Operation of Systems Flashcards
1
Q
What are the four main control surfaces and what are their functions?
A
Elevators - Control the movement of the airplane about its lateral axis. This motion is called pitch.
Ailerons - Control the airplane’s movement about its longitudinal axis. This motion is called roll.
Rudder - Controls movement of the airplane about its vertical axis. This motion is called yaw.
Trim Tabs - Small, adjustable hinged-surfaces on the aileron, rudder, or elevator control surfaces. They are labor-saving devices that enable the pilot to release manual pressure on the primary control.
2
Q
How are the various flight controls operated?
A
The flight control surfaces are manually actuated through use of either a rod or cable system. A control wheel actuates the ailerons and elevator, and the rudder/break pedals actuate the rudder.
3
Q
What are flaps and what is their function?
A
The wing flaps are moveable panels on the inboard trailing edges of the wings. They are hinged so that they may be extended downward into the flow of air beneath the wings to increase both lift and drag. Their purpose is to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach. In some cases, they may also be used to shorten takeoff distance.
4
Q
Describe the landing gear system on the airplane.
A
The landing gear consists of a tricycle-type system using two main wheels and a steerable nosewheel. Tubular spring steel main gear struts provide main gear shock absorption, while nose gear shock absorption is provided by a combination air/oil shock strut.
5
Q
Describe the braking system on the aircraft.
A
Hydraulically actuated disc-type brakes are utilized on each main gear wheel. A hydraulic line connects each brake to a master cylinder located on each pilot’s rudder pedals. By applying pressure to the top of either the pilot’s or copilot’s set of rudder pedals, the brakes are applied.
6
Q
What type of hydraulic fluid does your aircraft use and what color is it?
A
7
Q
How is steering accomplished on the ground?
A
With nosewheel steering capabilities through a simple system of mechanical linkage connected to the rudder pedals. When a rudder pedal is depressed, a spring-loaded bungee (push-pull rod) connected to the pivotal portion of a nosewheel strut will turn the nosewheel.
8
Q
What four strokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four stroke engine in order for it to produce full power?
A
Intake - Begins as the piston starts its downward travel causing the intake valve to open and the fuel-air mixture to be drawn into the cylinder (cylinders open).
Compression - Begins when the intake valve closes, and the piston starts moving back to the top of the cylinder. This phase of the cycle is used to obtain a much greater power output from the fuel-air mixture once it’s ignited (cylinders compress, air and fuel enter).
Power - Begins when the fuel-air mixture is ignited which causes a tremendous pressure increase in the cylinder and forces the piston downward away from the cylinder head, creating the power that turns the crankshaft (spark plugs ignite fuel).
Exhaust - Is used to purge the cylinder of burned gases and begins when the exhaust valve opens, and the piston starts to move toward the cylinder head once again (cylinders open, let exhaust out).
Suck, squeeze, bang, blow
8
Q
What does the carburetor do?
A
Carburetion may be defined as the process of mixing fuel and air in the correct proportions so as to form a combustible mixture. The carburetor vaporizes liquid fuel into small particles and then mixes it with air. It measures the airflow and meters fuel accordingly.
Step before being drawn into the cylinders and ignited.
9
Q
How does the carburetor heat system work?
A
A carb heat valve, controlled by the pilot, allows unfiltered, heated air from a shroud located around an exhaust riser or muffler to be directed to the induction air manifold prior to the carburetor. Carb heat should be used anytime suspected or known carburetor icing conditions exist.
10
Q
What change occurs to the fuel/air mixture when applying carb heat?
A
The introduction of heated air into the carburetor will result in a richer mixture. Warm air is less dense, resulting in less air for the same amount of fuel. Use of carburetor heat can cause a decrease in engine power of up to 15%.
10
Q
What does the throttle do?
A
Allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders. This in turn regulates the engine speed and power.
11
Q
What does the mixture control do?
A
It regulates the fuel-to-air ratio. All airplane engines incorporate a device called a mixture control, by which the fuel/air ratio can be controlled by the pilot during flight. The purpose of a mixture control is to prevent the mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes, due to decreasing air density. It is also used to lean the mixture during cross-country flights to conserve fuel and provide optimum power.
12
Q
What type of ignition system does the 172 have?
A
Engine ignition is provided by two engine-driven magnetos and two spark plugs per cylinder. The ignition system is completely independent of the aircraft electrical system. The magnetos are engine-driven self-contained units supplying electrical current without using an external source of current. However, before they can produce current, the magnetos must be actuated, as the engine crankshaft is rotated by some other means. To accomplish this, the aircraft battery furnishes electrical power to operate a starter which, through a series of gears, rotates the engine crankshaft. This in turn actuates the armature of the magneto to produce the sparks for ignition of the fuel in each cylinder. After the engine starts, the starter system is disengaged, and the battery no longer contributes to the actual operation of the engine.
13
Q
What are the two main advantages of a duel ignition system?
A
1) Increased safety - if one system fails, the engine may be operated on the other until a landing is safely made.
2) More complete and even combustion of the mixture and improved engine performance.
14
Q
What type of fuel system does the 172 have?
A
The fuel system is a gravity feed system. Using gravity, the fuel flows from two wing fuel tanks to a fuel shutoff valve which, in the “on” position, allows fuel to flow through a strainer and then to the carburetor. From there, the fuel is mixed with air and then flows into the cylinders through the intake manifold tubes.
15
Q
What purpose do the fuel tank vents have?
A
As the fuel level in an aircraft fuel tank decreases, a vacuum would be created within the tank which would eventually result in a decreasing fuel flow and finally engine stoppage. Fuel system venting provides a way of replacing fuel with outside air, preventing formation of a vacuum.
16
Q
Does your aircraft use a fuel pump?
A
Yes. There are two; an engine driven fuel pump and an electric fuel pump. Two for safety.
17
Q
What type of fuel does the 172 need and what color is it?
A
100LL. Blue.
18
Q
Can other types of fuel be used if the specified grade is not available?
A
It is possible, but not desirable, to use the next higher grade fuel as a substitute, but the plane’s POH should be referenced first.
19
Q
What color dye is added to 80, 100, 100LL, and Turbine fuel?
A
80 - Red
100 - Green
100LL - Blue
Jet A - Colorless/Straw
20
Q
If a non-turbine piston engine powered airplane is fueled with Jet-A fuel, will it start?
A
Yes. Reciprocating engines may run briefly on jet fuel, but detonation and overheating will soon cause power failure. When an aircraft that requires Avgas is fueled with Jet A, there is usually a small amount of Avgas remaining in the aircraft’s fuel system. This remaining fuel can enable an aircraft to taxi, perform an engine run-up, and possibly take off before experiencing engine failure.
21
Q
What is the function of the manual primer and how does it operate?
A
The manual primer’s main function is to provide assistance in starting the engine. The primer draws fuel from the fuel strainer and injects it directly into the cylinder intake ports. This usually results in a quicker, more efficient engine start.
22
Q
Describe the electrical system of the 172.
A
Electrical energy is provided by a …
23
How are the circuits for the various electrical accessories within the aircraft protected?
Most of the electrical circuits in an airplane are protected from an overload condition by either circuit breakers or fuses or both. Circuit breakers perform the same function as fuses except that when an overload occurs, a circuit breaker can be reset.
24
The electrical system provides power for what equipment in an airplane?
1) Radio equipment
2) Turn coordinator
3) Fuel gauges
4) Pitot heat
5) Landing light
6) Taxi light
7) Strobe lights
8) Interior lights
9) Instrument lights
10) Position lights
11) Flaps
12) Oil temperature gauge
25
What does the ammeter indicate?
The ammeter indicates the flow of current, in amperes, from the alternator to the battery or from the battery to the electrical system. With the engine running and master switch on, the ammeter will indicate the charging rate to the battery. If the alternator has gone off-line and is no longer functioning, or the electrical load exceeds the output of the alternator, the ammeter indicates the discharge rate of the battery.
26
What function does the voltage regulator have?
The voltage regulator is a device which monitors system voltage, detects changes, and makes the required adjustments in the output of the alternator to maintain a constant regulated system voltage. It must do this at a low RPM, such as during taxi, as well as at high RPM in flight.
27
Why is the generator/alternator voltage output slightly higher than the battery voltage?
The difference in voltage keeps the battery charged.
28
How does the aircraft cabin heat work?
Fresh air, heated by an exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through a series of ducts.
29
How does a pilot control temperature in the cabin?
NOTE: check to see if this is accurate
Temperature is controlled by mixing outside air (cabin air control) with heated air (cabin heat control) in a manifold near the cabin firewall. This air is then ducted to vents located on the cabin floor.
30
What are the five basic functions of aircraft engine oil?
1) Lubricates the engine's moving parts
2) Cools the engine by reducing friction
3) Removes heat from the cylinders
4) Seals - provides a seal between the cylinder walls and pistons
5) Cleans by carrying off metal and carbon particles and other oil contaminants
31
What causes carburetor icing and what are the first signs of its presence?
Venturi effect.
The carburetor narrows in the middle where the butterfly valve controlled by the throttle is. The narrow opening causes the air moving through the carburetor to move faster - then Bernoulli Principle kicks in. The air moves faster, which causes the air to cool down, and then the moisture in the air freezes and ice forms (especially when the throttle is idle or close to idle, because the valve narrows the passage even more).
The first indication of carburetor icing is a loss of RPM.
32
What method is used to determine that carburetor ice has been eliminated?
When heat is first applied, there will be a drop in RPM. If ice is present, there will be a rise in RPM after the initial drop (often accompanied by intermittent engine roughness). And then, when the carburetor heat is turned off, the RPM will rise to a setting greater than that before application of heat. The engine should run more smoothly after the ice has been removed.
33
What conditions are favorable for carburetor icing?
Carb ice is most likely to occur when temperatures are below 70 degrees F (21 degrees C) and the relative humidity is above 80%. However, due to the sudden cooling that takes place in the carburetor, icing can occur even with temperatures as high as 100 degrees F (38 degrees C) and humidity as low as 50%. This temperature drop can be as much as 60 to 70 degrees F.
34
Define the terms anti-icing equipment and deicing equipment and give several examples of both.
Anti-icing equipment prevents ice from forming on certain protected surfaces. Examples are heated pitot tubes and static ports, carb heat, heated fuel vents, propeller blades with electro-thermal boots, and heated windshields. It is normally actuated prior to flight into suspected icing conditions.
Deicing equipment removes ice that has already formed on protected surfaces. It is generally limited to pneumatic boots on the wing and tail leading edges.
35
Describe how an aircraft deicing system works.
Upon pilot actuation, boots attached to the wing leading edges inflate with air from a pneumatic pump(s) to break off accumulated ice. After a few seconds of inflation, they are deflated back to their normal position with vacuum assistance. The pilot monitors the buildup of ice and cycles the boots as directed in the POH.
36
If an airplane has anti-icing and/or deicing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions?
The presence of anti-icing and deicing equipment does not mean that an airplane is approved for flight in icing conditions. The POH, placards, and even the manufacturer should be consulted for specific determination of approvals and limitations.
37
What is detonation?
Detonation is an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder's combustion chamber. It causes excessive temperature and pressure which, if not corrected, can quickly lead to failure of the piston, cylinder, or valves. In less severe cases, detonation causes engine overheating, roughness, or loss of power. Detonation is characterized by high cylinder head temperatures, and is most likely to occur when operating at high power settings.
38
What are some of the most common operational causes of detonation?
1) Using a lower fuel grade than that specified by the aircraft manufacturer.
2) Operating with extremely high manifold pressures in conjunction with low RPM.
3) Operating the engine at high power settings with an excessively lean mixture.
4) Extended ground operations or steep climbs where cylinder cooling is reduced.
39
What action should be taken if detonation is suspected?
1) Ensure the proper grade of fuel is used.
2) Keep the cowl flaps (if available) in the full-open position while on the ground to provide the maximum airflow through the cowling.
3) Use an enriched fuel mixture, as well as a shallow climb angle, to increase cylinder cooling during takeoff and initial climb.
4) Avoid extended, high power, steep climbs.
5) Develop the habit of monitoring the engine instruments to verify proper operation according to procedures established by the manufacturer.
40
What is preignition?
Preignition occurs when the fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine's normal ignition event, resulting in reduced engine power and high operating temperatures. Premature burning is usually caused by a residual hot spot in the combustion chamber, often created by a small carbon deposit on a spark plug, a cracked spark plug insulator, or other damage in the cylinder that causes a part to heat sufficiently to ignite the fuel/air charge. As with detonation, preignition may also cause severe engine damage, because the expanding gases exert excessive pressure on the piston while still on its compression stroke.
41
What action should be taken if preignition is suspected?
Any type of engine operation which would promote cooling, such as:
1) Reduce power
2) Reduce the climb rate for better cooling
3) Enrich the fuel/air mixture
4) Open cowl flaps (if available)
42
During the before-takeoff runup, you switch the magnetos from the "both" position to the "right" position and notice there is no RPM drop. What condition does this indicate?
The left P-lead is not grounding or the engine has been running only on the right magneto because the left magneto has totally failed.
43
What is the maximum drop in RPMs allowed during a mag check and how close must the RPMs be for the right and left mags?
44
Interpret the following ammeter indications:
Ammeter indicates a right deflection (positive)
Ammeter indicates a left deflection (negative)
Right deflection:
After starting - power from the battery used for starting is being replenished by the alternator, or, if a full-scale charge is indicated for more than 1 minute, the starter is still engaged and a shutdown is indicated.
During flight - A faulty voltage regulator is causing the alternator to overcharge the battery. Reset the system and if the condition continues, terminate the flight asap.
Left deflection:
After starting - It is normal during start. At other times, this indicates the alternator is not functioning or an overload condition exists in the system. The battery is not receiving a charge.
During flight - The alternator is not functioning or an overload exists in the system. The battery is not receiving a charge. Possible causes include the master switch being accidentally shut off or the alternator circuit breaker being tripped.
45
What action should be taken if the ammeter indicates a continuous discharge while in flight?
The alternator has stopped producing a charge, so the alternator circuit breaker should be checked and reset if necessary. If this does not correct the problem;
1) The alternator should be turned off; pull the circuit breaker
2) All electrical equipment not essential to flight should be turned off (the battery is not the only source of electrical power)
3) The flight should be terminated and a landing made asap
46
What action should be taken if the ammeter indicates a continuous charge while in flight (more than two needle widths)?
If a continuous excessive rate of charge were allowed for any extended period of time, the battery would overheat and evaporate the electrolyte at an excessive rate. A possible explosion of the battery could result. Also, electronic components in the electrical system would be adversely affected by higher than normal voltage. Protection is provided by an overvoltage sensor which will shut the alternator down if an excessive voltage is detected. If this should occur, the following should be done:
1) The alternator should be turned off; pull the circuit breaker
2) All electrical equipment not essential to flight should be turned off (the battery is now the only source of electrical power)
3) The flight should be terminated and a landing made asap
Exam Tip: Expect the examiner to test your knowledge of the aircraft's electrical system by asking several "what if" questions, like; "what if your alternator failed in flight?", "what systems, instruments, and equipment would be operative/inoperative?", "after an alternator failure, what systems and equipment will the battery supply power to?", "how long will the battery supply power?", " when the battery finally dies, will the engine continue to operate?"
47
During a cross-country flight you notice that the oil pressure is low, but the oil temperature is normal. What is the problem and what action should be taken?
A low oil pressure in flight could be the result of any one of several problems, the most common being that of insufficient oil. If the oil temperature continues to remain normal, a clogged oil pressure relief valve or an oil pressure gauge malfunction could be the problem. Land at the nearest airport to check for the problem.
48
What procedures should be followed concerning a partial loss of power in flight?
The first priority is to establish and maintain a suitable airspeed (best glide airspeed - 65 knots). Then, select an emergency landing area and stay within gliding distance (ABCD: aviate, best field, communicate, determine problem).
As time allows, attempt to determine the cause of the problem and correct it:
1) Check that the carb heat is off
2) Check the amount of fuel in each tank and switch fuel tanks, if necessary
3) Check the fuel selector valve's current position
4) Check the mixture control
5) Check that the primer control is all the way in and locked
6) Check the operation of the magnetos in all three positions (left, right, both)
49
What procedures should be followed if an engine fire develops in flight?
1) Set the mixture control to "idle cutoff"
2) Set the fuel selector valve to "off"
3) Turn the master switch to "off"
4) Set the cabin heat and air vents to "off", leave the overhead vents "on"
5) Establish an airspeed to 100 knots and increase the descent, if necessary, to find an airspeed that will provide for an incombustible mixture
6) Execute a forced landing procedures checklist
50
What procedures should be followed if an engine fire develops on the ground during starting?
Continuing to attempt an engine start as a start will cause flames and excess fuel to be sucked back through the carburetor.
If the engine starts:
1) Increase the power to a higher RPM for a few moments
2) Shut down the engine and inspect it
If the engine does not start:
1) Set the throttle to the "full" position
2) Set the mixture control to "idle cutoff"
3) Continue to try an engine start in an attempt to put out the fire by vacuum
If the fire continues:
1) Turn the ignition switch to "off"
2) Turn the master switch to "off"
3) Set the fuel selector to "off"
Evacuate the aircraft and get a fire extinguisher
51
What instruments operate off of the pitot/static system?
The altimeter, vertical speed, and airspeed indicator
52
How does an altimeter work?
A sensitive altimeter is an aneroid barometer that measures the absolute pressure of the ambient air and displays it in terms of feet above a selected pressure level. The sensitive element in a sensitive altimeter is a stack of evacuated, corrugated bronze aneroid capsules. The air pressure acting on these aneroids tries to compress them against their natural springiness, which tries to expand them. The result is that their thickness changes as the air pressure changes. Stacking several aneroids increases the dimension change as the pressure varies over the usable range of the instrument.
53
What are the limitations of a pressure altimeter?
Nonstandard pressure and temperature; temperature variations expand or contract the atmosphere and raise or lower pressure levels that the altimeter senses.
On a warm day - the pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude.
On a cold day - the pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude.
Changes in surface pressure also affect pressure levels at altitude.
Higher than standard pressure - the pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude.
Lower than standard pressure - the pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude.
High to low/how to cold, look out below!
54
Define and state how you would determine the following altitudes: absolute, indicated, pressure, true, and density.
Absolute altitude - the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain
Indicated altitude - the altitude read directly from the altimeter (uncorrected) after it is set to the current altimeter setting.
Pressure altitude - the altitude when the altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92. Pressure altitude is used for computer solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed, etc.
True altitude - the true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts are true altitudes.
Density altitude - pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. Directly related to an aircraft's takeoff, climb, and landing performance.
55
How does the airspeed indicator operate?
The airspeed indicator is a sensitive, differential pressure gauge which measures the differences between impact pressure from the pitot head and undisturbed atmospheric pressure from the static source. The difference is registered by the airspeed pointer on the face of the instrument.
56
What is the limitation of the airspeed indicator?
It is subject to proper flow of air in the pitot/static system.
57
What are the errors of the airspeed indicator?
Position error - caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing actual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude and configuration, and may be a plus or minus value.
Density error - changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for by the instrument.
Compressibility error - caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It is usually not a factor at slower speeds.
58
What are the different types of aircraft speeds?
Indicated airspeed (IAS) - the speed of the airplane as observed on the airspeed indicator. It is the airspeed without correction for indicator, position (or installation) or compressibility errors.
Calibrated airspeed (CAS) - the airspeed indicator reading corrected for position (or installation), and instrument errors. CAS is equal to TAS at sea level in standard atmosphere. The color-coding for various design speeds marked on airspeed indicators may be IAS or CAS.
Equivalent airspeed (EAS) - the airspeed indicator reading corrected for position (or installation), or instrument error, and for adiabatic compressible flow for the particular altitude. EAS is equal to CAS at sea level in standard atmosphere.
Ground airspeed - True airspeed corrected for wind
True airspeed (TAS) - CAS corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature; the speed of the airplane in relation to the air mass in which it is flying.
59
Name several important airspeed limitations not marked on the face of the airspeed indicator.
Design maneuvering speed (Va) - the maximum speed at which the structural design's limit load can be imposed (either by gusts or full deflection of the control surfaces) without causing structural damage.
Landing gear operating speed (Vlo) - the maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear (if applicable).
Best angle-of-climb speed (Vx) - important when a short-field takeoff to clear an obstacle is required.
Best rate-of-climb speed (Vy) - the airspeed that will give the pilot the most altitude in a given period of time.
60
What airspeed limitations apply to the color-coded marking system of the airspeed indicator?
White arc - flap operating range
Lower A/S Limit
White Arc - Vso (stall speed landing configuration)
Upper A/S Limit
White Arc - Vfe (maximum flap extension speed)
Green Arc - normal operating range
Lower A/S Limit
Green Arc - Vs1 (stall speed clean or specified configuration)
Upper A/S Limit
Green Arc - Vno (normal operations speed or maximum structural cruise speed
Yellow Arc - Caution range (operations in smooth air only)
Red Line - Vne - never exceed speed; above this speed, structural failure may occur
61
How does the vertical speed indicator work?
The vertical speed indicator is a pressure differential instrument. Inside the instrument case is an aneroid very much like the one in an airspeed indicator. Both the inside of this aneroid and the inside of the instrument case are vented to the static system, but the case is vented through a calibrated orifice that causes the pressure inside the case to change more slowly than the pressure inside the aneroid. As the aircraft ascends, the static pressure becomes lower and the pressure inside the case compresses the aneroid, moving the pointer upward, showing a climb and indicating the number of feet per minute the aircraft is ascending.
62
What are the limitations of the vertical speed indicator?
The VSI is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Because of the restriction in airflow to the static line, a 6 to 9 second lag is required to equalize or stabilize the pressures. Sudden or abrupt changes in aircraft altitude will cause erroneous instrument readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port. Both rough control technique and turbulent air result in unreliable needle indications.
63
What instruments contain gyroscopes?
The turn coordinator, the heading indicator (directional gyro), and the attitude indicator (artificial horizon)
64
What are the two fundamental properties of a gyroscope?
Rigidity in space - a gyroscope remains in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning.
Precession - the tilting or turning or a gyro in response to a deflective force. The reaction to this force does not occur at a point that is 90 degrees later in the direction of rotation. The rate at which the gyro precesses is inversely proportional to the speed of the rotor and proportional to the deflective force.
65
What are the various power sources that may be used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an airplane?
In the airplanes, all the gyros are vacuum, pressure, or electrically operated; in others, vacuum or pressure systems provide the power for the heading and attitude indicators, while the electrical system provides the power for the turn coordinator. Most airplanes have at least two sources of power to ensure at least one source of bank information if one power source fails.
66
How does the attitude indicator work?
The gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon. This bar is fixed to the gyro and remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.
67
What are the limitations of an attitude indicator?
The pitch and bank limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument. Limits in the banking plane are usually from 60 to 70 degrees. If either limit is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until reset.
68
What are the errors of the attitude indicator?
Attitude indicators are free from most errors, but depending upon the speed with which the erection system functions, there may be a slight nose-up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nose-down indication during a rapid deceleration. There is also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180 degree turn. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a minute or so after returning to straight-and-level flight.
69
How does the heading indicator operate?
The operation of the heading indicator uses the principal of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane and the compass card is fixed to the rotor. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading information.
70
What are the limitations of the heading indicator?
The bank and pitch limits of the heading indicator vary with the particular design and make of instrument. On some heading indicators found in light airplanes, the limits are approximately 55 degrees of pitch and 55 degrees of bank. When either of these attitude limits is exceeded, the instrument "tumbles" or "spills" and no longer gives the correct indication until reset. After spilling, it may reset with the caging knob. Many of the modern instruments used are designed in such a manner that they will not tumble.
71
What error is the heading indicator subject to?
Because of precession, caused chiefly by friction, the heading indicator will creep or drift from a heading to which it is set. Among other factors, the amount of drift depends largely upon the condition of the instrument. The heading indicator may indicate as much as 15 degrees error per every hour of operation.
72
How does the turn coordinator operate?
The turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied thus moving the needle or miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The slip/skid indicator is a liquid-filled tube with a ball that reacts to centrifugal force and gravity.
73
What information does the turn coordinator provide?
The turn coordinator shows the yaw and roll of the aircraft around the vertical and longitudinal axes. The miniature airplane will indicate direction of the turn as well as rate of turn. When aligned with the turn index, it represents a standard rate of turn of 3 degrees per second. The inclinometer of the turn coordinator indicates the coordination of aileron and rudder. The ball indicates whether the airplane is in coordinated flight or is in a slip or skid.
74
What will the turn indicator indicate when the aircraft is in a "skidding" or a "slipping" turn?
Slip - the ball in the tube will be on the inside of the turn; not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank.
Skid - The ball in the tube will be to the outside of the turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank.
75
How does the magnetic compass work?
Magnetized needles fastened to a float assembly, around which is mounded a compass card, align themselves parallel to the earth's lines of magnetic force. The float assembly is houses in a bowl filled with acid-free white kerosene.
76
What limitations does the magnetic compass have?
The jewel-and-pivot type mounting allows the float freedom to rotate and tilt up to approximately 18 degrees angle of bank. At steeper bank angles, the compass indications are erratic and unpredictable.
77
What are the various compass errors?
Oscillation error - Erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique.
Deviation error - Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft.
Variation error - Angular difference between true and magnetic north; reference isogonic lines of variation.
Dip errors:
Acceleration error - On east or west headings, while accelerating, the magnetic compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south.
ANDS (Accelerate North Decelerate South)
Northerly turning error - The compass leads in the south half of a turn and lags in the north half of a turn.
UNOS (Undershoot North Overshoot South)
78
Describe the function of the following avionics equipment acronyms: AHRS, ADC, PFD, MFD, FD, FMS, INS.
AHRS - attitude and heading reference system. Composed of three-axis sensors that provide heading, attitude, and yaw information for aircraft. AHRS are designed to replace traditional mechanical gyroscopic flight instruments and provide superior reliability and accuracy.
ADC - Air data computer. An aircraft computer that received and processes pitot pressure, static pressure, and temperature to calculate precise altitude, indicated airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and air temperature.
PFD - Primary flight display. A display that provides increased situational awareness to the pilot by replacing the traditional six instruments with an easy-to-scan display that shows the horizon, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed, trend, trim, rate of turn, and more.
MFD - Multi-function display. A cockpit display capable of presenting information (navigation data, moving maps, terrain awareness, etc.) to the pilot in configurable ways; often used in concert with the PFD.
FD - Flight director. An electronic flight computer that analyzes the navigation selections, signals, and aircraft parameters. It presents steering instructions on the flight display as command bars or crossbars for the pilot to position the nose of the aircraft over or follow.
FMS - Flight management system. A computer system containing a database for programming of routes, approaches, and departures that can supply navigation data to the flight director/autopilot from various sources, and can calculate flight data such as fuel consumption, time remaining, possible range, and other values.
INS - Inertial navigation system. A computer-based navigation system that tracks the movement of an aircraft via signals produced by onboard accelerometers. The initial location of the aircraft is entered into the computer and all subsequent movement is then sensed and used to keep the aircraft's position updated.
79
What is the function of a magnetometer?
A magnetometer is a device that measures the strength of the earth's magnetic field to determine aircraft heading; it provides this information digitally to the AHRS, which then sends it to the PFD.
80
When powering up an aircraft with an FMS/RNAV unit installed, how will you verify the effective dates of the navigation database?
The effective dates for the navigation database are typically shown on a start-up screen that is displayed as the system cycles through its startup self-test.
81
Does an aircraft have to remain stationary during AHRS system initialization?
Some AHRSs must be initialized on the ground prior to departure. The initialization procedure allows the system to establish a reference attitude used as a benchmark for all future attitude changes. Other systems are capable of initialization while taxiing as well as in flight.
82
Which standby flight instruments are normally provided in an advanced avionics aircraft?
Every aircraft equipped with electronic flight instruments must also contain a minimal set of backup/standby instruments. Usually conventional "round dial instruments", they typically include an attitude indicator, an airspeed indicator, and an altimeter.
83
If one display fails (PFD or MFD), what information will be presented on the remaining display?
In the event of display failure, some systems offer a reversion capability to display the primary flight instruments and engine instruments on the remaining operative display.
84
When a display failure occurs, what other system components will be affected?
In some systems, failure of a display will also result in a partial loss of navigation, communication, and GPS capability. Reference the POH.
85
What display information will be affected when an ADC failure occurs?
Inoperative airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed indicators, shows with red Xs on the PFD, indicate the failure of the air data computer.
86
What display information will be lost when an AHRS failure occurs?
An inoperative attitude indicator, shows with a red X on the PFD, indicates failure of the AHRS.
87
How will loss of a magnetometer affect the AHRS operation?
Heading information will be lost.
88
For aircraft with electronic flight instrumentation, what is the function of the standby battery?
The standby battery is held in reserve and kept charged in case of a failure of the charging system and a subsequent exhaustion of the main battery. The standby battery is brought online when the main battery voltage is depleted to a specific value, approximately 19 volts. Generally, the standby battery switch must be in the ARM position for this to occur, but pilots should refer to the aircraft flight manual (AFM) for specifics on an aircraft's electrical system.
89
What are the two types of ADS-B equipment?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast Out (ADS-B Out) - automatically broadcasts aircraft's GPS position, altitude, velocity, and other information out to ATC ground-based surveillance stations, as well as directly to other aircraft. It's required in all airspace where transponders are required.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast In (ADS-B In) - is the receipt, processing, and display of ADS-B transmissions, ADS-B In capability is necessary to receive ADS-B traffic and broadcast services.
90
Describe the Traffic Information Services-Broadcast (TIS-B).
TIS-B is the broadcast of ATC derived traffic information to ADS-B equipped (1090ES or UAT) aircraft from ground radio stations. The source of this traffic information is derived from ground-based air traffic surveillance sensors. TIS-B service is available throughout the NAS where there is both adequate surveillance coverage from ground sensors and adequate broadcast coverage from ADS-B ground radio stations.
91
Explain the limitations pilots should be aware of when using TIS-B for situational awareness.
1) TIS-B is not intended to be used as a collision avoidance system and does not relieve the pilot's responsibility to "see and avoid" other aircraft, in accordance with 91.113b.
2) A pilot may receive an intermittent TIS-B target of themselves, typically when maneuvering (e.g. climbing turns) due to the radar not tracking the aircraft as quickly as ADS-B.
3) The ADS-B-to-radar association process within the ground system may at times have difficulty correlating an ADS-B report with corresponding radar returns from the same aircraft. When this happens, the pilot may see duplicate traffic symbols on the cockpit display.
4) Updates of TIS-B traffic reports will occur less often than ADS-B traffic updates. TIS-B position updates will occur approximately once every 3 to 13 seconds depending on the type of radar system in use within the coverage area. In comparison, the update rate for ADS-B is nominally once per second.
5) The TIS-B system only uplinks data pertaining to transponder-equipped aircraft. Aircraft without a transponder will not be displayed as TIS-B traffic.
92
Does the nose wheel turn when the rudder is depressed in flight?
93
If the braking system is not functioning, will the parking brake work?
94
If the brakes on the left side (pilot) are not functioning, will the brakes on the right side also be inoperative?
95
Explain the procedure for starting your airplane with external power.
96
You cannot start your airplane due to a lower battery, so you request an external start via a ground power cart. What problems might still occur after the engine has started?
97
In the event of an electrical system failure, what time duration can you reasonably expect electrical power from the battery?
30 minutes
98
What effect would positioning the master switch to the "off" position have on aircraft systems while in flight?
99
What instruments are affected when the pitot tube freezes? Static port freezes?
100
What is the purpose of the alternate static source?
101
If you set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
102
During the "before takeoff" magneto check, you notice that the right magneto is extremely rough. Explain what the problem could be and what actions you will take next.
103
Automation in the cockpit has made aviation safer. Does total risk increase or decrease when "passively" monitoring an automated system for faults or abnormalities? How can you mitigate that risk?
104
If the air intake valve becomes clogged, is there a way to bypass the valve to still get air into the engine for combustion?
Yes, by turning the carb heat on.
105
If a pilot performs preventative maintenance, what must they log when the work is complete?
They must write a description of the work done, their certificate number, name, type of certificate held, date, and signature in the plane’s maintenance logbook.
106
Does 1UK have a vacuum system?
Which instruments are run on the vacuum system, if so?
No, 1UK does not have a vacuum system.
The HSI, attitude indicator, and turn and slip indicator would be on the vacuum system. These instruments have gyroscopes and the vacuum pulls air in to spin the gyroscopes.
In 1UK, the HSI, attitude indicator, and turn and slip have magnetometers.
107
What type of flaps does 1UK have?
Plain flaps (slotted)
