serial number, or other identifying number

355
Q

All other lost or damaged property (no serial#, under $1000, criminal mischief, theft) will be reported on a ___________.

A

Form 4 (P-0004) only

356
Q

An employee who is not satisfied with the way a complaint is handled or who prefers to make the complaint outside of the Sheriff’s Office may take the complaint to the EEOC/Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) Office at City Hall within ______ of occurrence of the alleged act of discrimination or harassment.

A

30 days

357
Q

Should an employee be bitten by anyone, the employee shall do what 3 things?

A
  1. Clean the wound with soap and water ASAP
  2. Report the bite to a supervisor
  3. Obtain routine medical attention ASAP
    The incident must be documented and should include any injury reports for retention in the employee’s medical file
358
Q

In an exposure to bio-hazardous material (blood, feces, urine, saliva, semen, etc.) occurs the following 5 things will be initiated?

A
  1. Clean the exposed area with soap and warm water or approved substitute
  2. Remove contaminated clothing ASAP and place in a biohazard bag
  3. Decontaminate surfaces and equipment
  4. Complete an exposure incident form
  5. Test the source
359
Q

The correct ratio of bleach to water for decontamination purposes is what?

A

1:10 dilution bleach to water

360
Q

If an exposure necessitates medial treatment in addition to an electronic exposure incident report form (p-0038) what must be completed?

A

IOD paperwork

361
Q

If an officer is exposed to bio-hazardous material and the source of the exposure needs to be tested who will obtain the samples from incarcerated inmates?

A

Charge Nurse in Jail

362
Q

If an officer is exposed to bio-hazardous material and the source of the exposure needs to be tested who will obtain the samples from absentee booked suspects?

A

JSO requests the hospital test the suspect

363
Q

If an officer is exposed to bio-hazardous material and the source of the exposure needs to be tested who will obtain the samples from suspects which have deceased?

A

JSO requests the Medical examiner test the suspect

364
Q

If an officer is exposed to bio-hazardous material and the source of the exposure needs to be tested who will obtain the samples from victims?

A

The infection control nurse requests the hospital treating the victim test the victim

365
Q

If an officer is exposed to bio-hazardous material and the source of the exposure needs to be tested who will obtain the samples from a victim of an accident that dies?

A

JSO Occupational Nurse requests the Medical Examiner test the victim

366
Q

If an officer who has been tested for bio-hazardous exposure, receives notification of positive HIV test, the officer must do what?

A

go to the closest initial treatment site or ER (from the authorized workers compensation list) to start prophylactic treatment.

367
Q

If an officer is exposed to bio-hazardous material, the officer or another available member must do what?

A

Notify officer’s supervisor immediately and complete an Electronic Exposure Incident Report Form (P-0038).
employee.

368
Q

Once the Electronic Exposure Incident Report Form is completed it will generate an e-mail to who notifying them of the incident?

A

The supervisor of the exposed employee
The Infection Control Nurse
The Occupational Manager

369
Q

Once an Electronic Exposure Incident Form is completed, who is responsible for documenting the corresponding section of the form in a timely manner, documenting the date and time the labs were done and lab results were communicated to the exposed?

A

The Infection Control Nurse

370
Q

How often will ALL employees receive refresher training in biohazard/communicable disease/universal precautions, etc?

A

Annually

371
Q

E-mails sent/received on the JSO system deemed to be personal by their authors are understood to be the property of who?

A

The JSO

372
Q

E-mail is provided for business use. The e-mail systems may be used for incidental personal purposes provided that such use does not do what 3 things?

A
  1. Directly or indirectly interfere with e-mail services;
  2. Burden the JSO with noticeable incremental cost; or
  3. Interfere with a user’s employment or other obligations to the Sheriff’s Office.
373
Q

Email messages initiated by JSO users should include what?

A

a “signature” line containing their name, title, and office phone number

374
Q

E-mail messages determined to be records shall be managed in accordance with state and local regulations pertaining to adequacy of documentation, record keeping requirements, records management responsibilities, and records disposition. This responsibility falls to who?

A

the sender and receiver of such e-mail documents

375
Q

Wireless Laptop users shall not access any unauthorized links that are not specifically designated on the Laptop Home page unless authorized by who?

A

the Laptop Unit Supervisor

376
Q

JSO users should be aware that they have no what while using any COJ or JSO provided access to the Intranet or Internet.

A

expectation of privacy

377
Q

Damages to the laptop caused by _________, ________ or _______ will result in an officer reimbursing the City for the cost of repairs in accordance with current employee contracts.

A

abuse, carelessness, or negligence

378
Q

When a transfer is pending, the Laptop Office must be notified _________ or __________ of an immediate transfer.

A

before the transfer or within 24-hours

379
Q

An employee who has a personally assigned desktop computer (that no one else uses) may also have what?

A

one issued Laptop computer

380
Q

A full back up of all data files stored on the appropriate JSO servers is performed how frequently?

A

on a weekly basis

381
Q

Passwords on the JSO network are electronically prompted to change how often?

A

every 90 days

382
Q

The overall Respiratory Protection Program will be administered by __________ through the Sheriff’s Office Wellness Program.

A

The Sheriff’s Office Safety Officer

383
Q

All breathing air (supplied or self-contained) will comply with air quality standards and will be what grade or better?

A

Grade D or better.

384
Q

Supervisors will ensure that individually assigned respiratory protection devices are inspected, at least, how often and documented on a Form-4 and forwarded to the JSO Safety Officer.

A

Quarterly

385
Q

Supervisors are responsible for informing _________ of all employees who are either temporarily or permanently unable to wear respiratory protective equipment due to medical reasons.

A

the Sheriff’s Office Safety Officer

386
Q

Respiratory protective devices are classified into two main types, Air-Purifying and Atmosphere-Supplying. Which type can only be used against contaminants that have good warning properties (smell, taste, irritation)?

A

Air Purifying

387
Q

A respirator equipped with a face piece shall not be worn if facial hair interferes with the sealing periphery of the face piece or if facial hair interferes with valve function. If facial hair does interfere with the fit, ___________.

A

the facial hair will be removed.

388
Q

When an officer cannot receive a proper fit that prevents the officer from wearing a respirator, the officer will notify ___________.

A

his watch commander

389
Q

Attendance at debriefings, defusings, demobilizations, and other crisis intervention techniques provided by the CISM Program are mandatory for those involved and/or strongly affected by a critical incident. Any exceptions must be approved by ______________, in writing.

A

an Assistant Chief or higher authority

390
Q

When an employee is involved in a critical incident, administrative leave with pay may be granted by ____________.

A

an Assistant Chief or higher authority

391
Q

Any officer whose use of force results in a death or serious bodily harm shall be removed from the line duty assignment, pending administrative review of the incident. The duration of the Administrative Leave granted to an employee for a line-of-duty incident will be determined by______________.

A

the appropriate Director or higher authority

392
Q

The Communications Center shall notify the on call CISM Team Members immediately of what 5 circumstances?

A
  1. Line of duty shootings of or by any JSO employee;
  2. Death or serious injury to a Sheriff’s Office employee;
  3. Any major incident resulting in serious injury or loss of life (aircraft, railroad, school bus, etc).
  4. Any termination of an employee of the JSO involving the Internal Affairs Unit; and
  5. Any other serious incident where the CISM program would be of assistance.
393
Q

When information concerning a employees mental or physical health is relevant, the supervisor shall not request information from CISIM or EAP. Requests shall be forwarded to who?

A

Chief of Personnel

394
Q

The Integrity/SIU, through its commanding officers, reports directly to who?

A

The Sheriff

395
Q

The Integrity/SIU is organized into two components, what are they?

A

Integrity Investigations

Special Criminal Investigations

396
Q

This component of the Integrity/SIU conducts investigations into allegations of criminal behavior
by Sheriff’s Office or City of Jacksonville employees.

A

Integrity

397
Q

This component of the Integrity/SIU conducts investigations into Human Trafficking; Murder for Hire; Extortion; Food Tampering; Police Impersonators; Stalking (if the suspect is unknown);Threatening/
Harassing/Obscene Phone Calls (if the suspect is
unknown); Threats against Jacksonville Sheriff’s Office (JSO) employees and Judicial Officers (including Judges and Attorneys employed by the State Attorney’s Office (SAO); Non-Traditional Organized Crime (not terrorist related); and Declared Arson Incidents (Investigative Liaison with the Florida State Fire Marshal’s Office).

A

Special Criminal Investigations

398
Q

Should members of the Sheriff’s Office become aware of corruption allegations, those members shall contact either ____________ or _____________.

A

their immediate supervisor or the Integrity/Special Investigations Unit directly.

399
Q

Final Classification of all Integrity/SIU cases will be in one of 5 Categories. What are they?

A
  1. Unfounded – The allegation had no merit;
  2. Exonerated (Criminally) – The incident occurred, Not against the law. Forwarded to the Internal Affairs Unit..
  3. Investigation Suspended – All investigative leads have been exhausted. The case will remain suspended until further information is received;
  4. Arrest made – An arrest was made based upon the corruption investigation;
  5. Exceptionally cleared – Probable cause was established; however the case was not prosecuted. Typically, forwarded to the Internal Affairs Unit.
400
Q

Who may authorize release of criminal investigative information based in the Sensitive classification level?

A

Commanding officer or designee

401
Q

Who may authorize release of criminal investigative information based in the Confidential classification level?

A

Commanding officer or designee

402
Q

Who may authorize release of criminal investigative information based in the Restricted classification level?

A

Integrity/SIU Investigators

403
Q

Integrity/SIU will be called/notified 24 hours a day when police are called to what 8 incidents?

A
  1. JSO employee arrested, accused or involved in an incident of criminal behavior.
  2. Human Trafficking w/ victim present
  3. Police Impersonators (suspect known)
  4. Murder for Hire
  5. Extortion
  6. Food Tampering
  7. Stalking
  8. Declared Arsons (pattern, large commercial building, loss over $1 million, church or school)
404
Q

Video Remote Interpreting (VRI) is a 24/7 service that provides ASL interpretation by video. JSO has 8 units. Where are they located?

A
  1. PMB Security Desk
  2. PTDF
  3. All 6 substations
405
Q

Who maintains a roster of support agencies who may be contacted 24 hrs a day to provide support in situations involving people with disabilities?

A

The Communications Center

406
Q

When the representative of the responding support agency expresses safety concerns about responding to the requested location, whose responsibility is it to ensure that service is provided?

A

The primary officer handling the call

407
Q

Involuntary behavior associated with some non-visible disabilities may resemble behavior characteristically exhibited by intoxicated, combative persons or someone not in control of their physical functions. If necessary, officers should do what?

A

examine the individual to ascertain whether or not the person is wearing a medic alert bracelet or has some other visible identifying device which would describe a medical disability

408
Q

Appropriate Auxiliary aids and services include what?

A

Written materials, note pads and qualified interpreters

409
Q

Any person, firm or corporation, etc. who denies on interferes with the admittance to, or enjoyment of the public, or interferes with the rights of a deaf person, blind person or trainer of a service animal is guilty of what degree offense?

A

2nd Degree Misdemeanor

410
Q

In what 2 situations is a business not required to accommodate a service animal?

A

When doing so would result in fundamental alteration of the nature of the business
Vicious Animal

411
Q

A person who, with reckless disregard, interferes with, or permits a dog that he or she owns or is in the immediate control of to interfere with, the use of a service animal by obstructing, intimidating, or otherwise jeopardizing the safety of the service animal or its user commits what degree offense? Second and Subsequent Offenses?

A

First - 2nd Degree Misdemeanor

Subsequent - 1st Degree Misdemeanor

412
Q

A person who, with reckless disregard, injures or kills, or permits a dog that he or she owns or is in the immediate control of to injure or kill, a service animal commits a what degree offense?

A

1st Degree Misdemeanor

413
Q

A person who intentionally injures or kills, or permits a dog that he or she owns or is in the immediate control of to injure or kill, a service animal commits what degree offense?

A

3rd Degree Felony

414
Q

When a detective requires an interpreter for a prearranged interview/interrogation, special event or meeting, he must contact PSD _________ in advance of the meeting whenever possible.

A

48 hours

415
Q

If communication with a deaf person is by writing, all documents produced shall be handled as _____________?

A

evidence, and placed in the property room

416
Q

Who is the JSO emergency preparedness coordinator?

A

Commanding Officer of the FTO/Emergency Preparedness Unit

417
Q

What are the 5 major functional areas of ICS?

A 
Administration
Operations
Logistics
Planning
Finance and Administration
418
Q

The principal planner and advisor to the Sheriff on critical incidents involving JSO is who?

A

Chief of Homeland Security

419
Q

What are the 5 phases of NIMS incident management?

A 
Prevention
Preparedness
Response
Recovery
Mitigation
420
Q

NIMS incidents are classified into 5 types. From most serious/complex to least serious/complex they are Type 1 - Type 5. This type incident requires national resources and is run by an EOC.

A

Type 1

421
Q

A Type 4 NIMS incident/event is when several resources are required to mitigate the incident and the incident is usually limited to one operational period. Type 4 incidents that require whose response?

A

a Watch Commander

422
Q

A what type NIMS incident/event extends beyond the capabilities of the initial response and the incident may extend into multiple operational periods. This incident/event would typically involve the call up of additional departmental or City of Jacksonville resources.

A

Type 3

423
Q

A what type NIMS incident/event extends beyond the capabilities for local control and is expected to go into multiple operational periods. This incident/event may require the response of resources out of the area,
including regional and/or national resources to manage effectively the operations, command, and general staffing.

A

Type 2

424
Q

What level/type NIMS event requires a watch commander’s response and documentation using an ICS 201 Form?

A

Type 4

425
Q

ICS is organized into 2 groupings, Command Staff and General Staff. What are the sections within each group?

A

Command: Incident Commander, Safety Officer, Liaison Officer, Public Information Officer
General: Operations, Logistics, Planning, Finance & Administration

426
Q

Incident Command can establish a sixth functional area based on the requirement of the situation at hand. This area is what?

A

Intelligence

427
Q

Family Members shall not be used to translate if a call/incident is what?

A

criminal in nature

428
Q

If an officer needs a face to face translator how far in advance should he notify PSD?

A

48 hours

429
Q

All discharge of firearm incidents (outside of training) will be reviewed by the RTR Board’s Chairperson (Director of Investigations and Homeland Security) to determine if the full Board will review the incident (some
incidents may be exempted from review such as __________.)

A

shooting injured animals

430
Q

The RTR Board Chairman shall review any incident where response to resistance upon any individual results in __________ or anytime a JSO member discharges their firearm, as part of their official duties; at another person; ________________________.

A

death or great bodily harm

whether or not the person was struck by the gunfire.

431
Q

Blocking and PIT are considered what?

A

An application of force

432
Q

If the Board believes an officer may have violated JSO policy by their actions or inaction, the Board will
recommend to the Sheriff that the incident be ________.

A

be administratively investigated by the Internal Affairs Unit.

433
Q

Officers and supervisors will be required to obtain medical evaluations from the Jacksonville Fire and Rescue Department (JFRD), nurse at the Pretrial Detention Facility (PDF), as soon as possible or practical, for individuals if any of the following 4 factors are present.

A
  1. Suspect shows signs of an injury as a result of the use of force
  2. Suspect complains about any injury as a result of for being applied
  3. Suspect becomes unconscious during or following the use of force
  4. Anytime an officer/supervisor feels an individual is in need of an evaluation due to use of force
434
Q

Failure to obey verbal commands is considered what type of resistance?

A

Passive resistance

435
Q

When may an officer use an instrument or object that is no necessarily designed for such use or one with which the officers may not have been trained or certified to use, as long as it is used in accordance with the limitation on force contained within the RTR?

A

In order to protect the officer or others

436
Q

Deadly force may be used in what circumstances?

A
  1. When the officer reasonably believes that such force is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to themselves or another person;
  2. To apprehend a fleeing felon only when: there is PC to believe the person fleeing committed a violent felony which involved the infliction or threatened infliction of great bodily harm or death; and
    b. The officer reasonably believes that the use of deadly force is necessary to prevent escape; and
    c. The officer reasonably believes the failure to immediately apprehend the fleeing person will place the officer, another law enforcement officer, or any other person in imminent danger of death or great bodily harm.
437
Q

If feasible, prior to the use of deadly force, officers shall, give some warning of the possible use of deadly force, unless ____________.

A

to do so would jeopardize the safety of the officer or any other person.

438
Q

Firearms shall not be discharged at or from a moving vehicle except what 3 circumstances?

A
  1. As a last resort when all other opportunities have been exhausted, to prevent death or great bodily harm to the officer or another person
  2. As a last resort to prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who poses an imminent threat of death or great bodily harm to the officer or another person
  3. When authorized by a Watch Commander or higher authority
439
Q

Should an officer take an action that results in, or is alleged to have resulted in, serious injury or death of another person, the officer and responding supervisors
will not complete the reports directly involved with the incident, however, they may be required to complete Supplemental Reports as necessary. Who will complete the report?

A

JSO Homicide/Cold Case team

440
Q

First line supervisors are responsible for what when there is an application of non-deadly force?

A

Ensuring officers properly document qualifying incidents when deploying non-deadly force and reviewing the reports

441
Q

If the supervisor is at the scene when a response to resistance is required, they will be held accountable for what?

A

controlling the actions of the officers engaged in the

application of force

442
Q

Officers will not intentionally strike anyone with an

intermediate weapon on the _____, ____, and _____ unless the circumstance justifies the use of deadly force.

A

head, neck, and clavicle

443
Q

Anytime an officer uses an intermediate weapon on or against an individual, the officer will check back on the original call for service using the disposition code
_____ in the primary disposition block. What reports are completed? What about witnesses?

A

‘RTR’
Armor RTR report
RTR Witness report

444
Q

Prior to the use of Chemical Munitions what 2 conditions must be met?

A
  1. Officer must have legal authority to take the person into custody (PC, 99 or Baker Act) or person already lawfully confined in a DOC facility
    and
  2. The officer is justified in the use of non-deadly force to the degree set forth in this order.
445
Q

What is the approved distance for use of the MK3 chemical munitions?

A

3 feet

446
Q

What is the approved distance for use of the MK9 chemical munitions?

A

6 feet

447
Q

Chemical Munitions will not be used on who?

A

A person secured by handcuffed;

unless overtly assaultive behavior that can’t be dealt with in any other less obtrusive fashion

448
Q

Anytime a person is exposed to a chemical agent, as soon as possible, the person will be ____________.

A
  1. Escorted to an uncontaminated area
  2. Exposed to Fresh Air
  3. Allowed to flush contaminated body areas with water
449
Q

Personnel utilizing hand held aerosol chemical munitions will notify who as soon as it is practical.

A

their immediate supervisor

450
Q

All incidents involving exposure to a chemical agent will be checking back on the original call using what code?
What reports are written? Witnesses?

A

RTR
Documented on an Armor RTR report
Witnesses in an RTR witness report

451
Q

Is an RTR report required for exposure of chemical agents to animals?

A

Yes

RTR witness report of witnesses

452
Q

Anytime chemical agents are used on an inmate or person that has been arrested, the details will be documented in the arrest and booking or corrections incident report. Personnel at the PDF will be notified to allow the arrestee a chance to ___________.

A

shower

453
Q

Use of specialty impact weapons may occur after other options to control or apprehend a suspect have been exhausted and the suspect has resisted with a minimum what level resistance?

A

Active Physical Resistance

454
Q

All injuries to persons struck by specialty impact weapons will be photographed by who?

A

Crime Scene Detective or on-duty supervisor

455
Q

Qualified medical personnel will inspect all persons struck by specialty impact weapons for injury. Those persons not transported by rescue will be taken where by the reporting officer?

A

UF health ER for examination

456
Q

What is the proper report to complete when a CEW is unholstered, displayed and then compliance is gained?

A

No RTR needed, documented in narrative of general

457
Q

What is the proper report to complete when a CEW is unholstered, displayed and armed and pointed at the suspect then compliance is gained? (Red Dot Compliance)

A

No RTR needed, documented in narrative of general

458
Q

What is the proper report to complete when a CEW is deployed in probe or stun mode and then compliance is gained?

A

RTR

RTR witness report for witnesses

459
Q

Prior to the use of a CEW the following conditions must be met.

A
  1. Officer must have legal authority to take the person into custody;
  2. The suspect must be at a minimum exhibiting active physical resistance; AND
  3. Suspect has an apparent ability to be a physical threat to the officer or others; OR
  4. The person is preparing to or attempting to flee to resist or avoid being taken into custody
460
Q

What is the optimal distance for CEW deployment?

A

7-10 feet from the tip of the CEW

461
Q

Each re-application of the CEW must be in response to active physical resistance and ___________ must be communicated in the RTR report specifically as the cause for initial use.

A

justification for each subsequent application

462
Q

Officers will use a CEW the least number of cycles and for the shortest duration of time necessary to ___________ and __________.

A

end the resistance and gain compliance

463
Q

The CEW will not be deployed on a domestic animal except when?

A

in a preplanned tactical situation where a confined animal poses a threat to officers

464
Q

When a CEW is going to be used against a domestic animal in a preplanned tactical incident, whose approval is needed?

A

Lieutenant or higher

465
Q

What are the 8 situations where use of CEW requires greater justification?

A
  1. Presence of flammable liquid
  2. Elevated positions
  3. Operating a moving vehicle or machine
  4. Person Running
  5. Pregnant female
  6. Near/in a swimming pool or other body of water
  7. Frail/Infirm individuals
  8. Children, restrained subjects, passive subjects and senior citizens
466
Q

Officers who respond to calls for service inside a school building during regular school hours are authorized to deploy their CEW against a person known or reasonably believed to be a student on when_________________.

A

The officer is justified in the use of deadly force

This does not apply to extracurricular events, parking lots, and other property around the school

467
Q

Once a person who has been impacted by a CEW is handcuffed and in custody officers will requires ___________ and request _________________.

A

request their immediate supervisor or on-duty supervisor respond and
request rescue respond to the scene to examine the subject

468
Q

Medical personnel will remove probes located where?

A

Sensitive areas (face, neck, groin, female’s breast, tops and bottoms of hands and feet)

469
Q

The probes, expended air cartridge and afids will be collected and maintained as evidence in the property and evidence facility if the incident is _________ or _______ is alleged?

A

non-routine or a serious injury is alleged

470
Q

What is the proper report to write if a CEW is deployed intentionally at a person or animal whether the target was struck or not?

A

RTR report in Armor

471
Q

What is the proper report to write if a CEW is deployed accidentally and a person or animal is struck?

A

RTR report in Armor

472
Q

What is the proper report to write if a CEW is deployed accidentally and no animal or person is struck?

A

Form -4

473
Q

Anytime a person intentionally deploys a CEW at a person or animal whether the person or animal is struck or not the officer will check back using what code?

A

RTR report in Armor

474
Q

Officers may discharge their firearm to kill a seriously injured or dangerous animals when another disposition is impractical or other means have failed. What must occur to do this?

A

A supervisor’s approval. Supervisor will respond and complete a RTR report in Armor and check back using RTR checkback. This will not be delegated to a lesser authority.

475
Q

When an animal is shot after approval, the RTR report will be forwarded for review to ___________ and _________. The officer shooting the animal will complete what? Witnesses?

A

the Zone AC and Division Chief
RTR supplement Report
RTR witness Report
The supervisor will notify NCIC to have the Animal Control pick up the animal. No ET is needed.

476
Q

When an officer accidentally discharges a firearm (other than at the range) without causing injury to another person, who will respond and what reports are generated? Check back code?
Witnesses?

A

The Zone Watch Commander (Lieutenant) of the area where the incident occurred
Zone Watch Commander will complete the RTR (will not be delegated to a lesser authority)
Check back code RTR.
Forwarded to A/C and Division Chief for review

477
Q

Who investigates an accidental discharge when someone is shot?

A

Homicide Cold Case

478
Q

Who investigates an accidental discharge when at the range or in training and there are no injuries?

A

Range Personnel - Treated as training issue

479
Q

Unless aggravating circumstances exist, agency members must __________ prior to using deadly force against an aggressive animal, and must document such efforts.

A

use non-deadly options

480
Q

When an officer discharges a firearm at an animal, who will respond and do what?
What does the officer complete?

A

Zone Watch Commander (Lieutenant) where the incident occurred.
He will conduct an investigation, complete RTR report (no diagram) and check back using RTR.
The officer will complete a RTR witness report

481
Q

Homicide Cold Case will respond and investigate in what 4 circumstances?

A
  1. A member of JSO intentionally discharges a firearm at a person while acting in the capacity of a JSO employee
  2. Anytime a member of JSO accidentally discharges a firearm resulting in a person being shot
  3. Anytime a member of JSO takes action against another person that results in death or life threating injury while acting in the capacity of JSO
  4. Anytime an officer is killed, shot or life threatening injury is inflicted by criminal means
482
Q

Anytime the Homicide/Cold Case Team responds to an incident, who shall respond and ensure the scene is secure. A patrol supervisors will be required to do what?

A

the patrol watch commander

complete a major case addendum

483
Q

If the Homicide/Cold Case Team responds, who is responsible for completing the original offense report?

A

Homicide Cold Case Team or designated Homicide Team at the direction of the Homicide Unit Commander.

484
Q

In cases where Homicide/Cold Case Team responds, what reports will the witness and responding officer complete? By when?

A

Witness officer and Responding Officers will complete a major case addendum before the end of their shift

485
Q

The Homicide/Cold Case team will obtain the primary officer’s statement. The primary officer(s) involved may request ________ or ____________ prior to making any statement. Notwithstanding the request for counsel, a primary officer is required to provide information specifically, narrowly, and directly related to their official duties. This may include identifying suspects, witnesses, evidence, or other officer(s) involved.

A

legal counsel or Fraternal Order of Police (FOP) representation

486
Q

In incidents involving an intentional discharge of a firearm, the RTR Report in ARMOR will be prepared by __________ or _________ , at the direction of the Homicide Unit Commander.

A

the Homicide/Cold Case team or other designated Homicide team
Homicide/Cold Case Team will check back using RTR code

487
Q

RTR reports for incidents involving accidental discharge of a firearm (other than at the range) without causing injury to a person will be completed by who?

A

Zone Watch Commander (Lieutenant) by the end of his shift

488
Q

All weapons discharged by an officer in an officer involved incident will be retained as evidence. An ET will collect the weapon for processing. A temporary replacement will be provided from where if it is a handgun? Rifle?

A

Handguns - provided from the Cold Case Inventory

Rifles - instructed to make arrangements with the JSO firing range for temporary replacement

489
Q

Prior to returning to full duty status. Any officer who is issued a replacement service firearm due to a RTR incident will report where to do what?
Upon notification that the officer’s service weapon can be returned, what will the officer do?

A

Report to the range to test fire the weapon
Report to the range, retrieve his firearm, sign in the loaner and leave it at the range, test fire his weapon prior to leaving.

490
Q

A Blue Alert can be issued under what 4 criteria?

A
  1. A law enforcement officer must have been seriously injured or killed by an offender(s) or is missing while in the line of duty under circumstances evidencing concern for the law enforcement officer’s safety;
  2. The investigating law enforcement agency must determine that the offender(s) poses a serious risk to the public or to other law enforcement officers and dissemination of available information to the public may help avert further harm or assist in the apprehension of the suspect;
  3. A detailed description of the offender’s vehicle or other means of escape, including vehicle tag or partial tag, must be available for broadcast to the public; and
  4. The local law enforcement agency of jurisdiction must recommend issuing the Blue Alert.
491
Q

Who is responsible for activations of the Blue Alert at JSO?

A

Homicide Cold Case Sergeant or designee

492
Q

When an officer takes some action against another person that results in death or life threatening injuries what guidelines will be followed? (5 things)

A
  1. The officer is placed on Administrative leave the rest of the work cycle
  2. The officer is placed on Temporary Limited Duty pending review by the Sheriff
  3. The officer shall not wear a uniform, drive take home vehicle, perform 10-60, use police powers until returned full duty
  4. Undergo a “Return to Duty Assessment”
  5. Sheriff or his designee will review the results of the “Return to Duty Assessment” along with pertinent investigative materials related to the incident and make a decision on the officer’s duty status
493
Q

Who can decide whether an officer can return to full duty status after deadly force RTR incident?

A

The Sheriff or his designee

494
Q

The supervisor shall review the officer’s RTR Report and ensure it is promptly routed through the on-duty chain of command by when _____________, unless exigent circumstances exist and are also documented in the RTR Report.

A

prior to the end of the officer’s shift

495
Q

What weapons are allowed to be carried into a JSO detention facility?

A

OC and CEW

496
Q

What are the authorized expandable batons for use by JSO Officers? Field Force?

A

Monadnock 22” or 26” expandable baton

Field Force - 36” straight Monadnock (used only in riot/crowd control)

497
Q

Officers issued a CEW may elect not to carry their baton on their belt; however they must have it where?

A

In their assigned vehicle and easily accessible

498
Q

The authorized hand held aerosol chemical munitions for use by individual JSO officers is what?

A

Defense Technology MK-3

499
Q

After receiving training in the use of the Defense Technology MK-9 who is authorized to carry it?

A

Patrol supervisors (Sergeant and Lieutenant)

500
Q

While in uniform or BDU, authorized agency members below what rank will carry the authorized chemical munitions on his duty belt,

A

Lieutenant

501
Q

Gas weapons shall only be used by a skilled officer trained in their use and with the prior approval of who?

A

SWAT commander, field force commander, patrol watch commander or higher authority

502
Q

The only CEW that agency members may use/carry after receiving training is?

A

X26 Advanced Taser

503
Q

Optimal range of the CEW is ___________ from the tip of the cartridge to the suspect.

A

7-10 feet

504
Q

CEW use history will be downloaded when?

A

Quarterly or at the supervisors discretion

505
Q

CEW downloads will be part of the supervisors quarterly inspections of their personnel and will be documented where?

A

On the vehicle inspection form

506
Q

Personnel equipped with a CEW will test the CEW (air cartridge detached) when? At least when?

A

at the beginning of each shift or at least every 5 days during days off

507
Q

If due to spark test issues a CEW is determined to be defective where should the CEW be turned in to obtain a new CEW?

A

Supply

508
Q

When a CEW battery shows what power level, it should be taken to supply for a replacement?

A

20 percent or less

509
Q

While in uniform or BDU, members who successfully completed CEW training must carry the CEW. Members with the rank of ________ have the option of wearing their CEW while on duty.

A

Lieutenant or higher

510
Q

The CEW shall be worn where on the duty belt or tactical vest?

A

non-dominant side in a cross draw position.

511
Q

What is required to obtain a replacement CEW air cartridge?

A

A report documenting CEW use signed by a supervisor or
In A/D situations or damaged air cartridge - a signed e-mail by a supervisor
either/or taken to supply for replacement (property room if supply is closed)

512
Q

Officers that experience a CEW malfunction will send an e-mail to who and copy the supply unit, indicating the CEW model, serial # and how it malfunctioned. The officer will then do what?

A

their supervisor

remove the CEW from service and report to supply for a replacement

513
Q

Cruiser ready for firearms is the required condition for storage for JSO shoulder weapons in vehicles. What is cruiser ready for the rifle? Shotgun?

A

Rifle - safety on, no rounds in the chamber, bolt locked forward, magazine in the magazine well.
Shotgun - safety on, action forward and locked, 4 shells in the tube, empty chamber.

514
Q

The authority for reserve officers to carry an off duty firearm is limited to where, and what must be carried anytime an off-duty firearm is carried?

A

Duval County

JSO ID card

515
Q

What are the officially recognized handgun types of JSO?

A

Glock 9mm and .40 caliber semi-automatic with 8lb trigger pull and standard magazine
and
.38 and .357 caliber revolvers approved by the range master

516
Q

What weapons are authorized as a primary handgun for non-uniform sworn employees and staff?

A

Glock model 23 or 27

517
Q

What handgun is the authorized primary handgun for on-duty use by uniformed employees?

A

Glock Model 22 or 35

518
Q

All members shall carry a Sheriff’s Office authorized handgun as their primary handgun while in uniform or in plain clothes unless otherwise approved by __________.

A

a Director or higher authority.

519
Q

All sworn police (Lt and below), judicial officers, sworn bailiffs, armed security guards and reserves must qualify how often? All others?

A

Every 6 months

At least annually

520
Q

How often do sworn police Assistant Chief and have to qualify?

A

At least annually

521
Q

What happens when an officer fails to re-qualify with his primary weapon?

A

The officer is immediately placed on temporary-limited duty (loss of authority to carry weapon, loss of take home vehicle, loss of 10-60)

522
Q

What happens when an officer fails to re-qualify with his assigned rifle or shotgun?

A

Weapon removed from the officer and stored at the range until proven proficiency

523
Q

Members who initially fail to re-qualify but later successfully re-qualify with their primary weapon will be placed on what as determined by the range master and the member’s supervisor?

A

Firearm proficiency plan

524
Q

Officers desiring to carry a non-issued, alternative primary firearm, backup handgun, rifle or shotgun will complete a _____________ to be forwarded up the chain of command to who at a minimum?

A

Firearms authorization form

Their Division Chief

525
Q

JSO vehicles not equipped with an enclosed trunk will be equipped with what for storage of firearms?

A

A firearm lockbox permanently attached to the vehicle

526
Q

Rifles will only be stored in vehicles equipped with what?

A

A vehicle alarm and cable lock

527
Q

When off-duty and operating their assigned JSO vehicle in civilian clothing or as a passenger in a JSO vehicle all sworn officers will do what?

A

have their JSO issued or approved handgun available

528
Q

Narcotics/Vice, Intelligence, Juvenile Intervention, Career Criminal, or Criminal Apprehension Unit personnel wishing to carry alternative primary weapons must be approved by who?

A

Director of Investigations and Homeland Security

529
Q

The official JSO issued shotgun is what?

A

Remington 870, 12 guage with 18”-21” barrel

530
Q

The official JSO issued rifle is what?

A

AR-15, 5.56mm caliber, with 16” barrel, adjustable stock and tactical sling

531
Q

How many hours of training is required before a rifle will be issued?

A

a minimum of 32 hours

532
Q

How many rounds will be loaded into a 30 round rifle magazine? 20 round?

A

28

18

533
Q

Only ammunition authorized by the JSO range master will be authorized for all shoulder weapons. All ammunition must be ___________.

A

.223 Federal 55 grain, boat tail, hollow point (T223E)

534
Q

The approved tactical firearm flashlight for Glock pistols are the ________ type flashlights that attach to the factory rails on Glock pistols.

A

M3

535
Q

What are the stipulations for using the M3 tactical flashlight on Glock pistols? Does this apply to long guns?

A

The light shall not be added/removed during the shift while on duty.
Does not apply to long guns

536
Q

The tactical firearm flashlight will not be used for what? Instead a handheld flashlight will be used.

A

Routine searches

537
Q

Magazine extensions are not authorized for the Glock 22. Officers carrying the _________ are authorized the addition of the magazine finger groove extension for grip purposes only.

A

23 or 27

538
Q

Are laser aiming devices for firearms allowed during normal patrol or investigative operations?

A

No

539
Q

Who maintains a list of approved optics which may be purchased at the officer’s expense for use on rifles?

A

JSO range master

540
Q

Officers may carry/wear their weapons in circuit/county courts except what 2 circumstances?

A
  1. The judge in a particular case rules that weapons shall not be worn (applies only to that trial)
  2. The officer is a part or defendant in a case
541
Q

JSO officers may wear their weapons in the Duval County Courthouse or its courts located elsewhere when?

A

They are conducting official business

542
Q

Can officers wear their weapon inside the US Federal Courthouse or other Federal Judicial Facilities?

A

No, it cant be worn, carried or displayed

Left in a secure firearm locker

543
Q

Unless authorized by the officer in charge, weapons are not allowed to be carried into any state, county or municipal detention facility per FMJS. The exception to this prohibition is what?

A

In an emergency situation and even then only when authorized by the officer in charge

544
Q

The Director of corrections has authorized _________ to be carried inside of the JSO detention facility by who?

A

OC and CEW

Certified officers trained in their use

545
Q

State Statutes prohibit the introduction of firearms or deadly weapons into any mental health facility. An exception is what?

A

In an emergency situation and even then only when authorized by the officer in charge of the hospital

546
Q

When not involved in police action, reserve officers shall not carry their firearms where?

A

Into an establishment that serves alcoholic beverages as its main source of income

547
Q

Sheriff’s Office employees are prohibited from carrying a firearm while _________________ or ________________ which impairs the employee’s dexterity or judgment.

A

consuming or under the influence of an alcoholic beverage, or under the influence of a drug or medication

548
Q

Sworn officers wishing to carry a concealed firearm in any state under the Federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act (FLEOSA) must meet what 4 criteria?

A
  1. Must be a qualified Active Officer
  2. Must follow state restrictions on firearms
  3. Must have JSO ID card on his person
  4. Must comply with all JSO directives on firearms
549
Q

For an officer that is retired to be eligible to carry a concealed weapon under the FLEOSA he must have prior to separation served how many years?

A

10 years or more

550
Q

When off-duty, all weapons will be stored in the vehicle’s locked trunk, secured by _______ , or secured where.

A

an issued cable lock (not through trigger guard)

inside the member’s residence

551
Q

No firearm will be left where when an employee is off duty?

A

unattended in the passenger compartment of the vehicle

552
Q

Rifles will not be left unattended in vehicles not equipped with what?

A

An alarm

553
Q

The authorized restraints issued by JSO are?

A

Double Locking Hhandcuffs
The Hobble Restraint Device
Plastic Handcuffs
Disposable Spit Masks

554
Q

What are other alternative restraints also authorized for use (used primarily by the Fugitive Unit, Courts and Dept of Corrections).

A

Leather body straps, belly chains, lead chains, leg braces, leg irons, ankle chains, waist chains, soft helmet, and restraint chairs

555
Q

Restraints will not be used for what?

A

punishment

556
Q

Double locking handcuffs and case as issued by JSO shall be carried by who?

A

All sworn officers, reserve officers, uniformed security guards, and correction personnel in uniform and sworn plain clothes personnel who handle prisoners

557
Q

Handcuffs will be what type/style?

A

Peerless or Smith and Wesson, hinged or chain steel cuffs, that fit the same key issued by JSO. Standard manufacture color (black, silver or gray)

558
Q

Once a subject is in restraints the shall be placed on their side back or seated position as soon as possible. No person will be left in ______________ longer than necessary for officer safety.

A

A prone restraint position

559
Q

Handcuffs will be used in _________ and during the handling and transporting of all prisoners already in
custody. In addition to arrest situations, members should use handcuffs in __________.

A

ALL physical arrests both misdemeanor and felony (male and female)
any case when the member has reason to believe handcuffs are needed

560
Q

When handcuffs are used in what manner should they be applied?

A

Double locked, behind prisoners back, palms turned outward

561
Q

What is the current handcuffing method technique taught at the training academy? What are the two methods? When do you use each?

A

Speedcuffing
Standing or Kneeling
Standing - low risk compliant subjects
Kneeling - unknown risk situations or limited space

562
Q

What handcuffing technique is used for high risk and/or non-compliant subjects?

A

Prone handcuffing techniques

563
Q

Under no circumstances will a prisoner be handcuffed or manacled where?

A

to the inside of a vehicle

564
Q

The “hobble restraint” will be used on prisoners whose violent behavior is likely to do what?

A

cause injury to themselves, others or cause property damage

565
Q

In extreme cases when the hobble restraint system proves to be ineffective and only as a last resort, the leg restraint may be used to join the prisoners arms and feet. This method is called what and what is required to use it?

A

TAR- Total Appendage Restraint

Supervisor must be notified

566
Q

When using/applying one piece restraints (four point restraints) what is the proper order of applying the cuffs? When removing?

A

Applying -Handcuffs in front then leg irons to feet,

Removing - Leg irons then handcuffs

567
Q

How long is the react BANDIT electrical impulse cycle?

A

8 seconds

568
Q

Unauthorized use of social media involves what 2 things?

A
  1. Using JSO equipment or resources to engage in social media activities; unless authorized by supervisor or in official duties
  2. Engaging in Social Media Activities while on duty.
569
Q

Employees who are brought under administrative or internal investigations related to the their performance, conduct, functionality or duties may be ordered to do what?

A

provide the agency or investigator access to the social medial and/or social networking sites they participate in or maintain

570
Q

According to FMLA Active Duty Qualified Exception Leave, an eligible employee is permitted to take how many days/weeks lave for a qualifying condition to provide support for a covered military member?

A

up to 12 weeks FMLA leave

571
Q

If an employee is absent for _____ consecutive days on unscheduled leave, their supervisor will notify who, by what means?

A

3

The Personnel Division’s Medical Section Designee by e-mail

572
Q

How much leave is JSO required to provide employees under a FMLA qualifying situation?

A

up to 12 weeks/480 work hours

or 26 weeks in the case of service member leave

573
Q

According to FMLA a “Key Employee” is who?

A

A salaried “eligible” employee among the highest 10% of employees within 75 miles of the work site

574
Q

What are the FMLA employment eligibility requirements?

A
  1. Active civil service, special purpose, or temporary employee who has been employed at least 12 months
  2. Employee has worked at least 1250 hours during preceding 12 months
    NOTE: Active military service will be added/combined to meet the monthly and hourly requirements
575
Q

What 6 conditions/circumstances are covered under FMLA?

A
  1. Serious health condition rendering employee unable to perform their job
  2. Providing care for a spouse, child, or parent with a serious health condition
  3. Birth/care of a newborn child
  4. Care for a newly adopted child/foster child
  5. Care of an injured family service member
  6. Support for active duty military personnel in qualifying exigent circumstances
576
Q

Florida law guarantees eligible employees time off up to _____ working days in a 12 month period to take care of what?

A

3 working days

domestic violence related issues (Injunctions, etc)

577
Q

Employees who have exhausted all leave and request Domestic Violence related leave in accordance to FMLA must submit the leave request to who?

A

Their Division Chief

578
Q

What level approval is needed for a temporary transfer to a different unit (i.e. 3 day transfer)?

A

Division Chief

579
Q

What level approval is needed for a temporary transfer to a different unit (i.e. 3 day transfer)?

A

Division Chief

580
Q

What level approval is needed for a temporary transfer to a different unit (i.e. 3 day transfer)?

A

Division Chief

Sergeant Exam 2016 (5 decks)

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