Cross-Country Flight Planning Flashcards
What are three common ways to navigate?
To navigate successfully, pilots must know their approximate position at all times or be able to determine it whenever they wish. Position may be determined by:
1) Pilotage (by reference to visible landmarks)
2) Dead reckoning (by computing direction and distance from a known position)
3) Radio navigation (by use of radio aids)
What type of aeronautical charts are available for use in VFR navigation?
Sectional charts - designed for visual navigation of slow to medium speed aircraft. One inch equals 6.86 nautical miles. They are revised semiannually.
VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC) - TACs depict the Class B airspace. While similar to sectional charts, TACs have more detail because the scale is larger. One inch equals 3.43 nautical miles. Charts are revised semiannually.
VFR Flyway Planning Charts - This chart is printed on the reverse side of selected TAC charts. The coverate is the same as the associated TAC. They depict flight paths and altitudes recommended for use to bypass high traffic areas.
Are electronic flight bags (EFBs) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material (POH and Supplements, charts, etc.) in the cockpit?
Yes. EFBs can be used during all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper reference material when the information displayed is the functional equivalent of the paper reference material replaced and is current, up-to-date, and valid. It is recommended that a secondary or back-up source of aeronautical information necessary for the flight be available.
What is an isogonic line?
Shown on most aeronautical charts as broken magenta lines, isogonic lines connect points of equal magnetic variation. They show the amount and direction of magnetic variation, which from time to time may vary.
What is magnetic variation?
Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north. It is expressed as east variation or west variation depending upon whether magnetic north is to the east or west of true north, respectively.
How do you convert a true direction to a magnetic direction?
To convert true course or heading to magnetic course or heading, note the variation shown by the nearest isogonic line. If variation is west, add; if east, subtract.
East is Least
West is Best
What are lines of latitude and longitude?
Circles parallel to the equator (lines running east and west), parallels of latitude, enable us to measure distance in degrees latitude north or south of the equator. Meridians of longitude are drawn from the North Pole to the South Pole and are at right angles to the equator. The Prime Meridian, which passes through Greenwich, England, is used as the zero line from which measurements are made in degrees east and west to 180 degrees. The 48 continuous states of the U.S. lie between 25 degrees and 49 degrees north latitude and between 67 degrees and 125 degrees west longitude.
What is magnetic deviation?
Because of magnetic influences within the airplane itself (electrical circuits, radios, lights, tools, engine, magnetized metal parts, etc.) the compass needle is frequently deflected from its normal reading. This deflection is called deviation. Deviation is different for each airplane, and also varies for different headings of the same airplane. The deviation value may be found on a deviation card located in the airplane.
Name several types of navigational aids.
1) VOR (Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range)
2) VORTAC (VHF Omnidirectional Range/Tactical Air Navitation)
3) DME (Distance Measuring Equipment)
4) RNAV (Area Navigation) includes INS, VOR/DME-referenced, and GPS.
What is a VOR and VORTAC?
VORs are VHF radio stations that project radials in all directions (360 degrees) from the station, like spokes from the hub of a wheel. Each of these radials is denoted by its outbound magnetic direction. Almost all VOR stations will also be VORTACs. A VORTAC (VOR-Tactical Air Navigation), provides the standard bearing information of a VOR plus distance information to pilots of airplanes which have distance measuring equipment (DME).
Within what frequency range do VORs operate?
Transmitting frequencies of omnirange stations are in the VHF (very high frequency) band between 108 and 117.95 MHz, which are immediately below aviation communication frequencies.
What is a VOR radial?
A radial is defined as a line of magnetic bearing extending from an omnidirectional range (VOR). A VOR projects 360 radials from the station. These radials are always identified by their direction “from” the station. Regardless of heading, an aircraft on the 360 degree radial will always be located north of the station.
How are VOR NAVAIDs classified?
Terminal, Low, and High
What limitations, if any, apply to VOR reception distances?
VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment.
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment?
1) VOT check - plus or minus 4 degrees
2) Ground checkpoint - plus or minus 4 degrees
3) Airborne checkpoint - plus or minus 6 degrees
4) Dual VOR check - 4 degrees between each other
5) Selected radial over a known ground point - plus or minue 6 degrees
Locations of airborne check points, ground checkpoints and VOTs are published in the Chart Supplement.
What is distance measuring equipment (DME)?
DME is used to measure, in nautical miles, the slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigational aid. Aircraft equipped with DME are provided with distance and ground speed information when receiving a VORTAC or TACAN facility. DME operates on frequencies in the UHF spectrum between 90 MHz and 1215 MHz.
Give a brief explanation of Global Position System (GPS).
GPS is a satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position anywhere in the world. The receiver tracks multiple satellites and determines a pseudo-range measurement that is then used to determine the user’s location.
What are the three functional elements of GPS?
Space element - consists of 30 satellites
Control element - consists of a network of ground-based GPS monitoring and control stations that ensure the accuracy of satellite positions and their clocks.
User element - consists of antennas and receiver-processors onboard aircraft that provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing to the user.
What are the different types of GPS receivers available for use?
GPS receivers used for VFR navigation vary from fully integrated IFR/VFR installations used to support VFR operations, to handheld devices. Pilots must understand the limitations of the receivers prior to using in flight to avoid misusing navigation information.
What is the purpose of RAIM?
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is a self-monitoring function performed by a GPS received to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received from the satellites at all times. The GPS will alert the pilot whenever the integrity monitoring determines that the GPS signals do not meet the criteria for safe navigational use.
Where can a pilot obtain RAIM availability information?
Pilots may obtain GPS RAIM availability information by using a manufacturer-supplied RAIM prediction tool, or using the Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT) on the FAA enroute and terminal RAIM prediction website. Pilots can also request GPS RAIM aeronautical information from an FSS during preflight briefings.
If RAIM capability is lost in-flight, can you continue to use GPS for navigation?
Without RAIM capability, the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position. VFR GPS panel-mount receivers and handheld units have no RAIM alerting capability. This prevents the pilot from being alerted to the loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error.
Before conducting a flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what basic preflight checks should be made?
1) Verify that the GPS equipment is properly installed and certified for the planned operation.
2) Verify that the databases (navigation, terrain, obstacle, etc.) have not expired.
3) Review GPS NOTAM/RAIM information related to the planned route of flight.
4) Review operational status of ground-based NAVAIDs and related aircraft equipment (e.g. 30-day VOR check) appropriate to route of flight.
5) Determine that the GPS receiver operational manual or airplane flight manual supplement is onboard and available for use.
How can a pilot determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for?
The pilot should reference the POH/AFM and supplements to determine the limitations and operating procedures for the particular GPS equipment installed. Most systems require that the avionics operations manual/handbook be on board as a limitation of use.
During a preflight briefing, will the FSS briefer automatically provide a pilot with GPS NOTAMS?
No. You must specifically request GPS/WAAS NOTAMs.
How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position?
3 satellites - yields a latitude and longitude position only (2D)
4 satellites - yields latitude, longitude, and altitude position (3D)
5 satellites - 3D and RAIM
6 satellites - 3D and RAIM (isolates corrupt signal and removes from navigation solution)
What is WAAS?
The wide area augmentation system (WAAS) is a ground and satellite integrated navigational error correction system that provides accuracy enhancements to signals received from the GPS. WAAS provides extremely accurate lateral and vertical navigation signals to aircraft equipped with GPS/WAAS-enabled certified equipment.
What limitations should you be aware of when using a panel-mount VFR GPS or a hand-held VFR GPS system for navigation?
1) RAIM capability - Many VFR GPS receivers and all hand-held units have no RAIM alerting capability. Loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error, cannot be displayed to the pilot by such receivers.
Database currency - In many receivers, an updatable database is used for navigation fixes, airports, and instrument procedures. These databases must be maintained to the current update for IFR operation, but no such requirement exists for VFR use.
Antenna location - In many VFR installations of GPS receivers, antenna location is more a matter of convenience than performance. Handheld GPS receiver antenna location is limited to the cockpit or cabin only and is rarely optimized to provide a clear view of available satellites. Loss of signal, coupled with a lack of RAIM capability, could present erroneous position and navigation information with no warning to the pilot.
Define the term VFR waypoint.
VFR waypoints provide pilots with a supplementary tool to assist with position awareness while navigating visually in aircraft equipped with area navigation receivers (such as GPS). They provide navigational aids for pilots unfamiliar with an area, waypoint definition of existing reporting points, enhanced navigation in and around Class B and Class C airspace, and around special use airspace. VFR waypoint names consist of a five-letter identifier beginning with “VP” and are retrievable from navigation databases; they should be used only when operating under VFR conditions.
Pages 6-12 through 6-14: know how to do these equations!
Review the flight log example on page 6-15.
After takeoff, you attempt to activate your VFR flight plan but are unable to connect the FSS. What will happen to your filed flight plan?
When a VFR flight plan is filed, it is held by the FSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure time and then is canceled.
What actions should be taken if you become disoriented or lost on a cross-country flight (no GPS available)?
Condition 1: Plenty of fuel and weather conditions good
1) Straighten up and flight right. Fly a specific heading in a direction you believe to be correct (or circle, if unsure); don’t wander aimlessly.
2) If you have been flying a steady compass heading and keeping a relatively accurate navigation log, it’s not likely you will have a problem locating your position.
3) If several VORs are within reception distance, use them for a cross-bearing to determine position (even a single VOR can be of help in narrowing down your possible position); or, fly to the station.
4) Use knowledge of your last known position, elapsed time, approximate wind direction and ground speed, to establish how far you may have traveled since your last checkpoint.
5) Use this distance as a radius and draw a semicircle ahead of your last known position on chart. For example, you estimate your ground speed at 120 knots. If you have been flying 20 minutes since your last checkpoint, then the no-wind radius of your semicircle is 40 miles projected along the direction of your estimated track.
6) If still unsure of your position, loosen up the eyeballs and start some first-class pilotage. Look for something big. Don’t concern yourself with the minute or trivial at this point. Often, there will be linear features such as rivers, mountain ranges, or prominent highways and railroads that are easy to identify. You can use them as references for orientation purposes and thus find them of value in fixing your approximate position.
Condition 2: Low on fuel; weather deteriorating; inadequate experience; darkness imminent; and/or equipment malfunctioning
1) Get it on the ground! Most accidents are the product of mistakes which have multiplied over a period of time and getting lost is no exception. It may well be that in doing so, you have added the final mistake which will add another figure to the accident statistics. If terrain or other conditions make landing impossible at the moment, don’t waste time, for it’s of the essence - don’t search for the perfect field, anything usable will do. Remember, most people on the ground know where they are and you know that you do not.
If it becomes apparent that you cannot locate your position, what action is recommended at this point?
Use of the “4 Cs”:
1) Climb - The higher altitude allows better communication capability, as well as better visual range for identification of landmarks
2) Communicate - Use the system. Use 121.5 MHz if no other frequency produces results. 121.5 is guarded by FSS’s, control towers, military towers, approach control facilities, and Air Route Traffic Control Centers.
3) Confess - Once communications are established, let them know your problem.
4) Comply - Follow instructions.
While en route on a cross-country flight, weather has deteriorated and it has become necessary to divert to an alternate airport. Assuming no GPS or DME capability, describe how you will navigate to the alternate.
1) After selecting my alternate, I will approximate the magnetic course to the alternate using a straight edge and a compass rose from a nearby VOR or an airway that closely parallels my direction to the alternate.
2) I can use the straight edge and scale at the bottom of the chart to approximate a distance to the alternate. I can fine-tune this course and distance later, as time permits, with a plotter.
3) If time permits, I’ll start my diversion over a prominent ground feature. However, in an emergency, I’ll divert promptly toward my alternate.
4) Once established on course, I’ll note the time, and then use the winds aloft nearest to my diversion point to calculate a heading and GS. Once I have my GS, I’ll determine my ETA and fuel consumption to the alternate.
5) I’ll give priority to flying the aircraft while dividing attention between navigation and planning.
6) When determining my altitude to use while diverting, I’ll consider cloud heights, winds, terrain, and radio reception.
What is the universal VHF Emergency frequency?
121.5
This is guarded by military towers, most civil towers, FSS’s, and radar facilities.
What is a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF)?
A CTAF is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or TOWER frequency and is identified in appropriate aeronautical publications.
What is UNICOM and what frequencies are designated for its use?
UNICOM is a nongovernment communication facility which may provide airport information at certain airports. Airports other than those with a control tower/FSS on airport will normally use 122.700, 122.725, 122.800, 122.975, 123.000, 123.050, and 123.075 MHZ. Airports with a control tower or an FSS on airport will normally use 122.950 MHz.
What does ATIS mean?
Automatic Terminal Information Service is the continuous broadcast of recorded noncontrol information in selected high activity terminal areas. Its purpose is to improve controller effectiveness and to relieve frequency congestion by automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine information.
If operating into an airport without an operating control tower, FSS, or UNICOM, what procedure should be followed?
Use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures. MULTICOM is a mobile service not open to public use, used to provide communications essential to conduct the activities being performed by or directed from private aircraft.
What frequencies are monitored by most FSS’s (other than 121.5)?
FSS’s and supplemental weather service locations (SWSL) have assigned frequencies for their different functions. If in doubt about what to use, 122.2 MHz is designated as a common enroute simplex frequency at most FSS’s.
What is an RCO?
A remote communications outlet is an unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel, established for the purpose of providing ground-to-ground communications between ATC and pilots located at satellite airports. ATC may use the RCO to deliver en route clearances and departure authorizations, and to acknowledge IFR cancellations or departure/landing times. As a secondary function, RCOs may be used for advisory purposes whenever the aircraft is below the coverage of the primary air/ground frequency.
How can a pilot determine what frequency is appropriate for activating his/her VFR flight plan once airborne?
1) Ask the FSS briefer during the preflight weather briefing.
2) Consult the communications section under flight service for the airport of departure in the Chart Supplement.
What is the meaning of a heavy-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency?
This indicates FSS frequencies 121.5, 122.2, 243.0, and 255.4 are available.
Why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy-lined box?
This usually means that this frequency is available in addition to the standard FSS frequencies.
What is the meaning of a thin-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency?
A plain box without frequencies on top indicates that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. These NAVAIDs will have a “no voice” symbol (underline under frequency).
Why would a frequency be printed on top of a thin-lined blue box?
These frequencies are the best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of the NAVAID site, and will ensure reception by the controlling FSS at low altitudes without terrain interference. They will normally be followed by an “R” which indicates that the FSS can receive only on that frequency (you transmit on that frequency). The pilot will listen for a response over the NACAID frequency.
If you are uncertain about the status of a restricted area along your route of flight, where can you find the frequency for the controlling agency/contact facility responsible for that restricted area?
Special use airspace information can be found on the end panel of a VFR sectional chart. Restricted areas are presented in blue, listed numerically, and supplemented with altitude, time of use, and the controlling agency/contact facility. Frequencies will be listed when available. The controlling agency will be shown when the contact facility and frequency data is unavailable.
If an inflight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, what authority and responsibilities does he/she have?
1) The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of the aircraft.
2) The PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
3) Each PIC who deviates from a Part 91 rule shall, upon request from the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol?
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft:
1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic drink
2) While under the influence of alcohol
3) While using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety
4) While having an alcohol concentration of .04% or more in a blood or breath specimen.
Is it permissible for a pilot to allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
No, except in an emergency.
May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft?
Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are; portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
No PIC may allow any object to be dropped from the aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.
Concering a flight in the local area, is any preflight action required, and if so, what must it consist of?
Yes, pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions.
Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information?
1) NOTAMs
2) Weather reports and forecasts
3) Known ATC traffic delays
4) Runway lengths at airports of intended use
5) Alternative available if the planned flight cannot be completed
6) Fuel requirements
7) Takeoff and landing distance data
Which persons on board an aircraft are required to use seatbelts and when?
Each person on board must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him/her during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. However, a person who has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat.
What responsibility does the pilot-in-command have concerning passengers and their use of seatbelts?
No pilot may take off unless the PIC of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed. the PIC shall ensure that all persons on board have been notified to fasten their seatbelt and shoulder harness, if installed, before movement of the aircraft on the surface, takeoff, or landing.
When are flight crewmembers required to keep their seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep his/her seatbelt fastened while at his/her station. During takeoff and landing, this includes shoulder harnesses, if installed, unless it interferes with other required duties.
If operating an aircraft in close proximity to another, such as formation flight, what regulations apply?
1) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another as to create a collision hazard.
2) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation.
3) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.
What is the order of right-of-way as applied to the different categories of aircraft?
1) Balloons
2) Gliders
3) Airships
4) Airplanes
5) Rotocraft
Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft
When would an aircraft have the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
When the aircraft is experiencing an emergency
State the required action for each of the aircraft confrontations (in the same category) below:
Converging
Approaching head-on
Overtaking
Converging - aircraft on the right has the right-of-way
Approaching head-on - both aircraft shall alter course to the right
Overtaking - The aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way; pilot of the overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right.
What right-of-way rules apply when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing?
Aircraft on final approach to land or while landing have the right-of-way over aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way to an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, what is that maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feel MSL?
Indicated airspeed of more that 250 knots.
What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city?
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft over a congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of people, below an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.
In areas other than congested areas, what minimum safe altitudes shall be used?
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft shall be operated no lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
Define minimum safe altitude.
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
What is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over an area designated as a U.S. wildlife refuge, park or Forest Service Area?
All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface.
When flying below 18,000 feel MSL, cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure?
When the barometric pressure is 31.00” Hg or less, each person operating an aircraft must maintain the cruising altitude of that aircraft by reference to an altimeter that is set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft. If there is no station within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an available station may be used. If the barometric pressure exceeds 31.00”Hg, consult the Aeronautical Information Manual for correct procedures.
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, what procedure should be used?
Use the same procedure as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio; the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used.
When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction?
1) An amended clearance has been obtained
2) An emergency exists
3) In response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory
As PIC, what action, if any, is required of you if you deviate from an ATC instruction and priority is given?
1) Each PIC who, in an emergency or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction must notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible.
2) Each PIC who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC).
In the event of radio failure while operating an aircraft to, from, through or on an airport having an operational tower, what are the different types and meanings of light gun signals you might receive from an ATC tower?
Steady Green - Cleared for takeoff (on the ground)/Cleared to land (in the air)
Flashing Green - Cleared to taxi (on the ground)/return for landing (in the air)
Steady Red - Stop (on the ground)/ Yield, Continue circling (in the air)
Flashing Red - Taxi clear of runway (on the ground)/Unsafe, do not land (in the air)
Flashing White - Return to Start (on the ground)/Not used in the air
Alternate Red/Green - Exercise extreme caution (on the ground and in the air
If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before a landing may be made at that airport?
1) Weather conditions must be at or above basic VFR weather minimums
2) Visual contact with the tower is maintained
3) A clearance to land is received
What procedures should be used when attempting communications with a tower when the aircraft transmitter or received or both are inoperative?
Arriving aircraft receiver inoperative:
1) Remain outside or above Class D surface area
2) Determine direction and flow of traffic
3) Advise tower of aircraft type, position, altitude, and intention to land. Request to be controlled by light signals.
4) At 3 to 5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern
5) Watch tower for light gun signals.
Arriving aircraft transmitter inoperative:
1) Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
2) Determine direction and flow of traffic.
3) Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information.
4) Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals.
5) Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.
Arriving aircraft transmitter and received inoperative:
1) Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
2) Determine direction and flow of traffic.
3) Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals.
4) Acknowledge light signals as noted above.
What general rules apply concerning traffic pattern operations at non-towered airports within Class E or G airspace?
1) In the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right.
2) In the case of an aircraft departing an airport, comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in Part 93.
When operating in Class D airspace, what procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a Visual Approach Slope Indicator?
Aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight at night?
There must be enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.
What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight during the day?
You must be able to fly to the first point of intended landing, and assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes.
When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight at an altitude of more than 3,000 feet above the surface, what rules apply concerning specific altitudes flown?
When above 3,000 feet AGL, but less than 18,000 feet MSL on a magnetic course of 0 degrees to 179 degrees, fly an an odd-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. When on a magnetic course of 180 degrees to 359 degrees, fly at an even-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet
What is an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)?
An ELT is a radio transmitter attached to the aircraft structure which operatures from its own power source on 121.5, 243.0 MHz, and the newer 406 MHz. It aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward-sweeping audio tone, 2-4 times a second. It is designed to function without human action after an accident. It can be operationally tested during the first 5 minutes after any hour.
Is an ELT required on all aircraft?
Yes. The following exceptions exist:
1) Aircraft engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50 NM radius of the airport from which such local flight operations began.
2) Aircraft engaged in design and testing.
3) New aircraft engaged in manufacture, preparation, and delivery.
4) Aircraft engaged in agricultural operations.
When must the batteries in an ELT be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
1) When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour
2) When 50 percent of their useful life has expired (the new expiration date for replacing the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record. This date indicates 50% of the battery’s useful life.)
What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft?
1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL; for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen.
2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL; for the entire flight time at those altitudes, the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen.
3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL; each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen
According to regulations, where is aerobatic flight of an aircraft not permitted?
1) Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement
2) Over an open air assembly of people
3) Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport
4) Within 4 NM of the center line of a Federal airway
5) Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface
6) When flight visibility is less than 3 SM
Define aerobatic flight.
Aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.
When are parachutes required on board an aircraft?
1) Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds;
a) A bank angle of 60 degrees relative to the horizon
b) A nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon
2) The above regulation does not apply to
a) Flight tests for pilot certification or rating
b) Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a CFI or ATP instructing in accordance with 14 CFR 61.67
What is Class A airspace?
Airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alasks; and designated international airspace beyond 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.
Can a flight under VFR be conducted within Class A airspace?
No. Flights in Class A airspace must be IFR.
What is the minimum pilot certification for operations conducted in Class A airspace?
At least a private pilot with an instrument rating.
What minimum equipment is required for flight operations within Class A airspace?
1) A two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on the frequency assigned.
2) A Mod C altitude encoding transponder.
3) ADS-B and TIS-B equipment operating on 1090 MHz ES frequency.
4) Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations
How is Class A airspace depicted on navigational charts?
Is is not specifically charted.
What is the definition of Class B airspace?
That airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers, and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace.
What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class B airspace?
1) The PIC must hold at least a private pilot certificate
2) The PIC a recreational pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.101; or for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94.
3) The PIC holds a sport pilot certificate and has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.325; or the requirements for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in 14 CFR 61.94.
4) The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.94 or 61.95
What is the minimum equipment required for operations of an aircraft within Class B airspace?
1) An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on the appropriate frequencies for that area.
2) A Mod C altitude encoding transponder.
3) ADS-B Out equipment
4) If IFR, an operable VOR or TACAN received or an operable and suitable RNAV system
Before operating an aircraft into Class B airspace, what basic requirement must be met?
Arriving aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area prior to operating an aircraft in that area.
