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OTHX > oo > Flashcards

oo Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum EFB charge required to start a Flight Duty Period?

A

80%

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2
Q

Do you ever write up the EFB securing device in the eAML?

A

No, you never write it up.

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3
Q

How do you know your manuals are current?

A

Check last sync date in bottom left corner of Company Manuals app. Must have been synced AND downloaded within last 4 days.

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4
Q

What do you do if both EFBs become inoperative in flight?

A

Notify OCC
PIC and OCC agree that the failure will not affect safety of flight
Determine a mutually agreeable course of action with OCC

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5
Q

During critical phases of flight, active applications on the EFB are limited to:

A

Company Manuals
Jeppesen FliteDeck-Pro
FliteView

This was a quiz question that didn’t mention any weather apps. You get to use those too

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6
Q

Are you allowed to dispatch with only one EFB?

A

Yes

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7
Q

What fuel requirements are the EFB charge requirements based on?

A

Taxi out + MINTO + Taxi in

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8
Q

When would you use the AT&T mobile hotspot?

A

When a need arises for an alternate EFB connection (your EFB will not connect using WiFi or cellular)

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9
Q

How often do you have to check the battery life capacity on the EFB?

A

Once every 90 days. If the last charge level is shown as 80% or less after a full night, need to replace battery — contact IT.

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10
Q

What is the minimum charge for the backup battery to begin an FDP?

A

100%

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11
Q

Does the iPad sleeve count as a flight bag?

A

No

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12
Q

Can you use a Galley AC receptacle to charge your iPad?

A

No

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13
Q

What do you need to do to depart with only one operational EFB?

A

PM needs to have printed paper copies of all necessary navigation documents for the flight segment(s) to be completed using the Jeppesen Trip Kit. Also need to print normal checklist

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14
Q

If a backup battery is not available, must obtain replacement within ______ company business day(s)

A

1

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15
Q

Is a diversion required if both EFBs fail?

A

No

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16
Q

If both EFBs fail in flight, what action do you take?

A
  • Notify the dispatcher and determine a mutually agreeable course of action
  • Consider the weather, fuel reserves, destination airport conditions, runways, and terrain
  • Flight may continue to its destination airport without the terminal charts when PIC and dispatcher agree that such a continuation does not negatively affect the safety of the flight
  • When an approach will be required in IMC, consider declaring an emergency
  • Request desired guidance from dispatcher and request radar vectors
  • Review approach depiction on nav display on MFD
  • Can obtain aircraft normal checklist from ACARS using SPECIAL COMMAND > CKL
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17
Q

When does SkyWest procedure take precedence over FARs?

A

When the SkyWest procedure is more restrictive

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18
Q

When do you need to abide with new company procedures?

A

By the effective date

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19
Q

How are required manuals shown on the EFB?

A

“Required” is written on the manual icon. Almost all manuals are now required

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20
Q

What is an FOIB?

A

Flight Operations Information Bulletin

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21
Q

What is an FOAB

A

Flight Operations Alert Bulletin

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22
Q

What is your primary consideration at work?

A

Safety

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23
Q

What is an SMS?

A

Safety Management System

It is a systematic program that combines hazard identification and risk management to reduce and eliminate workplace incidents and accidents. Four components: safety policy, safety risk management, safety assurance, and safety promotion

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24
Q

What parts of 14 CFR does SkyWest operate under?

A

91, 119, and 121

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25
Q

What is a VDRP?

A

Voluntary Disclosure Reporting System

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26
Q

When must your medical be renewed per SkyWest policy?

A

By 2359 mountain time on the 25th calendar month it is due

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27
Q

What is OOOI?

A

Out, off, on, in times

If ACARS is inoperative, give OOOI times to company in order to get paid

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28
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for the safe and secure operations of the aircraft?

A

The PIC

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29
Q

Who is jointly responsible for the safety of the flight?

A

PIC and Dispatcher

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30
Q

When does each dispatcher’s responsibility end?

A

At the end of the flight (block in)

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31
Q

If you discover fuel leaking from the left wing during preflight, who do you notify?

A

The PIC

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32
Q

Health problems in your family are affecting your work and your reliability. Who do you talk to?

A

Domicile chief/supervisor

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33
Q

Who is responsible to supervise fueling, GPU, baggage loading, and appropriate servicing of the aircraft?

A

The SIC

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34
Q

What do you do if you lose a medical or pilot certificate?

A

SkyWest may issue you a temporary valid for 72 hours but it is not valid for international ops

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35
Q

What minimums apply to a baby PIC (less than 100 hours in type not including IOE)?

A

At destination, add 100’ to DA/MDA and 1/2 SM to vis

At alternate, do not add 100 and 1/2. Instead, mins are 300-1 or published, whatever is higher

CAT II not authorized

Cannot use exemption 17347

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36
Q

How often do you need to affirm that you are fit for duty?

A

Every flight (ACARS password in FliteView, QR code)

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37
Q

What are the limitations that apply to an SIC with fewer than 100 hours including IOE?

A

Unless the PIC is a check airman, PIC must make all takeoffs and landings when:

  • Visibility at or below 3/4 SM
  • RVR at or below 4000
  • Water, snow, slush, etc. that adversely affects aircraft performance is present
  • Braking action is less than good (RCC 5 or less)
  • Crosswind greater than 15 knots
  • Windshear is reported
  • FAA Special PIC Qualification Airports
  • Any other condition PIC determines
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38
Q

What do the FOM and FARs say about drugs and alcohol?

A

May not act or attempt to act as crewmember of SkyWest aircraft:

  • Within 8 hours of consumption of alcoholic beverage (measured from REPORT time)
  • While under the influence of alcohol
  • While using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety

FARs say no BAC above 0.04%
SkyWest FOM says no BAC above 0.02%

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39
Q

What is the maximum crosswind limit for an SIC?

A

A 90° crosswind component of 20 knots, waived when PIC is check airman

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40
Q

PIC and SIC should not eat same food from same preparation agency while on duty or within how long prior to flight duty?

A

6 hours

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41
Q

How is duty defined?

A

Any task that a pilot performs as required by the certificate holder, including but not limited to:

  • FDP
  • Flight duty
  • pre and post flight duties
  • administrative work
  • training
  • deadhead transportation
  • aircraft positioning on the ground
  • aircraft loading
  • aircraft servicing
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42
Q

What is a Flight Duty Period (FDP)?

A

Period that begins when a pilot is required to report for duty with the intention of conducting a flight, a series of flights, or positioning or ferrying flights, and ends when the aircraft is parked after the last flight and there is no intention for further aircraft movement by the same pilot.

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43
Q

What is a Rest Period?

A

A continuous period determined prospectively during which the flight crew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder including freedom from present responsibility for work should the occasion rise.

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44
Q

Under the FRMP, whose responsibility is it to monitor pilot fatigue levels?

A

Pilots (you)

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45
Q

When did FAR 117 take effect?

A

January of 2014

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46
Q

What should you do if it is suspected that another crewmember is under the influence?

A
  • Keep them away from the airport/airplane

- Call Flight Ops MOD

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47
Q

For both pilots, who is the direct supervisor?

A

Chief Pilot

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48
Q

Regarding alcohol consumption ,what responsibilities does a crewmember have after an aircraft incident/accident?

A

Do not consume alcohol for 8 hours unless you have been given a post-accident/incident alcohol test and been released from duty.

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49
Q

If you lose your FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit, could you continue a trip to Canada?

A

Yes, as long as the other pilot has theirs. Only one pilot in contact with ATC is required to have it.

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50
Q

Can flight time limitations be exceeded?

A

No, unless unforeseen circumstances happen in flight, then you may extend flight time to land safety at destination or alternate. FAA must be notified within 10 days.

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51
Q

What are the flight time limits based on scheduled report time?

A

0000-0459: 8 hours max
0500-1959: 9 hours max
2000-2359: 8 hours max

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52
Q

What are the cumulative flight time limitations?

A

Cannot exceed:

  • 100 hours in any 672 hours (rolling time frame)
  • 1,000 hours in any 365 days (only limitation based on days)
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53
Q

What rest requirements must be met before starting an FDP or RAP?

A
  • Must get 10 hours of rest including 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity between FDPs or RAPs
  • Must have at least 30 hours of rest looking back 168 consecutive hours before starting FDP or RAP
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54
Q

What are the cumulative FDP limits?

A

Cannot exceed:
60 FDP hours in any 168 consecutive hours
190 FDP hours in any 672 consecutive hours

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55
Q

Where do you look to find max FDP hours based on number of legs and domicile time?

A

Table B

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56
Q

Do diversions count as additional flight segments?

A

No

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57
Q

Does deadheading before a flight segment count toward FDP time? How about after?

A

Before: DOES count toward FDP time
After: does NOT count toward FDP time

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58
Q

When may an FDP limit be exceeded and by how much?

A
  • Must be unforeseen circumstance

- May be extended up to 2 hours as long as it doesn’t go over max cumulative FDP times (60 in 168, 190 in 672)

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59
Q

What is the maximum reserve availability period?

A

14 hours

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60
Q

What conditions must be met for SkyWest to schedule you for more than 3 consecutive nights of FDPs that infringe on your WOCL?

A

May be scheduled for up to 5 in a row if provided with opportunity to rest in suitable accommodation during each consecutive nighttime FDP. Each rest opportunity must:

  • Be at least 2 hours from when you get to the accommodation
  • Be provided between 22:00 and 05:00 local time
  • Be scheduled prior to beginning of FDP
  • Rest cannot be less than scheduled
  • Rest not provided until first segment complete
  • Any spilt duty (standup) rest provided in accordance with these criteria counts as part of FDP
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61
Q

What rest and duty rules apply to Split Duty (stand ups)?

A
  • Rest opportunity before 2200-0500 local
  • At least 3 hours at suitable accommodation
  • Rest period must be scheduled before FDP starts
  • Rest may not be shorter than scheduled
  • First segment of split duty must be completed before rest starts
  • Combined time of FDP and rest cannot exceed 14 hours
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62
Q

If you don’t get called on short call reserve, what is your maximum RAP?

A

14 hours

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63
Q

If you get assigned an FDP while on reserve, how do you determine your FDP + RAP limit?

A

Time spent in an FDP and RAP limited is the LESSER of:

  • RAP + Table B
  • Table B + 4 hours
  • 16 hours

Measured from beginning of reserve availability period.

  • Use start of FDP in Table B
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64
Q

What report times apply to you?

A

45 mins prior: through security and checked in

35 mins prior: at airplane/gate and ready to go

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65
Q

What items are required for flight?

A
  • Current pilot certificate
  • Current medical
  • Spare corrective lenses if international
  • Company ID badge
  • FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
  • Valid Passport
  • Flashlight in good working condition
  • Headset in good working condition
  • Flight bag to carry EFB
  • Current Jepp Airway Manual, FOM, SOPM
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66
Q

What landings does pilot records automatically give the PIC & SIC?

A

PIC logs odd landings, SIC logs even

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67
Q

Where is RVSM airspace?

A

FL290 to FL410

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68
Q

How are climbs and descents in RVSM limited?

A

Limited to 1,000 FPM within 5 miles and 2,000 ft of another aircraft

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69
Q

Can a high minimums captain use exemption 17347?

A

No!

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70
Q

What are the altimeter tolerances?

A

Both must be within 75 feet of field elevation

SOPM also says: must be within 200 feet of each other in flight for RVSM, any deviation farther than that may indicate system failure.

something weird is going on here. Nick said in class to never check them against each other, but the SOPM says they must be within 75 feet of field elevation AND within 75 feet of each other.

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71
Q

What are the critical phases of flight?

A
  • All ground operations (taxi, takeoff, landing)
  • All flight operations below 10,000’ except cruise
  • Takeoff phase concluded after 10,000’ or cruise if lower
  • Descent phase begins when passing through 18,000’ or leaving cruise if lower
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72
Q

Who can carry weapons on SkyWest aircraft?

A
  • LEO (must be on duty if state officials)
  • Federal Air Marshals
  • Federal Flight Deck Officers
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73
Q

When would you declare minimum fuel?

A

When you’re unable to accept any undue delays

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74
Q

When would you declare a fuel emergency?

A

When you will land with less than 30 minutes of fuel at destination

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75
Q

What information is required to be in a dispatch release? DIMMWIT

A 
Departure/destination/alternate airports
Identification — A/C tail number
MINTO
MEL/CDL items
Weather for all airports
IFR or VFR release
Trip or flight number (call sign in the air)
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76
Q

When may the PIC deny access to the flight deck?

A

Whenever they deem it necessary for the safety of flight

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77
Q

What form of ID are FAA inspectors required to have?

A

FAA Form 110A

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78
Q

Does the PIC or ground marshaller have final authority during ground movements?

A

PIC

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79
Q

When do you need a takeoff alternate?

A

Need one when weather at departure airport isn’t good enough to do an approach back in. Must be within one hour flying time single engine in still air.

One hour single engine distance is 250 NM for 200, 300 NM for all other types in fleet

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80
Q

When do you need a first alternate?

A 
123 rule
Freezing precipitation
RCC less than 3
Airport has no IAP
Airport is in Alaska and only has one suitable runway
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81
Q

What is marginal weather?

A

When BOTH the destination and first alternate are at the minimums (all or none)

Destination: only visibility
Alternate: visibility AND ceiling

Must be exactly at minimums to count as marginal

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82
Q

When do you need a second alternate?

A

When WX is marginal and when using exemption 17347

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83
Q

What language in TAF is main body and what is conditional?

A

Main body: first line, FM, BCMG after end of period

Conditional: TEMPO, PROB30, PROB40, BCMG during period

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84
Q

What does exemption 17347 allow?

A

Lets us depart when WX below mins for destination or first alternate
Cannot be less than 1/2 of minimums (visibility for destination, visibility AND ceiling for 1st alternate)
Does NOT apply to BCMG
Does not apply to international ops
Does not apply to second alternate
Does NOT apply to takeoff alternates
Does not apply to high minimums captains

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85
Q

How do you use 17347?

A

Start with main body of TAF. If below mins, stop there — you can’t go. If above mins, but conditional language shows below mins but still better than or equal to 1/2 of required visibility at destination or visibility and ceiling at 1st alternate, you can go and a second alternate is required. Second alternate weather must be at or above minimums (ceiling and visibility) at ETA.

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86
Q

What do you do enroute if using 17347?

A

Monitor current METARs and TAFs for destination and alternate

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87
Q

What is the single approach method for deriving filing alternate minimums?

A

Add 400’ and 1 mile to approach of choice

88
Q

What is the double approach method for deriving filing alternate minimums?

A

Add 200 to highest MDA/DA
Add 1/2 mile to highest visibility
Approaches MUST be two different nav systems to two different suitable runways
Suitable means that WX and situation allows landing on that runway

89
Q

Is CAT II authorized for deriving alternate filing minimums?

A

No

90
Q

Minimum altitude in mountainous and non-mountainous areas?

A

Non-mountainous: 1,000’ above all obstacles within 4 miles

Mountainous: 2,000’ above all obstacles within 4 miles

91
Q

Under which RVR does SMGCS come into effect?

A

1200 RVR

92
Q

Action when mechanical irregularity discovered prior to block out

A

PIC reports irregularity to MX

MX determines action required to correct or defer the mechanical irregularity

93
Q

Action when mechanical irregularity after block out and prior to takeoff

A

Follow QRH, if that fixes the problem you can continue. PIC notifies MX at end of flight. MX determines action required.

If QRH doesn’t fix it before takeoff, PIC notifies MX. MX determines action required — possibly directed reset procedure or deferral.

94
Q

Action when mechanical irregularity after takeoff before block in

A

PIC must contact dispatcher to apply any operational limitation and ensure flight can continue safety. PIC reports to MX at end of flight.

95
Q

Action when mechanical irregularity is discovered after block in and flight has been closed out

A

PIC must reactivate flight via FliteView and report mechanical irregularity to MX. Maintenance determines action required to correct or defer mechanical irregularity. Once complete, PIC closes out flight again.

96
Q

How do you verify that the aircraft is airworthy?

A

Verify status is In Service (IS), blue bar
Review DMIs for compliance
Ensure all MELs and CDLs are accurately documented on flight release
Review the maintenance log
If your EFB doesn’t have a connection, contact dispatcher and go through same process. You’d also need to get a paper city of the maintenance log for the past 14 days

97
Q

What would you do if a circuit breaker popped on the ground?

A

PIC reports mechanical irregularity to MX via FliteView. MX determines actions required

98
Q

What would you do if a circuit breaker popped in flight?

A

Refer to QRH for procedure. When no reset procedure is published, may reset ONCE if PIC deems in necessary for safe completion of the flight.

99
Q

What are the required documents for international operations?

A
  • Crewmembers must have all required documents
  • Mexico Air Operator Certificate (AOC) (international documents tab)
  • Proof of Mexico national and international aircraft insurance (international documents tab)
  • Aircraft Noise Certification Information (located on EFB > International > AC Noise Certificate Forms)
100
Q

Where can you look to see if you have the required international documents?

A

They are found in the EFB > International

FOM chapter 8 has list of required documents

101
Q

Can you have a 2 hour sit in Canada and stay in the plane the whole time?

A

No, you have to deplane after 90 minutes unless you have prior approval from CBP and CBSA (Canadian Border Service Agency)

102
Q

Where can you find info about charter flights in the FOM?

A

Chapter 9 of the FOM, Supplemental Operations

103
Q

How long can you keep passengers “trapped” in the airplane? Does it vary between international and domestic?

A
  • 180 minutes for domestic airports (120 minutes for high risk or if you don’t have the delay kit)
  • 240 minutes for international airports

UNLESS PIC determines there is a safety or security reason or ATC advises PIC that a return to the gate would significantly disrupt airports operations

104
Q

What deviations must you notify dispatch of?

A
  • ETA change of greater than 15 minutes
  • 100 miles off course
  • 4,000’ from filed altitude
105
Q

ICE Brief

A

Introduction
Communication (between flight deck and cabin)
Entry Protocol

106
Q

WANT Brief

A

Weather
Area/Airport/Arrival
NOTAMs
Threats

107
Q

NTSBO

A

Nature of emergency — conditions, etc.
Time available for preparation
Signal used for evacuation, expedited deplaning, or non-evacuation
Brace — will brace position be necessary (when the landing outcome is in question)
Other — any additional info pertinent to emergency evacuation

108
Q

During an accident, what are the crew responsibilities?

A

Passenger safety and preservation of records

109
Q

What is an IOR and when do we need to file one?

A
  • Irregular Operations Report
  • When diverting for other than WX
  • When diverting to an airport that was not a planned alternate
  • When rejecting a takeoff
  • Any extreme irregularity
110
Q

How long does the PIC have to fill out an IOR?

A

24 hours, company needs to send it to the FAA within 10 days

111
Q

When you divert, when do you communicate with dispatch?

A

As soon as practical

112
Q

What constitutes a suitable airport?

A

The PIC determines this based on all available information

Some procedures may require you to land immediately

113
Q

Who is ultimately responsible in an emergency?

A

The PIC

114
Q

Which pilots can do a Group 1 in-flight function check and what are those checks?

A

Any pilot

Landing gear, flaps, autopilot, pressurization

115
Q

Which pilots can do a Group 2 in-flight function check and what are those checks?

A

PIC must be line check airman

ADG drop, R&I of both power plants, etc.)

116
Q

When do we need a special flight permit?

A

When the aircraft no longer meets airworthiness standards for revenue flights, but is still in a safe condition to fly

117
Q

On a non-routine flight, can revenue passengers be carried?

A

No

118
Q

Where can you find fuel information on charters?

A

Chapter 9 of the FOM

119
Q

What are the weather requirements for charters?

A

Same as normal 121

120
Q

Are you allowed to use your phone in a customs area?

A

No

121
Q

What weather and conditions must be present for a LAHSO clearance to be accepted?

A

Without VGSI: 1500-5
With VGSI: 1000-3

  • Not authorized if windshear reported in last 20 minutes
  • Tailwind must be calm (<3 knots)
  • No MEL affecting stopping capability of plane
  • Wet runway is prohibited
  • Night landing LAHSO only if LAHSO lights installed and operational
  • Must land in 1st third or 3000 ft whichever is less
  • Must accept clearance above 1,000’ AFE
  • Must fully read back LAHSO clearance — once accepted, must comply
  • SOPM has minimum LAHSO available distances based on Pressure Altitude
122
Q

What is required for a visual approach or CVFP?

A
  • Flight operated and remains within within class B, C, or D airspace
  • Within 35 miles of destination if in class E
  • Under control of ATC
  • Must maintain basic cloud clearances per 91.155
  • Must have airport or preceding aircraft in sight

If you have preceding aircraft in sight, ATC not responsible for separation. If you don’t, ATC is still responsible.

123
Q

What is 30 minutes of fuel in each of the types?

A

CRJ 200: 1050
CRJ 700/ERJ 175: 1500
CRJ 900: 1550

124
Q

What are the minimum runway lengths for landing for each airplane type?

A

All aircraft: 5,400’
CRJ 200: 5,000’
CRJ 700/ERJ 175: 5,200’
CRJ 900: 5,400’

125
Q

What is required to cancel IFR when going into controlled and uncontrolled airports?

A
  • Must maintain basic VFR minimums and cloud clearances

Controlled:

  • Within and remains in class B, C, or D
  • Within 10 miles of destination in class E
  • Maintains direct contact with ATC

Uncontrolled:

  • Flight operated within 10 NM of destination
  • Visual reference with the landings surface is established and maintained
  • Crew monitors CTAF
126
Q

What do you need to depart VFR?

A

Need 1000-3

Must pick up clearance within 50NM

127
Q

What are the fuel requirements in the US and internationally?

A

Domestic: to destination + to most distant alternate + 45 minutes
International: to destination + 10% + to most distant alternate + 30 mins holding (if no alt destination + 2 hrs)

128
Q

What are standard takeoff minimums?

A

1 SM / 5000 RVR for airplanes with 2 or less engines

129
Q

Takeoff minimums for 1/4 SM or above

A

Lighting: HIRL or CL or RCLM or Adequate Visual Reference

No RVR reports required

130
Q

Takeoff minimums for 1600 (or higher RVR)

A

Lighting: HIRL or CL or RCLM
1 RVR required
TDZ controlling
MID may be substituted for missing TDZ

131
Q

Takeoff minimums for 12/12/10 DAY

A

Lighting: HIRL or CL or RCLM
2 RVR reports required out of any 3 or 4 RVR system except FAR.
All available reports are controlling (use worst of 2)

132
Q

Takeoff minimums for 12/12/10 NIGHT

A

Lighting: HIRL or CL
2 RVR reports required out of any 3 or 4 RVR system except FAR.
All available reports are controlling (use worst of 2)

133
Q

Takeoff minimums for 10/10/10

A

Lighting: CL or HIRL and RCLM
2 RVR reports required out of any 3 or 4 RVR system except FAR.
All available reports are controlling (use worst of 2)

134
Q

Takeoff minimums for 6/6/6

A

Lighting: HIRL and CL
2 RVR reports required out of any 3 or 4 RVR system except FAR.
All available reports are controlling (use worst of 2)

135
Q

What are the approved sources of weather?

A
  • NWS
  • WSI
  • AWOS and ASOS
  • WMA
  • OCC
136
Q

When can we descend on an approach after cleared?

A

Once established on a published segment of the approach (feeder routes to IAFs count)
Make sure you stay above bottom of B shelf

137
Q

What do you need to descend from DA or MDA?

A

Flight visibility as required on approach plate
Land using normal maneuvers in the TDZ
If ALS in sight, descent to 100 ft above TDZ until red side row bars or terminating bars are in sight
Runway, runway lights, runway markings, TDZ, TDZ lights, TDZ markings, threshold, threshold lights, threshold markings, VASI, REIL

138
Q

Does SkyWest do contact approaches?

A

No

139
Q

What do you need to circle to land?

A

Only approved in 3 SM and 1000 HAA
If chart is higher you have to use that
If chart is lower raise it to 1000-3

140
Q

After engine failure on T/O roll above V1, what speed do you maintain until 1,000 AGL

A

V2

141
Q

How can a PIC or SIC qualify for special qualification airports?

A 
PIC or SIC can use a level D simulator or real airplane including takeoff or landing in last 12 months
Pictorial qualification (Jepp, marked as Airport Qualification)
142
Q

What are the different segments of climb?

A

First: From point where airplane becomes airborne until it reaches 35’ at end of runway distance required, speed must be V2 by end of this segment

Second: most critical segment. From 35’ to 400’ at full power at V2

Third: Accelerate from V2 to Vfs

Fourth: From 400 to 1500 AGL

143
Q

What counts as a significant disruption of service?

A

Airborne holding that would result in delays of 15 minutes or more
Arrival/departure delays of 15 minutes or more
Would result in placing other aircraft in jeopardy of violating 3 hour tarmac delay rule

144
Q

When do you need a new release vs. amended?

A

New: After making an unscheduled landing including a return to original airport

Amended: Crew change, aircraft change, MINTO, release fuel, altitude and routing, weather, MEL/CDLs, etc.

145
Q

What are the reduced CAT I landing minimums?

A

Must show RVR 1800 on chart
If TDZ and Centerline Lights are out, you can still use 1800 RVR mins
Need HUD, Autopilot, or Flight Director

146
Q

What are the required runway/approach lights and winds for CAT II?

A

HIRL and TDZ and CL
ALSF or SSALR or SSALS (SFL can be INOP)

Maximum crosswind: 15 knots

147
Q

CAT II Landing Minimums w/ RVR between 1400 and 1800

A

1400/INOP/INOP

Above 1400 RVR, TDZ is controlling

148
Q

CAT II Landing Minimums w/ RVR below 1400

A

1200/INOP/300
1200/600/INOP
1200/600/300 — lowest authorized minimums
1200/INOP/INOP/300

TDZ and RO are controlling AND required below 1400 RVR (MID or FAR can be substituted for RO)
Below 1400 RVR, must have RO RVR (MID or FAR can be substituted)

149
Q

What are the minimum cleared runway widths for each type of airplane?

A

CRJ 200: 75’

Everything else: 80’

150
Q

What wake turbulence category does each type of airplane fall into?

A

Lower Large for all types

151
Q

What equipment is required to operate in RVSM airspace?

A
  • Two independent altitude measurement systems
  • Altitude Reporting Transponder
  • One altitude alert system
  • One automatic altitude control system
152
Q

When would you have to notify ATC that you’re unable RVSM?

A

Altitude deviations of 200 feet or greater
Failure of transponder
Failure of either primary altimeter system
Allure of altitude alerting and/or capture capability
Failure of AFCS

153
Q

1/4 SM takeoff minimums

A

HIRL or CL or RCLM or ADQ VIS REF

No RVR required

154
Q

1600 RVR takeoff minimums

A

HIRL or CL or RCLM

One RVR report required. TDZ controlling. Can substitute MID for TDZ.

155
Q

12/12/10 takeoff minimums — day

A

HIRL or CL or RCLM

Two RVR reports required. All available reports controlling.

156
Q

12/12/10 takeoff minimums — night

A

HIRL or CL

Two RVR reports required. All available reports controlling.

157
Q

10/10/10 takeoff minimums

A

CL or HIRL and RCLM (this is because HIRLs are bright enough for you to see RCLM)

Two RVR reports required. All available reports controlling.

158
Q

6/6/6 takeoff minimums

A

HIRL and CL

Two RVR reports required. All available reports controlling.

159
Q

What runway lights are required for CAT II approaches?

A
  • HIRL
  • TDZ
  • CL
160
Q

What approach lights are required for CAT II approaches?

A

ALSF or SSALR or SSALS

161
Q

What lights can be inoperative for a CAT II approach?

A

SFL (sequenced flashing lights)

162
Q

CAT II 1400-1800 RVR — what TDZ value would allow you to commence the approach?

A

TDZ 1400

163
Q

CAT II below 1400 RVR — what minimum RVR values would allow you to commence the approach?

A

1200/INOP/300
1200/600/INOP
1200/600/300
1200/INOP/INOP/300

MID RVR (600) and FAR END (300) reports may be substituted for RO report

164
Q

During supplemental operations, when are passengers allowed in the flight deck?

A

After the flight terminates

165
Q

What are the steps to confirm it’s okay to land on a CAT II approach?

A
  • Look at TDZ and confirm it’s above 1200
  • If MID available, ensure above 600
  • RO required and controlling, ensure it is above 300
  • *you CAN substitute MID RVR (600) and FAR END (300) for RO report**
  • Must have HIRL, TDZ, and CL lights
  • Must have ALSF, SSALR, or SSALS lights
  • SLF can be INOP
  • Max crosswind 15 knots
166
Q

Definition of start of takeoff

A

Pushing thrust levers up with intent to fly

167
Q

What are the two types of RNAV SIDs/DPs?

A

Type A — heading to fix prior to joining departure routing

Type B — join departure routing off the runway

168
Q

Regarding its 121 operation, who does SkyWest answer to?

A

Principal Operations Inspector (POI) from the Certificate Management Office (CMO)

169
Q

What limitations apply to an FDP extension?

A
  • Must be agreed upon by crewmember and SkyWest
  • Unlimited extensions of 30 minutes can occur without impacting rest period requirements
  • Only one extension of greater than 30 minutes but no more than 2 hours can occur within a 168 hour period before a mandatory 30 consecutive hours of rest are required
170
Q

Besides required crewmembers, who is authorized to ride in the flight deck on international flights?

A
  • DOD Air Carrier Evaluator
  • FAA ASI
  • SkyWest Check Airman
171
Q

What operational requirements are required before using the PAATs system?

A
  • Your aircraft must not have hot brakes

- Your aircraft must have as functioning APU

172
Q

What are the preferred and minimum required crew for gate arrival?

A

Preferred: Marshaller and one wing walker
Minimum: Marshaller

173
Q

What are the preferred and minimum required crew for gate departure (pushback)?

A

Preferred: Pushback operator and two wing walker
Required: Pushback operator and one wing walker

174
Q

What is the minimum oxygen supply for each flight deck crewmember?

A

Two hours when flight will be dispatched above 10,000’. Each crewmember personally preflight equipment and ensures pressure is above minimum crew oxygen bottle pressure specified in appropriate SOPM.

175
Q

At what minimum temp should altitude corrections be applied if not published?

A

-30°C

176
Q

Which segments of an approach are you required to report cold WX altitude corrections?

A

Intermediate segment and missed approach segment

177
Q

What is the minimum width reported in a FICON NOTAM that a CRJ 200 can accept?

A

75’

However, if remainder of FICON reports less than or equal to 1/8” and width is at least 100’ you can still go

178
Q

What is the minimum width reported in a FICON NOTAM that a CRJ7/9 or ERJ 175 could take?

A

80’

However, if remainder of FICON equal to or less than 1/8” and runway width is at least 100’ then you can still go

179
Q

What is the hierarchy of RVR reports for a CAT I ILS?

A

TDZ - controlling
MID - advisory
RO - advisory

180
Q

What does Ops Spec C070 authorize?

A

Airports we are authorized to conduct scheduled operations into within the 48 contiguous states and within 950 NM outside the contiguous US to Canada, Mexico, and the Bahamas.

181
Q

What requirements need to be met to operate IFR within class G?

A
  • Airport must have IAP
  • Weather reporting at the field
  • Monitor CTAF
182
Q

When departing on a NRFO without a flight attendant, crew must:

A

Prior to flight: Ensure galley carts, coffee pots, overhead bins, etc. are closed and secure and arm the main cabin door if applicable.

At conclusion of flight: Prior to CSA opening door, disarm it if applicable and give thumbs up when ready

183
Q

Which category of our special flight permit authorization are we operating under when the flight is being made as a result of primary structural damage?

A

Category 3

184
Q

Which category of our special flight permit authorization are we operating under when the flight is being made as a result of secondary structural damage?

A

Category 2

185
Q

Which category of our special flight permit authorization are we operating under when the flight is being made as a result of inoperative equipment?

A

Category 1

186
Q

Which category of our special flight permit authorization are we operating under when the flight is being made as a result of evacuation from a hazardous location?

A

Category 5

187
Q

Which category of our special flight permit authorization are we operating under when the flight is being made as a result of noncompliance with an airworthiness directive?

A

Category 4

188
Q

When conducting a flight under our special flight permit authorization, what requirements must be met?

A
  • WX must be at or above minimums
  • Only required personnel may be on board
  • Paperwork: special flight permit form signed & eAML says: “This aircraft is to be ferried and has been inspected and found safe for flight”
189
Q

Which drift down alternate method allows an aircraft to lose an engine while enroute and clear all obstacles during diversion to alternate by at least 2000 feet?

A

Method 2

190
Q

Which driftdown alternate method allows an aircraft to lose an engine during departure and be able to climb up with OEI up to an altitude that will ensure obstacle clearance by at least 1000 feet enroute to alternate airport?

A

Method 1

191
Q

When landing on a dry runway under part 121, what is the distance it must land within?

A

Must land within 60% of runways effective length

192
Q

How long does the runway have to be under part 121 when it’s wet?

A

At least 115% of our anticipated landing distance

193
Q

What is the ground turn time in Canada and Bahamas before crew must leave the aircraft and pass through customs?

A

90 minutes

194
Q

How much extra fuel (contingency) will dispatch add to each flight release?

A

15 mins

195
Q

How much of a fuel decrease can PIC coordinate without talking to dispatch?

A

200 lb or half of contingency, whichever is more restrictive

196
Q

On the ground each pilot’s altimeter must read:

A

Within 75’ of field elevation

Not each other!!!

197
Q

Where is the CDL located?

A

Part of the AFM

198
Q

You are unable to activate the flight using FliteView so you contact your dispatcher by phone. How many days of maintenance log history are required?

A

14

199
Q

During taxi out the right main generator fails. After completing the QRH procedure with success, the flight may continue under what conditions?

A

PIC contacts MX concerning the mechanical irregularity at the end of the flight, and PIC ensures mechanical irregularity is entered in the eAML

200
Q

Does spilling a drink in the flight deck count as aircraft damage?

A

Yes

201
Q

On the ground, a coffee maker circuit breaker pops. The crew is allowed to reset the breaker under which conditions?

A

After contacting maintenance, crew receives instructions for a reset procedure and enters the discrepancy into the eAML.

202
Q

Is it true that only the PIC must close out at the end of a flight?

A

No, both pilots must close out.

203
Q

After an emergency, a written report (IOR) must be filed by when?

A

Within 24 hours

204
Q

You divert to your alternate due to weather. What do you need to do?

A

Notify dispatch. An IOR and notification of MOD is not necessary because you diverted for WX, they would be required if you diverted for another reason.

205
Q

You have the flight deck door come open shortly after takeoff, when you look back to close the door you notice a lot of passengers pointing their phone cameras at you. What do you do?

A

Notify dispatch
Complete an IOR
Notify MOD

206
Q

A passenger is clearly intoxicated. What do you do?

A

The passenger must be removed from the flight.

207
Q

During an approach the captain does not respond to an SOPM call out. What do you do?

A

Initiate another communication to verify the captain is not incapacitated.

208
Q

After an accident, SkyWest is responsible for:

A 
Preservation of wreckage
Cargo
Mail
All records and reports
Flight recorders
209
Q

While eating at In-N-Out burger, someone begins talking to you about a SkyWest flight that diverted due to a problem with a passenger. What should you do?

A

Refer them to the SkyWest Corporate Communications office at 435-705-2989

210
Q

Are insurance representatives, media representatives, and lawyers allowed at a crash site?

A

No

211
Q

What are some examples of things that require an IOR?

A

Bird strike
Rejected takeoff due to aircraft problem
Passenger injury
Etc.

212
Q

Can you reduce minimums to 1800 RVR on a CAT I ILS if the TDZ or CL are inoperative?

A

Yes, you can.

213
Q

When departing IFR with a VFR climb:

A

Fly the cleared/filed flight plan unless amended

214
Q

Are CAT II operations ever authorized with TDZ INOP?

A

No, you always need a TDZ RVR report for CAT II.

215
Q

If you’re 45 miles out from a non-towered destination, but have the runway in sight, can you cancel IFR?

A

Yes, the FOM says you must either have the runway in sight OR be within 10 miles.

216
Q

How many RVR reports do you need for takeoff if the RVR is less than 1600?

A

Two. FAR doesn’t count

OTHX (5 decks)

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