OnG year 5 Impeys Flashcards

1
Q

What is the average age of menarche?

A

13 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the different phases of the menstrual cycle?

A

Day 1-4: menstruation
day 5-13: proliferative phase
day 14-28: luteal/secretory phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define abnormal uterine bleeding

A

any variation from the normal menstrual cycle. Includes: changes in regularity and frequency of menses, in duration of flow, or in amount of blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define amenorrhea

A

No bleeding in a 6 month interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the normal frequency and duration of periods?

A

24-38 days, with 3-8 days of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the subjective and objective defintion of menorrhagia?

A

Subjective: bleeding interferes with woman’s physcial, emotional, social and material quality of life.
Objective: >80mL blood loss = maximum amount a woman can lose eating a normal diet without becoming iron defecient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the most common pathologies causing heavy menstrual bleeding? + rest?

A

fibroids- 30%
Polyps- 10 %
thyroid disease, haemostatic disorders such as von willebrand’s disease and anti- coagulant therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the investigations required for a patient presenting with dismenorrhagia?

A

Haemoglobin + FBC: assess the effect of blood loss
Coagulation + thyroid: if history is suggesive of a problem
TVUS: to exclude local structural causes ( saline US improves visualisation of fibroids and polyps.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the normal range of endometrium thickness in premenopausal women?

A

4mm(follicular phase) - 16mm(luteal phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the risk factors of endometrial cancer?

A
Obesity
diabetes
nulliparity
history of PCOS 
family history of HNPCC) hereditary non polyposis colorectal cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What investigations should be considered for endometrial cancer?

A

Pipelle in OP

hysteroscopy in IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is HMB managed?

A

IUS- NICE first line if not trying to concieve. 2nd = COCP. 3rd= POP, GnRH agonists- limited to 6 months

Tranexamic acid or NSAIDS (mefenamic acid reduces prostaglandin synthesis) if trying to concieve

Then consider surgical management-
Polyp removal
endometrial ablation techniques
transcervical resection of fibroids
Myomectomy
Uterine artery embolisation
Hysteroscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When should endometrial biopsy be considered?

A

Age > 40 years
HMB with IMB
risk factors for endometrial cancer present
HMB unresponsive to medical treatment
US shows polyp or focal endometrial thickening
If abnormal uterine bleeding has led to acute admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which pelvic pathology can use irregular bleeding or IMB?

A

Non malignant causes: fibroids, polyps, adenomyosis, ovarian cysts and chronic pelvic infection
Malignant causes: endometrial, ovarian + cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the investigations for irregular bleeding or IMB?

A

FBC + Hb: assess effect of blood loss
cervical smear taken if required to rule our malignancy
US for >35 with irregular or IMB or if medical treatment has failed for younger women
Endometrial biopsy if the endometrium is thickened, especially if women is over 40.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the management for IMB or irregular bleeding?

A

COCP makes cycle regular. IUS lightens period. - 1st line
Progestogens in high dose cause amenorrhoea
HRT may regulate erratic uterne bleeding during perimenopause
Surgery: cervical polyps can be avulsed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define primary and secondary amenorrhoea.

A

Primary amenorrhoea = menstruation hasn’t started by age of 16, may be after delayed puberty- no secondary sexual characeristics by 14 years.
Secondary amenorrhoea = previously normal menstruation ceases for 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the most common cause of oligomenorrhoea and secondary amenorrhoea? + other causes

A

PCOS, premature menopause (1/100), hyperprolactinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes hypothalamic hypogonadism and how does it cause amenorrhoea?

A

Causes: psychological stress, low weight/anorexia, excessive exercise
Leads to reduced GnRH and therefore FSH, LH and oestrodial are reduced.
Oestrogen replacement required if prolonged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is hyperprolactinaemia managed?

A

Bromocriptine, cabergoline, transsphenoidal surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does hypothyroidsim lead to amenorrhoea?

A

Hypothyroidism leads to raised prolactin levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some congenital causes of amenorrhoea?

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia, Turner’s syndrome, imperforate hymen, transverse vaginal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are structural causes causes secondary amenorrhoea?

A

Cervical stenosis, asherman’s syndrome- caused by excessive curettage during ERPC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the causes of postcoital bleeding?

A
Think Cervix!
cervial carcinoma
cervial ectropion
cervical polyps
cervicitis, vaginitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is postcoital bleeding managed?

A

Cervix inspected using a speculum, smear taken and if polyp present it is avulsed. Ectropion can be frozen with cyrotherapy. If smear is abnormal, colposcopy is undertaken to exclude a malignant cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

define dysmenorrhoea?

A

Painful menstruation associated with high prostagalandin levels in the endometrium and due to contraction and uterine ischaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

define primary dysmenorrhoea

A

when no organic cause is found, associated with onset of menstruation. Present in 50% of women.
pain usually responds to NSAIDs or ovulation suppression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea?

A

Fibroids, adenomyosis, endometriosis, PID and ovarian tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define precocious puberty

A

Menstruation occurs before age of 9 years or other secondary sexual characteristics are evident before 8 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the causes of precocious puberty?

A

80% = Physiological
Central causes: meningitis, encephalitis, CNS tumours, hydrocephaly, hypothyroidism may prevent normal pubertal inhibition of hypothalamic GnRH release.

Ovarian/adrenal causes: due to increased oestrogen production. E.g = hormone producing tumours of the ovary or adrean lands. McCune Albright syndrome- bone and ovarian cysts, cafe au lait spots and precocious puberty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the treat of McCune albright syndrome?

A

Cyproterone acetate- antiandrogenic prostogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the causes of ambigious development and intersex?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia ( recessive inheritance): 21-hydroxylase defeciency.

Androgen insensitivty syndrome- male has cell receptor insensitivity to androgens. XY female phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does congenital adrenal hyperplasia present?

A

Condition usually present at birth with ambigious genitalia, glucocorticoid deficiency may cause addisonian crisis.
Can present in adolescent with enlarged clitoris and amenorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the management of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Treatment = cortisol and mineralocorticoid replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is androgen insensitibity syndrome managed?

A

Rudimentary testes are present. These are removes because of possible malignant changes.

Oestrogen replacement therapy is started.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define Pre menstrual syndrome (PMS)? and how common is it?

A

PMS encompasses psychological, behavioural and physical symptoms that are experienced on a regular basis during luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and often resolve by the end of menstruation.

95% of women experience PMS, of which 5% are severly debilitated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the clinical feautres of PMS?

A

Cyclical nature.
Behaviour changes include: tension, irritablity, aggression, depression and loss of control.
Physical symptoms: sesnsation of bloatedness, minor gastrointestinal upset and breast pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the management of PMS?

A

After completion of menstrual diary and psychological evaluation to exclude depression and neurosis:
SSRIs- either continously or intermittently during the second half of the cycle.
Stopping regular cycles- COCP
2nd line- GnRH agonist trial and add back oestrogen therapy to induce a pseudomenopause.
Final resort- bilateral oopherectomy however combined HRT or COCP required for bone and endometrial protection.
May also consider CBT?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

when should endometrial biopsy be considered?

A

IMB
thickened or irregular endometrium
Age >40
risk factors for endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Percentage of anteverted and retroverted uterus?

A
anterverted = 80%
retro = 20%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Definition and epidemiology of fibroids.

A

Defintion: Leiomyomata are benign tumours of the myometrium
By age 50 70% of white women and >80% of black women have had at least one fibroid.
Risk factors:
asian and black ethniticty
early menarche
obese women
first degree relative also effected

Less common in parous women, COCP or used injectable progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the different types of fibroids?

A
Subserous polyp
Subserous
intramural
submucosal
intracavity polyp
cervical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the clinical features of fibroids?

A

50% asymptomatic, discovered by physical examination or US. Symptoms = site dependant
Menorrhagia
Dysmenorrhea
IMB if submucosal or polyp
Large fibroids can have pressure symptoms: urinary frequency, urinary retention- could lead to hydronephrosis.
Fertility impaired if tubal ostia are blocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the chance of malignancy from a fibroid?

A

0.1% of fibroids = leiomyosarcomata

Increased risk if fibroid growth in post menopausal women, rapidly enlarging or sudden onset of pain in women of any age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What complications arise in pregnancy due to fibroids?

A

premature labour, malpresentaion, transverse lie, obstructed labour and postpartum haemorrhage. Red degeneration is common in pregnancy and causes severe pain.
Fibroids should not be removed during caesarian as bleeding can be heavy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What investigation are done if fibroids are suspected?

A

US- determine the number , size and postion of fibroids
MRI- if diagnosis is unclear or greater accuracy required to decide mode of treatment + differentiation from adenomyosis
If subfertility present- hysteroscopy, saline TVUS, hysterosalphingogram used to assess distortion of uterus
Bleeding present?- FBC + haemoglobin
also fibroids can secrete erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the medical management of fibroids?

A
Tranexamic acid, NSAIDs, progestogens are ineffective but worth trying first line. IUS reduced efficacy + expulsion risk from submucosal fibroids.
GnRhH analogues can cause temporary amenorrhoea and fibroid shrinkage - can only be used for 6 months withour addition of HRT.
SPRMs- urlipristal acetate new class of drug used for HMB, shrink fibroids- volume reduce 50%. Can be used short term before surgery.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the surgical management of fibroids?

A

Transcervical resection of fibroid- 3cm polup or submucousal fibroid

Myomectomy- if medical management failed, can be preceded by 2-3 months gnRH analogues or urlipristal acetate to shrink and reduce vascularity of fibroid. Pre-op vasopressin injection reduces bleeding. Caesarean inidcated for large fibroid myomectomy- due to increased risk of uterine rupture.

Radical hysterectomy

Uterine artery embolization- not offered to women desiring pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the different types of benign cysts?

A

Simple cysts
Haemorrhagic cysts- feeding vessels haemorrhage
Endometrioma - endometriosis inside ovary respond to hormone produced therefore enlarge. Can rupture and cause infection.
Mature cystic teratoma- also called dermoid cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What factors are considered for management of ovarian cysts?

A

Age: pre-pubertal, reproductive, postmenopausal
Size of cysts- 3-5-7-< cm no symptom- some symptom- Pain present
Character of cyst- simple or complex
Symptoms of cyst- pain, bleeding
Co morbidity- endometriosis, sub fertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What investigations are done for ovarian cysts?

A

Pain score, FBC, US, tumour markers, carbohydrate antigen 125, serum hCG, AFP
Ca-125 can be raised in reproductive age due to other causes: endometriosis
, PID, fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the different US features of different cysts?

A

Simple cyst is clear
Haemorrhagic cyst slight shadow
Malignant cysts have papillary projections, solid components and also associated with Ascites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Risk of malignancy index based on?

A

Postmenopausal status, CA-125, features on US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Management of cysts <5c simple cysts premenopausal?

A

Reassurance and no further action required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Management of 5-7cm simple asymptomatic cysts premenopausal ?

A

Repeat ultrasound 3-4 months, reassurance if no change, consider referral if there is an increase in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Management of >7cm cysts with symptoms premenopausal ?

A

Referral to gynaecologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Management of postmenopausal ovarian cysts seen on camera?

A

ca-125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When are postmenopausal woman referred to gynaecology for assessment ?

A

Some suspicious features

>7cm grossly abnormal features and abnormal ca-125 > 30- urgent referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the complications of ovarian cysts?

A

Rupture
Torsion- gynaecology emergency 6 hour rule. Managed by laparoscopic detortion. Present with acute pain but as ovarian necrosis occurs pain resolves.
Malignant change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which ligaments attach to the ovary?

A

Ovarian ligament attaches to uterus, infundibular pelvic ligament. These ligaments are the ligaments that get tortes !

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Define PID and what are its causes?

A

Inflammation of reproductive organs- cervix, uterus, tubes and ovaries
Causes: chlamydia
Gonorrhoea
Actinomycosis, gardnerella, anaerobes, mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the risk factors of PID?

A

Multiple sexual partners
Foreign body/ IUD
Douching - squirting water into vagina to clean it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the clinical features of PID?

A

Abdominal pain, vaginal discharge(offensive/non offensive), dyspareunia, intermenstrual bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What investigation are used for suspected PID diagnosed?

A

Clinical assessment- pyrexia, abdo tenderness, possible rigidity and guarding, cervical excitation
Investigation: WCC, CRP, high vaginal swab, chlamydia/ gonorrhoea NAAT
USS- rule out abscess
Laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the management of PID? Come back to this

A

Analgesia
antibiotics dependent on OP (when systematically well) or IP.
Outpatient AB regime:
IM ceftriaxone stat, oral doxycycline BD, metronidazole BD for 14 days
Inpatient difference = iv ceftriaxone daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is Fitzh Hugh Curtis syndrome?

A

Chronic untreated PID descended upwards causing perihepatic adhesions to peritoneal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the complications of PID?

A

Infertility
Chronic pelvic pain
Turbo ovarian abscess
Ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the function of the Bartholin gland?

A

Provides lubrication during intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What causes barthoin cyst formation ?

A

Blockage of gland could be congenital or due to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the management of bartholin cyst?

A

Asymptomatic and small cysts can be managed conservatively
Incision and drainage and word catheter
If recurrence- incision and drainage and marsupialisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Define adenomyosis and its aetiology

A

Presence of endometrium and its stroma within the myometrium. Associated with endometriosis and fibroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the clinical features of adenomyosis ?

A

History: symptoms maybe absent but painful, heavy, regular, menstruation is common.
In examination uterus is mildly enlarged and tender.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the investigations for adenomyosis?

A

Adenomyosis can be suspected on ultrasound but clearly diagnosed on MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the management of adenomyosis?

A

IUS or COCP with or without NSAIDs may control the menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea but hysterectomy often required. Trial of GnRH to see if hysterectomy will relieve symptoms many be done.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Define endometritis

A

Often occurs secondary to infections as a complication of surgery, particularly caesarean and intrauterine procedure. Other causes = IUD and retained products of conception. Infection postmenopausal woman often due to malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the aetiology of intrauterine polyps?

A

Usually benign tumours that grow in intrauterine cavity often endometrial in origin but some are derived from submucousal fibroids. Common in woman aged 40-50. Can also be commonly found in postmenopausal woman taking tamoxifen for breast cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How about interuterine polyps present ?

A

Often cause menorrhagia, IMB, may prolapse through the cervix. Diagnosed during USS or hysterescope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How are interuterine polyps managed?

A

Resection of polyp with cutting diathermy or avulsion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is congenital uterine maformation associated with?

A

Increased incidence of renal anomalies.

25% cause preganancy related problems- preterm labour, transverse lie, recurrent miscarraige

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When is prevalence of endometrial cancer highest?

A

60 years. limetime risk = 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what are the two types of endometrial cancer?

A

type 1- low grade endometrioid cancers- oestrogen sensitive
type 2 - high grade endometrioid, clear cell, serous or carcinosarcoma cancers- not oestrogen sensitive and more aggressive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what are the risk factors of endometrial cancer?

A

obesty, diabetes, early onset of menarche, nulliparity, late onset menopause, older age unopposed oestrogen, tamoxifen.
Lynch type 2- HNPCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the management for endometrial hyperplasia with atypia?

A

consider hysterectomy. If fertility if a conern, progestogens (IUS or continous oral) and 3-6 monthly hysteroscopy and endomertial biopsy are used and referrral to fertility specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the clinical features of endometrial carcinoma?

A

PMB = 10% risk of carcinoma with risk increasing with age. Premenopausal women might have intermenstrual bleeding.
On examination pelvis often appears normal and atrophic vaginitis may coexist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which lymph nodes does endometrial carcinoma spread to ?

A

Internal and external iliac lymph nodes then para aortic lymph nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what are the different stages of endometrial carcinoma?

A
Stage 1A: confined to uterus <1/2 of myometrium
1B: >1/2 of myometrium
Stage 2: cervical stromal invasion
Stage 3: tumour invades through the uterus
a- serosa/adnexa
b- vagina/ parametrial involvement
ci- pelvic node involvement
cii- prara-aortic node involvement
Stage 4:further spread
a in bowel or bladder
b distant metastases

Staging only done after hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What investigations should be done after confirmation of endometrial carcinoma?

A
MRI to assess myometrial invasion
chest X-ray to exclude pulmonary spread
FBC
ECG
Glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is the management of endometrial carcinoma?

A

75% present with stage 1: manged with total laparoscopic hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-ooporectomy (BSO). Pelvic and para aortic lymphadenectomy dependant on staging.

Adjuvant therapy: external beam radiotherapy, vaginal vault radiotherapy
chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the prognosis of endometrial carcinoma?

A
Five year survival rate 
stage 1 = 90%
stage 2 = 75%
stage 3 = 60%
stage 4 = 25%
overall = 75% survival rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How can fibroids degenerate?

A

Red degeneration and hyaline degeneration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is protective againsts endometrial carcinoma?

A

COCP and pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is endocervix and ectocervix lined by?

A

Endocervix lined by columnar epithelium, ectocervix lined by squamous epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Define cervical ectoprion and its risk factors

A

When columnar epithelium of the endocervix is visible as a red area around the os on the surface of the cervix. Normal finding in younger women taking the pill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What symptoms can a cervical ectropion cause?

A

Normally asymptomatic, may present with abnormal discharge and PCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How is ectropion managed?

A

Cyrotherapy after exclusion of carcinoma with colposcopy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Define chronic cervicitis.

A

chronic inflammation or infection of an ectropion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How do cervical polyps present and how are they mananged?

A

IMB or PCB. Management - avulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what are nabothian follicles?

A

trapped secretion from columnar epitheiium where squamous epithelium has formed by metplasia over endocervical cells. Metaplasia is caused by the low vaginal pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

define cervical intraepithelial neoplase (CIN)

A

presence of atypical cells within the squamous epithelium. Dyskaryotic cells. CIN graded 1-3 starting with bottom 1/3 of epithelium.
Malignancy ensues if these abnormal cells invade the basement membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the risk of CIN 2/3?

A

1/3 of women untreated with CIN 2/3 develop cervical cancer over the next 10 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

When is the peak incidence of CIN 3?

A

99% of caes <45 with peak incidence at age 25-29 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the aetiology and risk factors of CIN?

A

HPV strain 16, 18, 31, 33. viral protein causes inactivity of tumour suppressor genes.
Risk factors - number of sexual contacts at an early age, smokingm oral contraceptive use, HIV and those on long term steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which strain is in the quadstrain HPV vaccine?

A

6,11,16,18. 16,18 cause 75% of cervical cancers in UK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How often are cervical smears done normally?

A

25-49 every 3 years
50-64 every 5 years
from age 65 only those who haven’t been screened since 50 are tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

How is cervical smear done?

A

Using a cusco’s speculum a brush is gently scraped around the external os of the cervix to pick up loose cells over the transformation zone. Brush tip broken intro preservative fluid, which is centrifuged in a lab before being spread on a slide to be viewed under microscope. Process is called liquid based cytology. LBC also allows testing or HPV.
Smears identify dyskaryosis classified as borderline, low and high which is associated with different CIN levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what does the presence of abnormal columnar cells in smear test suggest?

A

cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia. Requires colposcopy, if no abnormality on colposcopy then hysteroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is the treatment for CIN 2/3?

A

if CIN 2/3 present large loop excision of transformation zone(LLETZ) done. RIsk = increased risk of preterm delivery in proportion to dept of LLETZ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

which cells do cervical cancers arise from?

A

Squamous cells = 90%
columnar cells = 10%(adenocarcinoma)
screening test better at identifying squamous cell carcinoma therefore these have a better prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

how does cervical carcinoma present?

A

Occult carcinoma - no symptoms

clinical carcinoma- PCB, offensive vaginal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what are the different staging for cervical cancer?

A

Stage 1 is confined to the cervix
ai: invasion <3mm lateral spread <7mm
aii: invasion 3-5mm lateral spread <7mm
bi: clinically visible lesion larger than 1aii <4cm in greatest dimension
bii: clinically visible >4cm
stage 2 = invasion into vagina but not pelvic side wall
2ai= upper 2/3 of vagina without parametrial invasion <4cm in greatest dimension
2aii >4cm
b invasion of parametrium
stage 3 : invasion of lower vagina or pelvic wall or ureteric obstruction
stage 4 : invasion of bladder or rectal mucosa or beyond the true pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What investigation are done for cervical cancer?

A

Tumour biospy to stage and confirm diagnosis
Vaginal and rectal examination to assess the size of the lesion and parametrial and rectal invasion
Cystoscopy: bladder involvement?
MRI: lymph node spread? tumour size?
Assess fitness for surgery: chest X-ray, FBC, UnE
Blood crossmatched before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How is stage 1ai cervical cancer managed?

A

Cone biopsy as LN invovlement = 0.5%. Simple hysterectomy preferred in older women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How is stage 1aii- stage 2a cancer managed?

A

Surgical/ chemo-radiotherapy dependent on LN involvement- confirmed using MRI and LN sampling. No srugery if LN involved

Radical hysterectomy(Wertheim’s hysterectomy)- removal of uterus, parametrium, upper 1/3 of vaigna, pelvic node clearance. Ovaries left in young woman with squamous carcinoma.

Radical trachelectomy- preserve fertility removal 80% of cervix and upper vagina. LN invovlement = + chemo-radiotherapy. Approprate for stage 1aii-1bi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How is stage 2b+ or positive lymph node cervical cancer managed?

A

Treated with radiotheray and chemotherapy e.g. platinium agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what are the indication for chemo-radiotherapy in cervical cancer?

A

Lymph nodes positive on MRI or lymphadenectomy
Alternative to hysterectomy
Surgical resection margins not clear
Palliation for bone pain or haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the prognosis for cervical cancer?

A
Five year surivaval rate
1a = 95%
1b = 80%
2 = 60%
3-4 = 10-30%
LN involvement = 40%
LN clear = 80%
overall = 65%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

how often are patients reviewed after treatment for cervical cancer?

A

Patients are reviewed at 3 months and six months and then every 6 months for 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Which cysts and tumours of the ovaries are beign?

A
Endometriotic cysts
Follicular cysts
Lutein cysts
Brenner tumour arise from epithelium
Germ cell tumour: Dermoid cysts
Sex cord: Thecomas, Fibromas ( meig's syndrome- ascites and right pleural effusion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

which ovarian tumours can be either malignant or benign?

A

serous cystadenomas
mucinous cystadenomas
granulosa cell tumours`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

which ovarian tumours are malignant?

A
Endometroid carcinoma
clear cell carcinoma
Solid teratoma
dysgerminoma
yolk sac tumours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Where do secondary malignancies of the ovaries arise from?

A

Breast or bowel (krukunberg tumours- present with signet ring cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Which tumours of the ovaries arise from epithelium?

A

serous cystadenoma, adenocarcinoma, endometroid carcinoma, clear cell carcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma or adenocarcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Which tumours of the ovaries arise from germ cells?

A

teratoma (dermoid cysts), yolk sac tumours, dysgerminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

which tumours of the ovaries arise from the sex cord?

A

granulosa cell tumours
thecomas
fibromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Number of cases/ death in UK from ovarian cancer and what is the life time risk?

A

4200 deaths, 7000 cases and 1/60 lifetime risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the 4 most common type of ovarian cancer?

A

Serous adenocarcinoma- 75%
endometroid carcinoma- 10%
clear cell carcinoma- 10%
Mucinous adenocarcinoma- 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Which genes are associated with ovarian cancer?

A

BRCA1/2 HNPCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the screening programme in UK for ovarian cancer?

A

Currently no screening program. Women with family history of ovarian cancer, tested for BRCA1/2 genetic mutation and offered prophylactic salpingo- oopherectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How does ovarian cancer present?

A

Symptoms are often vague
Abdominal bloating, early satiety, increased urinary frequency, pelvic/abdo pain. Also important to ask abut breast and gastro symptoms due to mets.
Examination may reveal cachexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

State the different staging of ovarian cancer

A
Stage 1: confined to ovaries
a unilateral capsule is intact
b bilateral capsule is intact
c a/b ruptured capsule
stage 2: disease extending to pelvis
stage 3: abdo disease and lymph nodes involvement
stage 4: diseae is beyong abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which investigation are done for suspected ovarian cancer in primary care?

A

CA125 level measured in women over 50 with abdo smptoms.
CA125 > 35iu/ml USS of abdo and pelvis arranged.
If USS scan reveals ascited and/or pelvic or abdominal mass urgent referral to secondary care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Which investigation are done for suspected ovarian cancer in secondary care?

A
CA125: epithelial tumours
HCG: choriocarcinoma
S-AFP: for yolk cell tumours
LDH: for dysgerminomas
Serum inhibin: for germ cell tumour
women under 40 AFP and bhCG measured to identify germ cell tumours.
RMI calculated
RMI > 250 referred to specialist MDT
CT pelvis abdo, thorax if indicated to establish the extent of disease.
Discuss in MDT for further management
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

How is risk of malignancy index (RMI) calculated?

A

ultrasound scan score x menopausal status x CA125 level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

How is ovarian cancer managed?

A

Midline laparotomy for total hysterectomy , BSO and partial omentectomy.
Lymph node biopsy/removal
Debulk all advanced tumours
Possible laparoscopy and oopherctomy for women in early stage disease looking to preserve fertility
Then chemotherpay unless borderline or low risk stage 1a/b.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Which memebers of the MDT team are involved in ovarian cancer?

A

GP, macmillan nurses, gynae onco specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Which lymph nodes does the vulval lymph fluid drain into?

A

Inguinal lymph nodes, which drain into the femoral and thence to the external iliac nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what are the causes of pruritis vulvae?

A

Infectons: candidiasis, vulval warts, public lice, scabies
Dermatological disease: eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex, lichen sclerosus, lichen planus
Neoplasia: carcinoma, premalignant disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

how is lichen simplex managed?

A

Irritants such as soap avoided. Emollients, moderately potent steroid creams and anti histamines are used to break itch-scratch cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

how does lichen planus present?

A

Effects paticularly mucosal surfaces such as mouth and genital. Presents with flat, papular, purpulish lesions. Presents with itching and pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

How does lichen sclerosus present?

A

Probable cause = Auto immune disease. Thin epithelium due to loss of collagen, thyroid disease and vitiligo coexist in postmenopausal women. Severe pruritis, may cause bleeding + dyspareunia. Vulval carcinoma develops in 5% of cases.
Apperance = pink white papules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

How is lichen sclerosus managed?

A

Biopsy important to exclude carcinoma and confirm diagnosis.

Treatment = ultrapotent steroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Which organism causes vulval donovanosis?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Which factors increase the risk of candidiasis?

A

Diabetes, obesity, pregnancy, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Which organisms are commonly responsible for bartholin’s cyst and abscess?

A

Staphylococcus or escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Define vaginal adnosis and its risk factor?

A

Columnar epithelium found in normal squamous epithelium of vagina. Commonly occurs in mothers who recieved diethylstillboestrol (prescribed in 1970s for miscarriage and preteerm labour.) Can turn into clear cell carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are the two types on vulval intraepithelial neoplasia and how do they present?

A

Usaual type VIN- more common (95%). Associated with HPV(16), smoking, CIN. Warty or basaloid squamous cell carcinoma.
Differentiated type VIN: lichen sclerosis older women, unifocal lesion with keratinizing squamous cell carcinomas of the vulva. Pruritis or pain is common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the management for VIN?

A

Gold standard = local surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

State the epidemiology of vulval cancer?

A

1200 cases 400 death common after age 60 50% present with stage 1 disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

How is vulval cancer staged?

A

stage 1: tumour confined to vulva/perineum
1a <2cm with stromal invasion depth <1mm; negative nodes
1b >2cm >1mm negative nodes
stage 2 : adjacent spread to urethra, vagina, anus; negative nodes
stage 3: tumour any size with inguinofemoral nodes positive
stage 4:
4a-tumour invades uper uretha, vagina, rectum, blader bone
4b- distant metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What investigation are done for vulval carcinoma?

A

Biospy taken for histology to establish diagnosis and stage disease
Assess fitness for surgery: chest X-ray, ECG, UnE, FBC, cross match blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

How is vulval carcinoma treated?

A

1a = wide local excision

for other stages:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

State 3 maligancies of the vagina

A

secondary vaginal carcinoma due to mets from cervix, endometrium or vulva
primary carcinoma of the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

How are the three levels of the vagina supported?

A

level 1: cervix and the upper 1/3rd of the vagina are supported by cardinal and uterosacral ligaments.
level 2: mid portion of vagina is attached by endopelvic fascia laterally to the pelvic side walls
level 3: the lower third of the vagina are supported by the levator ani muscles and the perineal body. Levator ani + fascia = pelvic diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are the different types of vaginal prolapse?

A

urethrocoele- prolapse of the lower anterior vaginal wall involving urethra only
cystocele- prolapse of the upper anterior vaginal wall involving the bladder. Often associated with urethral prolapse. Together called : cystourethrocoele
Apical prolapse: prolapse of uterus, cervix and upper vagina
Enterocoele: upper posterior wall involving bowel
Rectocele: lower posterior wall of vagina involving the anterior wall of the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

State the different grades in a baden- walker classification of a vaginal prolapse.

A

0: No descent during straining
1: leading surgace of prolapse >1cm above hymenal ring
2: 1cm above to 1cm below hymenal ring
3: prolapse extends >1cm below hymenal ring
4: complete vaginal eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

How common are vaginal prolapse?

A

50% of parous women of which 10-20% seek medical help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the associated risk of a vaginal prolapse?

A

Pregnancy, large infants, prolonged second stage of labour and instrumental delivery
Congenital factors e.g ehlers danlos syndrome
Menopause
Chronic intraabdominal pressure + eg. = obesity, chronic cough, constipation, heavy lifting
Iatrogenic factors: pelvic surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

How does vaginal prolapse present?

A

Dragging sensation or the sensation of a lump.
Cystourethrocoele: urinary frequency, incomplete bladder emptying + stress incontinence
Rectocoele: difficulty opening bowels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Which speculum is used to visualise a prolapse?

A

Sim’s speculum, patient lies laterally and told to bear down on the prolapse. Tell patient to strain/cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

How can vaginal prolapse be prevented?

A

Recognition of obstructed labour and avoidance of excessively long 2nd stage.
Pelvic floor muscle exercises after childbirth encouraged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

How is vaginal prolapse managed if surgery isn’t appropriate?

A

Lifestyle advice: lose weight, treat chest problem, stop smoking, physiotherapy
Postmenopausal women: HRT or topical oestrogen prevent vaginal ulceration
Pessaries: ring commonly used, shelf for severe form of prolapse. Changed every 6-9 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What are the disadvantages of pessary use?

A

Cause pain, urinary retention, infection or may fall our

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

how is vaginal prolapse managed surgically?

A

Hysteropexy or vaginal hysterectomy for uterina prolapse
Anterior repair for cystocoele, posterior repair for rectocoele.
Sacrospinous fixation or sacrocolpopexy for vault prolapse.
colposuspension or tension free vaginal tape or transobturator tape or stress incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Describe the neural control of the bladder and urethra

A

Parasympathetic nerve aid voiding and symphathetic nerves prevent it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what is continence dependant on?

A

Pressure in urethra being greater than pressure in bladder.
Bladder pressure = detrusor + abdo
Urethral pressure = urethral muscle + pelvic floor + abdo pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Describe the two types of urinary incontinence

A

OAB- detrusor muscle overactivity
Urinary stress incontinence- due to intra abdo pressure not being transmitted to urethra because bladder neck has slipped below pelvic floor therefore increase in abdo pressure such as when coughing cause micturition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is the average number of times a woman voids bladder?

A

4-7 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

what is dysuria associated with?

A

UTI- also causes nitrite presence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What does haematuria suggest?

A

Calculi or carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

How is chronic urinary retention investigated?

A

Post micturition catheterization or ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

How is stress incontinence differentiated from OAB using urodynamic studies?

A

Cystometry measures pressure in bladder (vesical pressure) whilst bladder is filled and provoked with coughing. Pressure transducer placed in rectum or vagina to measure abdominal pressure.
Detrusor pressure = vesical pressure - abdo pressure
Detrusor pressure doesn’t normally alter with filling or provacation.
Leaking without incerase in detrusor pressure = stress incontinence
Leaking with increase = detrusor overactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

what is methylene dye test used for?

A

Leakage from other places other than urethra e.g. fistulae can be visualised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

what examinations are done when a patient persents with stress incontinence?

A

Sim’s speculum
leakage of urine with coughing
abdomen palpated to exclude distended bladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

How is stress incontinence managed conservatively?

A

Obese patient encourage to lose weight
Causes of chronic cough e.g smoking addressed
reduce excessive fluid intake
Pelvic floor muscle training for 3 months taught by physiotherapist. 8 contractions 3x per day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

How is stress incontinence managed medically?

A

Duloxetine (SNRI) enhances urethral striated sphincter activity.
Sideffects: nausea, dyspepsia, drymouth, drowsiness, insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

How is stress incontinecne managed surgically?

A

First line= mid urethral sling e.g. = tension free vaginal tape and transobturator tape 90% cure rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

what is the initial investigation for suspected OAB?

A

urinary diary: may show frequent passage of small volumes of urine, particularly at night. High intake of caffeine containing drinks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

what is the conservative management for OAB?

A

Advice: reducing fluid intake and caffeine intake.

Bladder retraining: education; tied voiding with systematic delay; positive reinforcement. Done for 6 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

how is OAB medically managed?

A

Anticholinergics(antimuscarinics) oxybutynin. Mirabegron for elderly. - however blood pressure monitoring required.
Oestrogen may help with symptoms

Botulinum toxin A 3-12 months cure for 60-90% patients

Referral to specialist clinic if oral relaxants fail to improve symptoms after 1-2months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

How is OAB managed surgically?

A

Clam augmentation ileocystoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What are the causes of bladder urgency and frequency?

A
Urinary infection
Bladder pathology
Pelvic mass compressing bladder
OAB
stress incontinence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

what are the causes of acute urianry retention?

A

after childbirth (paticularly with epidural)
vulval or perineal pain
Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

what causes urethrovaginal fistulae?

A

Obstructed labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Definition and aetiology of endometriosis?

A

Presence and growth of tissue similar to endometrium outside the uterus. 1-2% 30-45 years. More common in nulliparous women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Where can endometriosis occur?

A

Commonly: uterosacra ligament, ovaries

also in : umbilicus, abdominal scars, vagina, bladder, rectum and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

what are the clinical features of endometriosis?

A

History: cyclical dysmenorrhoea, deep dyspareunia, subfertility, pain on passing stool(dyschezia) during menses.
Severe disease: cyclical haematuria, rectal bleeding or bleeding from umbilicus
Examination: Tenederness, thickening behind uterus/ adnexa. In advanced cases uterus retroverted and immobile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is the gold standard on endometriosis diagnosis?

A

Laparoscopy: diagnosis only made with certainty after visualisation and biopsy.
Active lesions: red vesicles or punctuate mark
White scars or brown spots = less active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

How is presence of adenomyosis confirmed?

A

Visualised in USS confirmed in MRI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What grading system is used for endometriosis?

A
revised american fertility society(rev-AFS). At laporoscopy points are scored dependent on the presence and position of endometriosis deposits and adhesions.
grade 1 minimal
2 mild
3 moderate
4 severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

How is endometriosis managed medically?

A
NSAIDS - management of pain
COCP
progesterone
GnRH- 6months use can be extended to 2 years with add back HRT
IUS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

how is endometriosis managed surgically?

A

Scissors, laser or bipolar diathermy used to destroy endometriotic lesions- improves fertility
Radical surgery: dissection of adhesions, removal of endometriomas, hysterectomy and BSO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

How does surgical and medical management of endometriosis effect fertility?

A

Medical management doesn’t improve fertility
Surgical management does.
IVF best option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

what is the definition of chronic pelvic pain ?

A

6 months pain not occurring exclusively with menstruation or intercourse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What is the pH of the vagina and which bacteria dominates the bacterial flora?

A

> 4.5 , lactobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Which vaginal infections are associated with vaginal discharge?

A

bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Which bacteria does rise in pH facilitate and what histological feature does this lead to?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis, atopobium vaginae.
Grey white discharge
Positive whiff test- fishy odour when KOH added.
Clue cells: epithelial cells studded with coccobacilli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

How is BV treated?

A

clindamycin or metronidazole cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What are the risk factors for candida infection?

A

Commonly caused by candida albicans, increased risk during pregnancy, diabetes and antibiotics use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

how does candidiasis present?

A

clinical features include: cottage cheese discharge with vulval irritation and itching.
superficial dyspareunia and dysuria may occur.
Diagnosis confirmed by culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

How is candidiasis treated?

A

Topical imidazole- clotrimazole pessary- or oral fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

what principles are considered in the management of STIs?

A

screening for concurrent infection as more than one STI may be present
Contact tracing
Confidentiality. partners cannot be informed about diagnosis of STI without patient’s permission
Education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

what is the most common STI and how does it present?

A

chlamydia trachomatis- 70% = symptom free
most common symptoms= altered vaginal discharge, IMB and PMB
Pelvic infection can lead to subfertility due to tubal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Which arthritis is chlamydia associated with?

A

sexually acquired reactive arthritis(SARA) characterized by triad of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

how is chlamydia diagnosed and treated?

A

nucleic acid amplification test (NAATs) can be used on urine.
Treatment is with azithromycin or doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

How does gonorrhoeae present and how is it diagnosed?

A

G- diplococcus, men develop urethritis, often asymptomatic in women.
NAAT of endocervical or vulvovaginal swabs. Positive NAAT should be followed by culture to check for AB sensitivities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

how is gonorrhoeae managed?

A

IM ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

which HPV strain cause genital warts?

A

6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

what is the treatment for HPV?

A

there is no treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

How does primary HSV present?

A

HSV-1 often causes cold sores but can cause genital infection with oral sex. HSV-2 commonly affects genital and anal area.
1/3- experience primary infection within 4-14 days of becoming infected. Flu like symptoms- fever, tiredness and headaches. Followed by stinging or itching and vesicle appearance lasting 2-3 days which crust over.
Lymphadenopathy and dysuria are common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

how common is HSV recurrence?

A

HSV-2: 4-6 recurrence each year
HSV-1: less frequent -1 a year
recurrences are milder. tingling and mild flu like symptoms before an outbreak.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

how is hsv managed?

A

aciclovir- for severe infection and reduce duration of symptoms if started early in reactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Which organism causes syphilis?

A

spirochaete treponema pallidum- spiral shape bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

what is the transmission history of syphilis?

A

syphilis is sexually transmissible up till 2 years of untreated infection.
Transmission to fetus may occur up to 10 years after the primary infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

how does primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis present?

A

Primary: solitary painless genital ulcer (chancre)
Secondary: weeks after primary- rash, influenza like symptoms and warty genital or perioral growths (condylomata lata), systemic vasculitis + organ involvement
Tertiary: common complications include: aortic regurg, dementia, tabes dorsalis(degeneration of sensory nerve cells), gummata of skin and bone (small soft swelling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

which test are used to diagnose syphilis ?

A

enzyme immunoassay(syphilis EIA), venereal disease research laboratories (VDRL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

How is syphilis treated?

A

parenteral penicillin- usually intramuscular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

describe the discharge produced by trichomonas vaginalis infection and the associated symptoms

A

Flagellate protozoan produces offensive grey green discharge.
Vulval irritation, dysuria and superficial dyspareunia.
Cherry red cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

How is trichomonas diagnosed?

A

NAATs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

How is trichomonas treated?

A

Systemic metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

How common is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia amongst HIV + women and how frequently are they invited for smear test?

A

1/3, yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Can a HIV+ women give birth vaginally and is breast feeding recommended?

A

Yes vaginal delivery is safe if on antiretroviral therapy. Breast feeding not recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What causes endometritis?

A

Result of instrumentation of uterus or retained product of conception. Causes - chlamydia and gonorrhoea
other causes = e.coli, staphylococci, clostridia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

How does endometritis present?

A

heavy vaginal bleeding accompanied by pain. Uterus tender and cervical os open.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What investigations are done if endometritis is suspected?

A

USS
FBC
vaginal and cervical swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

How is endometritis managed?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics

ERCP is indicated on USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

how does PID present?

A

subfertility, menstrual problems, bilateral lower abdominal pain, with deep dyspareunia = hallmark
severe cases examination reveals: tachycardia, fever, bilateral adnexal tenderness, cervical excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

what investigations are done for suspected PID?

A

endocervical swabs for chlamydia and gonorrhoea
Blood culture if there is fever
WBC and c-reactive protein(CRP) may be raised
USS- exclude abscess or ovarian cyst
Gold standard for diagnosis = laparoscopy with fimbrial biopsy and culture - not commonly performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

how is PID treated?

A

Analgesia
IM ceftriaxone, doxycycline and metronidazole
alternate: ofloxacin with metronidazole
febrile patients admitted for intravenous therapy
no improvement = perform laparoscopy as abscess may not respond to antibiotics - requires drainage USS guidance or laparoscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

what are the complication of PID?

A

Early complication = abscess formation or pyosalpinx ( fallopian tube filled with pus).
Ectopic pregnancy = 6x more likely after pelvic infection
tubal damage chance = 12% after one episode of acute PID.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

when does vaginal discharge increase?

A

increases around ovulation, during pregnancy and in women taking COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

what is the definition of subfertility?

A

conception hasn’t occurred after a year of regular unprotected intercourse. 15% of couples are` affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

what are the conditions for pregnancy?

A

ovulation - 30%
adequate sperm release- 25%
sperm must reach egg- fallopian damage will prevent this - 25%
fertilized egg must implant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

which hormone is released by the trophoblast to maintain the corpus luteum up till 8-10 weeks gestation?

A

hCG - human chorionic gonadotrophin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

what is pain during ovulation called?

A

MIttelschmerz pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

what body temperature changes occur pre and post ovulation?

A

body temperature drops 0.2C preovulation and rises 0.5C during luteal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

When should progesterone be measured to get mid luteal phase level?

A

7 days before subsequent menstruation as luteal phase lasts 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

How can ovulation be detected?

A

mid luteal progesterone (21 in a 28 day cycle)- standard
USS follicular tracking
temperature charts
LH based urine predictor kit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria for PCOS?

A

Rotterdam criteria 2 or more out of:
Polycystic ovaries morphology on US (12+ cyst or >10ml volume)
Irregular periods 5 weeks or more apart
Hirsutism (clinical or biochemical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

what is the aetiology of PCOS?

A

Predisposed women demonstrate disordered LH production and peripheral insulin resistance. Raised LH and insulin acting on PCO causes increased androgen production + also from adrenals.
Raised insulin also reduce hepatic production of SHBG
-sex hormone binding globulin
leading to overall increase in androgen which causes anovulation and hirsutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

how does weight impact risk of PCOS?

A

increased weight = greater risk of insulin resistance and increased production of insulin. greater chance of PCOS. Woman effected with PCOS also show family history of type 2 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

what are the clinical features of PCOS?

A
Subfertility
oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea
hirsutism and or acne
obesity
miscarriage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

What investigation are done for is PCOS is suspected?

A

Anovulation investigated with: FSH, LH, AMH (high in PCOS low in ovarian failure), prolactin, TSH, Serum testosterone
TVUS to look for polycystic ovaries
Other: Fasting lipids and glucose.
Especially if woman is obese or has family history of diabetes, abnormal lipids or CVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

What are the complications of PCOS?

A

Up to 50% of women with PCOS develop type 2 diabetes.
30%- gestational diabetes
risk reduced with weight loss.
Endometrial cancer is more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

How is PCOS managed?

A

Advice regarding diet and exercise
COCP if fertility not required for regular periods- 3/4 bleeds per year spontaneous or induced required for endometrial protection. Oestrogen consider- cyproterone acetate as antiandrogenic
Spironolactone = antiandrogenic
Metformin
Eflornithine= topical anti androgen used for facial hirsutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What are the hypothalamic causes of anovulation?

A

Anorexia nervosa
Excessive exercise
Kallmann’ syndrome- exogenous GnRH required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

what are the pituitary causes of anovulation?

A

Hyperprolactinaemia- prolactinoma
enlarging ones may cause headaches and bitemporal hemianopia. CT imaging indicated if prolactin levels high
Sheehan’s syndrome following post partum haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

how is prolactinoma medically managed?

A

dopamine agonist- cabergoline or bromocriptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

What are the ovarian causes of anovulation?

A

premature ovarian insufficiency: lower oestradiol and inhibin levels causing FSH and LH rise. Bone protection with HRT or oral contraceptive required

Gonadal dysgenesis- present with primary amenorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

what is Clomifene used for ?

A

first line ovulation induction drug for PCOS. Limited use of 6 months, results in 70% ovulation rate and 40% live birth rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

How does clomifene work and what needs to be monitored when using it?

A

antioestrogenic effect on hypothalamus, therefore increases GnRH release consequently increasing FSH and LH level. Given on day 2-6.
Clomifene cycle monitored using TVUS to assess ovarian response and endometrial thickness.
If no follicles develop increase dose.
If 3 or more follicles develop cycle cancellation indicated to prevent multiple pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

how effective in metformin in treating anovulation?

A

More effective than clomifene in women with BMI >30 but less effective <30 BMI.
doesn’t cause multiple pregnancy but needs to be taken everyday multiple times and causes GI symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Name an oral aromatase inhibitor which if off licence use for anovulation?

A

letrozole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

how can anovulation be surgically managed?

A

laparoscopic ovarian diathermy- in the same operation tubal patency can be tested using methylene blue and comorbidities such as endometriosis and adhesions treated.

254
Q

what is a severe side effect of ovulation induction especially IVF and how does it present?

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) risk factors include age <35, gonadotropin stimulation, previous OHSS and polycystic ovarian morphology.
Severe case: hypovolaemia, electrolyte imbalance, ascites, thromboembolism, pulmonary oedema

255
Q

How is OHSS prevented and managed?

A

Ultrasound monitoring of follicular growth, cancellation of IVF cycle or use of GnRH agonist instead of hCG injection.
Manage: IV fluid for electrolyte imbalance, analgesia, thromboprophylaxis, drainage of ascetic fluid may be necessary.

256
Q

How many days does it take for sperm to develop?

A

70 days

257
Q

During sperm analysis if the first test is abnormal when should a repeat test be done?

A

In 12 weeks, no delay if azoospermia

258
Q

What are the levels of normal semen analysis volume, sperm count and progressive motility?

A

> 1.5ml
15million/ml
32%

259
Q

Define azoospermia, oligospermia, severe oligospermia, asthenospermia

A

No sperm present
<15million/ml
<5million/ml
absent or low motility

260
Q

What are the common causes of abnormal semen analysis?

A

Sulfasalazine, anabolic steroids
varicocele
smoking/ alcohol/ inadequate local cooling
genetic factors
antisperm antibodies
epididymitis, orchitis, XXY, Kallmann’s, cystic fibrosis

261
Q

How is abnormal sperm analysis managed?

A

Abnormal repeat: examine the scrotum, optimise lifestyle factors, hormone profile, TFT, serum karyotype, if azoospermia test for cystic fibrosis
Oligospermia: intrauterine insemination
Moderate to severe oligospermia: IVF or intracytoplasmic sperm injection
azoospermia: examine presence of vas deferens
check karyotype, cystic fibrosis, hormone profile,
Surgical sperm retrieval can be done if no vas deferens, or blocked.
Donor insemination

262
Q

Can children contact their sperm donor?

A

Yes after age 18

263
Q

what test are used for detection of fallopian tube damage?

A

Laparoscopy and dye test if indication of tubal damage e.g. history of endometriosis or PID.
Hysterosalpingogram or TVUS + US opaque fluid performed on woman with no risk factors of tubal damage.

264
Q

What is the success rate of IVF? and when is IVF not indicated?

A

35% <36 years of age per stimulated cycle.
<10% once above 40
doesn’t help in premature ovarian insufficiency- tested using AMH which decreases if +

265
Q

What are the stages of IVF?

A

Multiple follicular development-
Long protocol: GnRH started day 21 of menstrual cycle for 2-3 weeks to suppress follicular development before adding exogenous gonadotrophin to stimulate follicles.
short protocol: GnRH antagonist only added post 5 days of gonadotrophin stimulation.
Ovulation with LH/hCG injection once multiple mature ovarian follicles (15-20mm). GnRH and gonadotrophins stopped and egg collection 35-38 hours post injection.
Fertilization and culture until blastocyst formation (day 5-6)
Embryo transfer: 2 embryos used. Luteal phase support using progesterone or hCG until 4-8 weeks gestation

266
Q

what ovarian volume seen in USS should prompt referral for assessment?

A

ovarian volume greater than 20ml in premenopausal woman

greater than 10ml in postmenopausal woman

267
Q

what is the daily fluid requirement?

A
2.5L fluid intake and out
Intake: 
Metabolic-0.5l
food:0.5l
drink:1.5l
outtake-
urine:1.5l
sweat:0.5l
respiration:0.4l
faeces:0.1l
268
Q

how is a fluid status examination done?

A
blood pressure and heart rate
Input and output fluid chart
ask feeling thirsty/faint?
skin turgor and cap refill
mucous membrane moisture
JVP- jugular venous pressure raised if overloaded
basal crepitation
peripheral oedema- pressure over bony prominence
269
Q

What is the first step in managing dehydration?

A

Raise patient’s leg. 300ml raise even with 20* raise

Is also reversible

270
Q

What are the different types of IV fluids?

A

Larger proteins e.g. - albumin use in liver patients + certain other specialty, Risk of anaphylaxis
Crystalloid: Smaller molecules e.g. saline
Hartmann’s: used more in surgery, for insensible loses diarrhoea and vomiting. where fluid loss is electrolyte rich
5% dextrose: used in maintenance 2x salty 1x sweet if BMs are okay over 24 hours.

271
Q

Give example of different blood products used?

A

blood transfusion
FFP
Plt for massive haemorrhage

272
Q
When are the following fluid regime used: 
Stat 500ml
Stat 250ml
1l/hr
1l/2hr
1l/4hr
1l/6hr
1l/8hr
1l/12hr?
A

Stat 500ml: acutely unwell. To test if fluid responsive?
Stat 250ml: carefully challenge if hugely overloaded- maybe consider leg raise instead?
1l/hr: needs aggressive fluid resus eg DKA
1l/2hr: following 1l/hr still needing fluid resus in AnE
1l/4hr: unwell, patient can be sent to ward
1l/6hr: more than maintenance, patient still mildly dehydrated
1l/8hr: Maintenance for Nill by mouth patient.
1l/12hr: poor oral intake, e.g. overnight

273
Q

what urine output to aim for ?

A

0.5mL/kg/hr

274
Q

Which patients are at a greater risk of fluid overload?

A

MI or HF as fluid overload can cause pulmonary oedema

275
Q

How is fluid overload reversed?

A

furosemide 40mg IV

276
Q

How many days postpartum can woman have sex without risk of pregnancy?

A

21 days

277
Q

How effective is breast feeding as contraception?

A

first 6 months if no period and exclusively breast feeding >98% effective

278
Q

why is COCP contraindicated post partum?

A

Affects breast milk volume, and UKMEC 4 first 6 weeks due to increased clotting risk. Can be used after 6 months postpartum

279
Q

Can POP be used postpartum?

A

yes after 6 weeks as progestogen only method do not affect milk production.

280
Q

When can IUD be inserted?

A

After 4 weeks postpartum

281
Q

How long after last period should a woman continue to use contraception?

A

2 years if under 50, 1 year if above

282
Q

What is another name for POP?

A

Mini pill

283
Q

How does COCP work and how is it taken?

A

inhibits ovulation
3 weeks on and then stopped for 1 week. Pill packets can be taken continuously for up to 3 phases, to reduce frequency of bleed- irregular spotting may occur

284
Q

What is the contraceptive efficacy of COCP?

A

0.2 per 100 2 out 1000 women taking the pill every year become pregnancy

285
Q

What are the common side effects of progestogens?

A

Depression, premenstrual tension like symptoms, reduced libido
Irregular bleeding or amenorrhoea
Acne, breast discomfort, weight gain

286
Q

What are the common side effects of oestrogens?

A
Nausea + headache
increased mucus, fluid retention and weight gain,
occasionally hypertension
 breast tenderness and fullness
 irregular bleeding
287
Q

How should the patient be advised if she has missed 2 COCP?

A

One pill can be missed, take missed pill asap
2 pills missed use condoms for 7 days continue packet as normal.
If fewer than 7 pills remaining in packet, the next packet should be started straight after the last, avoid a pill free break.

288
Q

How many weeks prior surgery is the pill stopped?

A

4 weeks prior and started 2 weeks after surgery.

289
Q

What advised should be given before starting woman on COCP?

A

Risk of venous thrombosis, MI and cerebrovascular accidents. Breast and cervical carcinoma
Advice to stop smoking
See doctor if symptoms suggestive of major complications
poor absorption with antibiotic and sickness( treat as missed pill)
Leaflet on missed pills
Stress the importance of follow up and blood pressure measurement

290
Q

What are the most common side effects of COCP?

A

Nausea, headaches and breast tenderness.

291
Q

what are the advantages of COCP?

A

More regular, less painful and lighter menstruation
Protection from ovarian and benign breast cysts
Protects from fibroids and endometriosis
Hirsutism and acne may improve
Risk of PID reduced
Lower incidence of ovarian, endometrial and bowel cancer

292
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for COCP?

A
history of VT, TIA/stroke, IHD, severe hypertension
Migraine with aura
active breast/endometrial cancer
inherited thrombophilia
pregnancy + up to 6 weeks postpartum
smokers> 35 years and smoking >15 cigarettes
Diabetes with vascular complications
Liver disease
BMI >40
293
Q

what are the relative contraindications for COCP?

A
smokers
chronic inflammatory disease ( reduces absorption of hormones)
renal impairment, diabetes
age > 40 years
BMI 35-40
breast feeding up to 6 months postpartum
294
Q

how much progesterone does standard POP contain?

A

350 micrograms norethisterone

295
Q

How does POP work?

A

thickens cervical mucus and in 50% of women inhibits ovulation too. Effective within 2 days

296
Q

How effective is POP?

A

1/100 failure rate = higher than COCP

297
Q

Define malstalgia

A

Breast pain

298
Q

What should be advised if a patient misses a POP by more than 3 hours?

A

take as soon as possible, condom use for 2 days

299
Q

which type of POP inhibits ovulation?

A

desogestrel containing POP: cerazette and cerelle. More effective and can be taken within 12 hour window

300
Q

What should the woman be counselled on before starting on POP?

A

Advice woman about irregular bleeding patterns - breakthrough bleeding
Emphasize the importance of meticulous time keeping.

301
Q

How is depo Provera administered?

A

IM 150mg medroxyprogesterone acetate (150mg) every 3 months
Sayana press- self administered every 13 weeks
Noristerat- contains norethisterone instead given every 8 weeks.

302
Q

Where is Nexplanon inserted?

A

40mm flexible rod containing etonogestrel inserted in upperarm with local anaesthetic.

303
Q

How long does nexplanon last?

A

3 years

304
Q

What are the disadvantages of depo provera?

A

decrease in bone density over the first 2-3 years and then stabilises therefore not recommended in teenagers and older women at risk of osteoporosis

305
Q

What are the three options for emergency contraception?

A

Levonelle: levonorgestrel(progestogen) 1.5mg best taken within 24 hours and no longer than 72 hours. 95% success rate
Ulipristal(ellaone): selective progesterone receptor modulator. Prevents or delays ovulation. Used up to 120 hours or 5 days after unprotected intercourse. Reduces effectiveness of progesterone containing contraception therefore condom use recommended until next period
IUD: prevents implantation. Most efficacious. up to 5 days post UPS or 5 days from expected day of ovulation. Antibiotic prophylaxis given during insertion.

306
Q

If a woman comes into clinic for emergency contraception, what else should be counselled on ?

A

STI screen

long term contraception

307
Q

Examples of barrier contraception

A

male condom
female condom
diaphragms and caps- fitted during intercourse and must remain in situ for at least 6 hours afterwards.
spermicides used in conjunction with barrier method

308
Q

how often do different IUS need to be replaces?

A

jaydess and levosert- 3 years
MIrena- 5 years
contain levonorgestrel

309
Q

what is the disadvantage of IUS?

A

Irregular light bleeding
expulsion of device
perforation of uterus
with IUD pregnancy more likely to be ectopic if it does occur

310
Q

what are the complete contraindication of IUD?

A
endometrial or cervical cancer
undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
active/recent pelvic infection
current breast cancer- IUS
pregnancy`
311
Q

what are the relative contraindication of IUD?

A
previous ectopic
excessive menstrual loss- unless IUS
multiple sexual partners
young/nulliparous
immunocomprimised
312
Q

what should the women be counselled on before insertion of IUD?

A

advice about major risk
advice to inform her doctor if : IMB, pelvic pain or vaginal discharge or thinks she’s pregnant
advice about checking strings after each period

313
Q

How is female sterilization procedure done?

A

Under GA
Filshie clips, block off fallopian tube- laparoscopic placement
Trans cervical sterilisation hysteroscopic placement of micro inserts into the proximal part of each tubal lumen. Inserts expand and cause fibrosis- confirmed after 3 months with Hysterosalpingogram.

314
Q

what is the failure rate of female sterilization?

A

1/200 life time failure risk

315
Q

What should the woman be counselled on before female sterilization procedure?

A
certainty of choice
alternative contraception
1/200 lifetime risk of failure
risk of ectopic
reversal may not be possible and not available in NHS
risks of surgery and possible laparotomy
316
Q

how effective is vasectomy?

A

1/2000 lifetime risk after two negative semen analysis.

317
Q

what does vasectomy invovle?

A

ligation and removal of a small segment of vas deferens, performed under LA.
Sterility not confirmed under 2 negative semen analysis which takes up to 6 months.

318
Q

What is the median age of menopause?

A

51 years

319
Q

define menopause

A

12 consecutive months of amenorrhoea

320
Q

define premature menopause

A

menopause before 40 years of age affects 1%

HRT indicated until age 50

321
Q

define postmenopausal bleeding

A

vaginal bleeding occurring at least 12 months after the last menstrual period

322
Q

what are the causes of PMB?

A
endometrial carcinoma
endometrial hyperplasia +- atypia and polyps
cervical carcinoma
atrophic vaginitis
cervicitis
ovarian carcinoma
cervical polyps
323
Q

How is PMB initially managed?

A

bimanual and speculum examination
cervical smear if one has not been taken according to national screening programme
TVUS- measure endometrial thickness + gives information on fibroids and ovarian cysts

324
Q

when is endometrial biopsy indicated and how is it done?

A

endometrium thickness >4mm on US
multiple bleeds
either with pipelle suction or hysteroscopy

325
Q

how is atrophic vaginitis managed?

A

topical oestrogen or oral ospemifene(SERM)

326
Q

What are the common symptoms and consequence of menoause?

A
Increase risk of CVD
vasomotor symptoms
urogenital problem
sexual problem
osteoporosis
327
Q

Define osteopenia and osteoporosis

A

osteopenia- BMD between -1 to -2.5 SD from the young adult mean
osteoporosis- BMD >2.5 SD from the young adult mean

328
Q

what is the most common osteoporotic fracture?

A

fracture of wrist- colle’s fracture

329
Q

what are the risk factors for the development of osteoporosis?

A
history of fracture
Parental history of fracture
early menopause <45 years of age
low BMI
corticosteroid use
smoking and prolonged immobilisation
330
Q

What is the FRAX tool?

A

developed by WHO to give the 10 year probability of fracture based on individual patient clinical factors and BMD

331
Q

how is BMD calculated?

A

Using dual energy x ray absorptiometry (DEXA), measure at lumbar spine and hip

332
Q

how can oestrogen be delivered in HRT?

A

orally, transdermally(patch or gel), subcutaneously(implant). Topical oestrogen vaginally

333
Q

what different regimes are there for progesterone use in HRT?

A

progesterone can be given sequentially for 10-14 days every 4 weeks, 14 days every 3 weeks or taken consequentially
first causes monthly bleed
second three monthly bleed
amenorrhoea if taken continous
cyclic therapy preferred if within 12 months of last period

334
Q

how can local vaginal oestrogen therapy be given?

A

cream, pessary, tablet, ring

335
Q

which cancer does HRT increase the risk of?

A

Breast

336
Q

Which HRT intake method increases the risk VTE and gallbladder disease?

A

oral, transdermal doesn’t

337
Q

which cancer does HRT decrease the risk of?

A

Colon by 1/3

338
Q

what pharmacological interventions can be implemented to prevent osteoporosis?

A
bisphosphonates e.g. alendronate
strontium ranelate
raloxifene and bazedoxifene (SERM)
parathyroid hormone peptides
Denosumab- RANKL monoclonal antibody reduces osteoclast activity
calcium and vitamin D supplements
339
Q

What is the principle side effect of bisphosphonates?

A

upper GI irritation

340
Q

define miscarriage

A

fetus dies or delivers dead before 24 completed weeks of pregnancy. Majority occur before 12 weeks

341
Q

what are the different types of miscarriage?

A

threatened: 25% miscarry, bleeding, cervical os closed, fetus still alive
inevitable: cervical os open, heavier bleeding
incomplete: some fetal parts remain, cervical os generally open
complete: all fetal tissue has passed, bleeding has diminished, cervical os is closed
septic miscarriage: contents of uterus infected, endometritis
missed: fetus has not developed or died in utero, not recognised until bleeding occurs

342
Q

what is the aetiology of most sporadic miscarriage?

A

isolated non recurring chromosomal abnormality = 60% of one off or sporadic miscarriage

343
Q

define recurrent miscarriage

A

three or more consecutive miscarriage

344
Q

what investigations should be done if miscarriage is suspected?

A

US at early pregnancy assessment units, if doubt repeat scan week later
blood tests: hCG levels normally increase >63% in 48 hours with viable intrauterine pregnancy
+63%to -50% = ectopic
more than -50% = unviable pregnancy
FBC + rhesus group should also be checked

345
Q

How is incomplete miscarriage managed?

A

Product of conception is cervical os removed using polyp forceps
IM ergometrine given to reduce bleeding by contracting uterus
if there is fever- swab for bacterial culture are taken and IV antibiotics started
Anti d for rhesus - women- if being treated surgically or medically or if there spontaneous miscarriage after 12 weeks gestation or bleeding

346
Q

How is non viable intrauterine pregnancy managed?

A

expectant management success rate >80% 2-6 weeks of incomplete miscarriage and 30-70% of women with missed miscarriage
Medical management = misoprostol (vaginal or oral) >80% success with incomplete 40-90% of missed. repeat urine pregnancy test after medical management to exclude ectopic or molar pregnancy
Surgical management: evacuation of retained products of conception carried out under anaesthetic using vacuum aspiration. Suitable if woman prefers, heavy bleeding or signs of infection. Success rate >95% for both incomplete and missed.

347
Q

How is a woman counselled after miscarriage?

A

Told that miscarriage was not due to result of anything they did or did not do and could not have been prevented. Reassurance as to the high chance of successful further pregnancies and referral to support group. Further investigation if 3 or more miscarriage or miscarriage after 12 weeks.
Exercise, sex or emotional trauma do not cause miscarriage

348
Q

what are the causes of recurrent miscarriage?

A

Antiphospholipid antibodies- thrombosis in the uteroplacental circulation likely mechanism

Parental chromosomal defects- options = prenatal diagnosis using CVS or amniocentesis, use of donor oocyte/sperm, preimplantation genetic diagnosis of IVF embryos are alternate options

anatomical factors: uterine weakness, adhesions, cervical problems

Infection: implicated in preterm labour, late miscarriage, early treatment of bacterial vaginosis reduces the incidence of fetal loss
hormonal factors: thyroid dysfunction, PCOS

349
Q

how is miscarriage due to antiphospholipid antibodies managed?

A

aspiring and low dose molecular weight heparin

350
Q

what are the risk factors of recurrent miscarriage?

A

obesity, smoking, excess caffeine intake, older maternal age

351
Q

what investigations are done following recurrent miscarriage ?

A

Antiphospholipid antibody screen- repeat at 6 weeks if positive
karyotyping of fetal miscarriage tissue
thyroid function
pelvic ultrasound (MRI or Hysterosalpingogram if pelvic ultrasound is abnormal)

352
Q

what investigations and discussions should be done before TOP?

A

blood test should be taken for Hb, blood groups, rhesus status, screened for chlamydia and undergo risk assessment for other STI and are screened for them if appropriate. Contraception should be discussed

353
Q

what should be given to rhesus negative women who have undergone termination of pregnancy?

A

receive anti D within 72 hours of TOP

354
Q

What is the medical management of TOP?

A

first mifepristone given

then misoprostol 36-48 hours later.

355
Q

when can TOP be done medically?

A

Most effective method of abortion at gestation less than 7 weeks but can also be alternative to surgical termination at any gestation.
Usual and most effective method for mid trimester abortion (13-24 weeks)

356
Q

From which week of gestation is feticide done?

A

22 weeks to prevent live birth. KCL injection into umbilical vein or fetal heart.

357
Q

How is TOP performed surgically?

A

vacuum aspiration generally used between 7 till 14 weeks. till 14 weeks LA. till 15 weeks GA
Before 7 weeks medical abortion more effective.
Above 15 weeks - 24 weeks dilatation and evacuation done under GA.
Cervix is prepared preoperatively with vaginal misoprostol and antibiotic prophylaxis.

358
Q

What are the complications of TOP?

A

Haemorrhage
infection
uterine perforation
cervical trauma

359
Q

where can ectopic pregnancies occur?

A
tubal-95%
cornual
cervical
ovarian
abdominal
360
Q

what causes an increase risk of ectopic pregnancy?

A

PID from STI, surgery, previous ectopic, smoking

also rule out in pregnancy with IUD in place

361
Q

what are the clinical features of ectopic pregnancy and how is it diagnosed?

A

amenorrhoea, abnormal vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, or collapse in any women should arouse suspicion and on examination uterus is smaller than expected
urine pregnancy test should be done
ultrasound does not always confirm ectopic or intrauterine pregnancy before 5 weeks- as no heartbeat

362
Q

what is the management of the symptomatic suspected ectopic pregnancy?

A
nil by mouth
FBC and cross match blood
pregnancy test
ultrasound
laparoscopy or consider medical management
IV access
Anti D given if rhesus negative
363
Q

how is haemodynamically unstable ectopic presentation managed?

A

laparotomy + salpingectomy

364
Q

how is subacute ectopic pregnancy managed surgically?

A

Indications include: significant pain, adnexal mass >35mm, visible heart activity or serum hCG level >5000IU/ml.
Laparoscopy salpingectomy done
salpingotomy if one tube left and fertility preservation required- however 10% chance repeat surgery for persisting ectopic required

365
Q

How is persisting ectopic detected?

A

detected by failure of serum hCG to fall on follow up.

366
Q

what is the medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A

indication: patient can return for follow up, no significant pain, unruptured ectopic, adnexal mass <35mm with no fetal heart activity.
single dose methotrexate
Serial hCG monitored until <20IU/ml
second dose or surgery may be required

367
Q

define hyperemesis gravidarum

A

hyperemesis gravidarum is when nausea and vomiting are so severe as to cause dehydration, weight loss or electrolyte disturbance.

368
Q

what antiemetics can be given to manage hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

metoclopramide, cyclizine, even ondansetron

thymine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy

369
Q

define complete and incomplete mole

A

complete mole = 2 sperm genetic material in egg

partial mole = triploid 2 sperm + egg genetic material

370
Q

What is a choriocarcinoma?

A

Mole which has metastasised

371
Q

what are the clinical features of a molar pregnancy?

A

uterus often large
vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis
complete mole - snowstorm appearance on US
Serum hCG high

372
Q

How is a molar pregnancy managed?

A
suction curettage (ERPC) and the diagnosis is confirmed histologically. 
thereafter serial blood or urine hCG persistent or rising levels = malignancy 15% of complete moles and 0.5% of partial moles
molar pregnancy only precedes 50% of malignancies as it also follow from miscarriage or normal pregnancy
373
Q

what is the recurrence rate of molar pregnancy?

A

1/60

374
Q

how is choriocarcinoma managed?

A

low risk- methotrexate and folic acid
high risk combination chemotherapy
good prognosis
five year survival rates approach 100 %

375
Q

how common are miscarriage?

A

15% of recognized pregnancy

376
Q

what is used to distend the cavity during hysteroscopy?

A

saline or carbon dioxide

377
Q

how can the endometrium be ablated?

A

diathermy, roller ball diathermy, intrauterine hot balloon, laser ablation, microwave probe

378
Q

what are the different types of hysterectomy?

A

total abdominal hysterectomy
vaginal hysterectomy- lower morbidity and quicker recovery than abdominal
laparoscopic hysterectomy

379
Q

what does Wertheim’s (radical) hysterectomy involve?

A

removal of parametrium , upper third of vagina and pelvic lymph nodes. Indication = 1aii - 2a cervical carcinoma.

380
Q

what the risk of hysterectomy?

A

immediate- haemorrhage, bladder or ureteric injury
postoperative- VTE(LMWH prophylaxis), pain, infection
long term- prolapse, stress incontinence, premature menopause

381
Q

what does hysteropexy involve?

A

Resuspension of the prolapse uterus using a strip of non absorbable bifurcated mesh to lift uterus and hold it in place. one end of mesh attached to the cervix and the other end to anterior longitudinal ligament over the sacrum.

382
Q

what precautions are taken to reduce the risk of thromboembolism before gynaecological surgery?

A

COCP stopped 4 weeks prior, if HRT not stopped LMWH must be used.
Low risk: minor surgery or major surgery <30min, no risk factors
Moderate risk: consider anti embolus stockings or subcutaneous heparin for surgery >30mins, obesity, gross varicose veins, current infection, prior immobility, major current illness
High risk: use LMWH for 5 days or until mobile for:
cancer surgery, prolonged surgery, history of DVT. thrombophilia or more than 3 moderate risk factors

383
Q

how is the risk of infection reduced during abdominal and vaginal surgery?

A

Prophylactic antibodies

384
Q

how is the estimated day of delivery calculated?

A

-3 months + 7 days + 12 months from LMP

if cycle longer than 28 days add the number of days greater than 28, reverse applies for shorter cycles

385
Q

when is dating ultrasound done?

A

between 11-13+6 weeks, estimated date of delivery calculated from crown rump length at this scan

386
Q

what are the various complications of pregnancy to ask about in obstetric history?

A

bleeding, hypertension, diabetes, urine infection, concerns about fetal grown, fetal movement

387
Q

Describe the uterus size in the following weeks: 12, 20, 36

A

uterus palpable from 12 weeks
20 weeks at fundus
at xiphisternum at 36 weeks

388
Q

how common is breech presentation at 28 weeks and 37 weeks?

A

30%-28 weeks

3%- 37 weeks

389
Q

what does engagement of the head mean?

A

widest diameter of fetal head descended into pelvis, if only 2/5th of head palpable in abdomen, the head has engaged

390
Q

when is the apgar score calculated?

A

total score = 10
calculated at 1 min after delivery to assess need for resuscitation
calculated at 5 min = correlates vaguely with neurological outcome

391
Q

what are the 5 criteria in apgar score?

A

Heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, colour, reflex irritability(stimulate foot)

392
Q

How is heart rate apgar scored?

A

0: absent
1: <100
2: >100

393
Q

how is respiratory effort apgar scored?

A

0 : absent, irregular
1 : weak
2 : strong cry

394
Q

how is muscle tone apgar scored?

A

0: absent
1: limb flexion
2: active motion

395
Q

how is reflex irritability apgar scored?

A

0: no response
1: grimace
2: cry

396
Q

how is colour apgar scored?

A

0: all blue/pale
1: blue extremities
2: all pink

397
Q

what is involved in the neonatal examination?

A

General: colour, birthmark, posture, behaviour and feeding, respiration
Measure: heart rate, temperature, head circumference, weight
Examine: primitve reflex, inspect back and spine with baby prone, heart- check all pulses equal, abdomen, genetalia, anus, look for dislocation of hip and talipes (club foot)
Investigation: serum bilirubin if jaundiced. Day 7: guthrie test for phenylketonuria and thyroid

398
Q

Ideally when should the first booking appointment be?

A

before 10 weeks gestation

399
Q

What is measured in the combined test done during the dating scan?

A

nuchal translucency measurement

In blood: b-hCG, PAPPA ( pregnancy associated plasma protein A)

400
Q

What are the routine booking investigations?

A

FBC
serum antibodies
glucose tolerance test
blood test for Syphilis, HIV and hepatitis B
Haemoglobin electrophoresis for high risk women - thalassaemia and sickle cell
Urine culture

401
Q

when is 5mg folate/ per day indicated?

A

BMI >30, diabetes, sickle disease or malabsorption, anti epileptics

402
Q

What is the prophylaxis for women at increased risk of pre-eclampsia?

A

Aspiring 75mg

403
Q

Which immunisations are recommended during pregnancy?

A

influenza and pertussis ideally done between 16-32 weeks

404
Q

how is VTE prevented is in high risk women ?

A

Low molecular weight heparin

405
Q

when is FBC and antibody assessment repeated during pregnancy?

A

28 weeks gestation, also rechecked at 34 weeks if low

406
Q

what are the indications for OGTT?

A

increased BMI, ethnicity, first degree relative with history of diabetes

407
Q

what is the average recommended amount of antenatal visits for an uncomplicated pregnancy?

A

7 for multiparous women 10 for nulliparous

408
Q

what is checked on every antenatal visit?

A

blood pressure and urine: protein, glucose and nitrites

409
Q

when are the antenatal visit for nulliparous and multiparous women?

A

10, 13, 20, 25, 28, 31, 34, 36, 38, 40, 41

induction of labour latest by 42 weeks

410
Q

what are the different causes of congenital abnormalities in pregnancy?

A

structural deformities, chromosomal abnormality, inherited, infection, drug exposure

411
Q

when can amniocentesis be done and what are the risks?

A

from 15 weeks gestation, allows diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities + CMV, toxoplasmosis and inherited disorders e.g. sickle cell, thalassaemia and cystic fibrosis.
1% miscarriage rate

412
Q

When can CVS be done?

A

after 11 weeks gestation

413
Q

what are the risk factors of down’s syndrome?

A

High maternal age
previous affected baby
balanced parental translocation

414
Q

what do blood test show if the fetus has down’s syndrome?

A

low: oestriol
low: AFP
low: PAPP-A
high: b-hCG
high: inhibin

415
Q

when is quadruple test done and what is it composed of?

A
blood test done between 14- 22 weeks, integrates:
AFP
total hCG
inhibin 
oestriol
416
Q

what does NIPT stand for?

A

non invasive prenatal testing, near 100% sensitivity therefore negative test is reassuring but positive test prompts further invasive test

417
Q

what syndrome does 22q11 deletion correspond with?

A
di George syndrome
Cardiac abnormality
Atypical face
Thymic hypoplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism
418
Q

define exomphalos

A

partial extrusion of the abdominal contents in a peritoneal sac. 50% = chromosomal problem therefore amniocentesis offered

419
Q

define gastroschisis

A

free loops of bowel in the amniotic cavity. Postnatal surgery indicated >90% survive

420
Q

what do diaphragmatic hernias lead to?

A

pulmonary hyperplasia as abdominal content herniate into the chest. severe cases- in utero tracheal occlusion. Trachea is plugged with balloon that stimulates lung growth.

421
Q

what appearance does duodenal atresia present with in USS?

A

double bubble of stomach and dilated upper duodenum

422
Q

define fetal hydrops

A

extra fluid accumulates in two or more areas in the fetus. 1/500
cause can be immune or non immune

423
Q

what are the five main categories of non immune hydrops?

A

chromosomal abnormalities e.g. trisomy 21
structural abnormality - pleural effusion
cardiac abnormality and arrhythmias
anaemia causing cardiac failure
twin-twin transfusion in monochorionic twin

424
Q

what investigation is done in suspected hydrops?

A

echocardiogram and assessment of the middle cerebral artery.

maternal blood taken for Kleihauer and parvovirus, CMV, toxoplasmosis IgM testing

425
Q

which causes of hydrops are curable?

A

Anaemia- transfusion
compression by fluid collection such as pleural effusion- vesicoamniotic shunting
twin-twin transfusion- laser ablation

426
Q

what are the purposes of doing an USS in the first trimester?

A

exclusion of ectopic, assessment of pregnancy viability, estimation of gestational age, detection of multiple pregnancy, detection of retained products of conception after miscarriage or TOP

427
Q

what are the purposes of doing an USS in the second trimester?

A

diagnosis of structural abnormality
Help other diagnostic or therapeutic techniques- transfusion, amniocentesis
doppler of uterine arteries for growth restriction
measurement of cervical length as screening test for preterm delievery

428
Q

what are the purposes of doing an USS in the third trimester?

A

assessment of fetal growth
doppler of MCA velocity for fetal anaemia
diagnosis of placenta praevia
determining presentation in difficult cases

429
Q

what are the causes of polyhydramnios?

A

maternal diabetes, renal failure
twin to twin transfusion
fetal anomaly: upper GI obstruction, inability to swallow, CNS, cardiac or renal abnormality, myotonic dystrophy

430
Q

what is the epidemiology of CMV during pregnancy and what is its neonatal effect?

A

1% of women develop CMV infection in pregnancy with 40% vertical transmission rate to fetus of which 10% = symptomatic at birth
Effect: IUGR, pneumonia, thrombocytopenia. Go on to develop neurological sequelae such as hearing, visual and mental impairment.

431
Q

How is CMV infection diagnosed in pregnancy and what is the management?

A

IgM for mother
Amniocentesis post 6 week maternal infection will confirm or refute vertical transmission
Management: no prenatal treatment, termination may be offered. Routine screening is not advised.

432
Q

what is the epidemiology of herpes simplex during pregnancy and what is its neonatal effect?

A

HSV-2 effects genitals and vertical transmission occurs at birth following recent maternal primary infection-40% risk. High mortality rate

433
Q

How is herpes simplex infection diagnosed in pregnancy and what is the management?

A

diagnosis is clinical.
Management: referral to genitourinary clinic.
Caesarean section recommended for those delivering within 6 weeks of primary attack and for those with genital lesions from primary infection at the time of delivery. Exposed neonates given acyclovir.

434
Q

what is the epidemiology of herpes zoster during pregnancy and what is its neonatal effect?

A

chickenpox in pregnancy = 0.03% but causes severe maternal illness
neonatal effect: teratogenicity = 1/2%
maternal infection in the 4 weeks preceding delivery can cause severe neonatal infection

435
Q

How is herpes zoster diagnosed in pregnancy and what is the management?

A

immunoglobulin used to prevent and acyclovir used to treat.
Pregnant women tested for immunity
Immunoglobulin given within 10 days of exposure,

436
Q

what is the epidemiology of rubella during pregnancy and what is its neonatal effect?

A

congenital rubella very rare in UK, taken out of screening program in UK
<10 affected neonates born
causes: deafness, cardiac disease, eye problem and mental retardation. Probability and severity decreases with increase in maternal age.
at 9 weeks = 90% risk post 16 weeks very low risk

437
Q

How is rubella diagnosed and managed during pregnancy?

A

non immune women develops rubella before 16 weeks gestation termination of pregnancy offered. Rubella vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy, although harm has not been recorded

438
Q

what is the epidemiology of parvovirus and what is its neonatal effect?

A

0.25% of pregnant women infected. 50% immune. slapped cheek appearance is classic, but many have arthralgia or are asymptomatic.
Neonatal effect: suppresses fetal erythropoiesis causing anaemia. Variable degree of thrombocytopenia also occur. fetal death = 10% of pregnancy usually with infection before 20 weeks.

439
Q

How is parvovirus diagnoses and managed?

A

Positive maternal IgM prompts fetal surveillance.
Fetal anaemia detected initially as increased blood flow velocity in the middle cerebral artery and later as oedema(fetal hydrops) from cardiac failure. Spontaneous resolution in 50%
Transfusion via umbilical artery if anaemia = severe
very severe disease sometimes associated with neurological damage

440
Q

what is the epidemiology of hepatitis B and what is its neonatal effect?

A

1% of pregnant women infected during pregnancy - acute / chronic.
vertical transmission occurs at delivery with 90% being chronic carriers.

441
Q

How is hepatitis B diagnosed and managed?

A

Booking bloods screening
Neonatal immunization reduced the risk of infection by >90%.
Women with high viral load- HBV DNA levels greater than 200 000 IU/mL treated with antiviral agents from 32 weeks with additional passive immunisation to the neonate.

442
Q

what is the epidemiology of hepatitis C and what is its neonatal effect

A

0.5% of women in UK infected. Risk factors = drug use and sexual transmission
Vertical transmission rate = 3-5%
screening is restricted to high risk group

443
Q

what is the epidemiology of HIV and what is its neonatal effect?

A

1000 pregnancies infected by HIV, 15% transmission if no treatment <1% with prophylaxis
maternal effect = increased risk of pre-eclampsia and gestational diabetes
neonatal effect= stillbirth, preeclampsia, growth restriction and prematurity risk increased.
Vertical transmission risk greatest during intrapartum and breast feeding.
25% of infected neonates develop AIDS by 1 year and 40% by 5 years.

444
Q

How is HIV diagnosed and managed during pregnancy?

A

Routine screen during booking
HAART throughout pregnancy and baby for first 6 weeks.
Caesarean recommended if viral load >50copies/ml and if coexistence of hepatitis C virus.
Breastfeeding not advisable

445
Q

How is influenza managed in pregnancy?

A

Preventative measure by recommendation of influenza vaccine

If symptomatic give oseltamivir and consider admission

446
Q

How is Zika transmitted and what are its effect on the neonates?

A

Aedes mosquitoes.

CNS abnormality: intracranial calcification, ventriculomegaly and microcephaly

447
Q

How does group A streptococcus present?

A

streptococcus pyogenes- most common bacterium associated with maternal death
most common symptom = sore throat
can cause chorioamnionitis with abdominal pain, diarrhoea and severe puerperal sepsis.
Reduced morality with early recognition, cultures, high dose antibiotics

448
Q

what increases the risk of neonatal streptococcus B infection?

A

infection from group b streptococcus ( streptococcus agalactiae) is most common with preterm labour, labour prolonged or there is maternal fever.

449
Q

how can vertical transmission of Streptococcus B be prevented?

A

high dose IV penicillin throughout the labour

450
Q

what are the two strategies used to prevent vertical transmission of group b streptococcus?

A

Strategy 1: risk factors no screening
treat with IV penicillin in labour if: previous history, intrapartum fever >38, current preterm labour, rupture of membranes >18h
strategy 2: screening vaginal and rectal swab at 35-37 weeks
treat with IV penicillin if swab positive or risk factors present.

451
Q

how is toxoplasmosis transmitted and what are its neonatal effects?

A

due to protozoan parasite - toxoplasma gondii
follows contact with cat faeces or eating infected meat
0.2% pregnant women affected
neonatal effect: mental handicap, convulsions, spasticity, and visual handicap

452
Q

How is toxoplasmosis diagnoses and how is it managed?

A

ultrasound may show hydrocephalus, maternal infection is usually diagnosed with IgM following exposure. confirmed with amniocentesis after 20 weeks.
Spiramycin started as soon as maternal toxoplasmosis is diagnosed.
If vertical transmission confirmed add additional combination therapy: pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine with folinic acid.
Termination may be offered

453
Q

how does TB effect and neonate ?

A

diagnosis in late pregnancy is associated with prematurity and IUGR. treatment with first line drugs and addition vitamin B6 but streptomycin contraindicated

454
Q

how is malaria in pregnancy managed?

A

artemisin combination therapy

455
Q

what are the neonatal effect of chlamydia and gonorrhoea in pregnancy and how are they managed?

A

Associated with preterm labour and with neonatal conjunctivitis.
Chlamydia treated with: azithromycin or erythromycin; tetracycline cause fetal tooth decolouration
Gonorrhoea treated with cephalosporins

456
Q

what are the neonatal effect of bacterial vaginosis and how is it managed?

A

Common overgrowth of normal vaginal lactobacilli by anaerobes such as gardernella vaginalis and mycoplasma hominis.
Preterm labour and late miscarriage are common
Screening and treatment with oral clindamycin reduce the risk of preterm birth if used before 20 weeks in women with a history of preterm birth

457
Q

define proteinuria

A

> 0.3mg/24h

458
Q

how much does blood pressure drop by in normal pregnancy?

A

-30/15mmHg minimum in second trimester

459
Q

define gestational hypertension

A

blood pressure >140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks

460
Q

define preeclampsia

A

Preeclampsia: >140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks + protein urea often with oedema

461
Q

define early onset pre eclampsia

A

complication before 34 weeks, often causes IUGR

462
Q

what is the mechanism of pre eclampsia?

A

poor trophoblastic invasion of spiral arteries causes high resistance flow in uterine arties. Oxidative inflammatory markers released. Blood vessel endothelial cell damage is systemic flow leas to vasospasm, increased capillary permeability and clotting dysfunction

463
Q

how is pre eclampsia classified?

A

mild or moderate: pre-eclampsia without severe hypertension and no symptoms and no biochemical haematological impairment

severe: pre-eclampsia with severe hypertension and/or with symptoms and/or biochemical and haematological impairment
Hypertension mild: moderate: severe
140:150:160

464
Q

what are the risk factors of preeclampsia and indication for low dose aspirin us?

A
High risk: aspirin indicated if any of the following:
1) hypertensive disease during a previous pregnancy
2) CKD
3) AI disease such as SLE or anti phospholipid syndrome
4) type 1 or 2 diabetes
5) chronic hypertension
moderate risk: aspiring if >1 of:
1) nulliparous
2) age >= 40
3) pregnancy interval more than 10 years
4) BMI >35 at booking
5) family history of pre eclampsia 
6) multiple pregnancy
465
Q

What is HELLP syndome?

A

Haemolysis(dark urine, raised LDH, anaemia), elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

466
Q

what are the clinical features of pre eclampsia

A

at late stage: headache, drowsiness, visual disturbance, nausea, vomiting or epigastric pain
hypertension, oedema, urine dipstick

467
Q

what are the maternal complications of pre eclampsia?

A

Indication for delivery:

1) eclampsia- treatment with magnesium sulphate IV intensive surveillance for complications
2) cerebrovascular haemorrhage
3) HELLP- magnesium sulphate prophylaxis
4) renal failure- identified by careful fluid balance monitoring and creatinine measurement.
5) Haemodialysis required in severe cases.
6) Pulmonary oedema- treated with oxygen and furosemide

468
Q

what are the fetal complications of pre eclampsia

A

IUGR, preterm birth, placental abruption, hypoxia

469
Q

what investigations are done for pre eclampsia?

A
Urine protein- PCR
FBC
LDH, LFTs,
renal function: UnEs, creatinine clearance
USS monitoring for IUGR
umbilical artery doppler and CTG
PIGF
470
Q

how is preeclampsia managed?

A

Prevention: 75mg aspirin from 12 weeks to birth
Blood pressure and urinalysis 2x weekly and USS 2-4 weeks
Labetalol if BP 140/110mmHg with target <135/95

471
Q

when should hospital admission be considered for pre eclampsia?

A

proteinuria pcr >30, severe hypertension >160/110
IUGR, abnormal CTG
blood pressure measurement every 15-30mins until below 160 then 4x daily inpatient
renal function, liver function and FBC 3x weekly afterwards

472
Q

when is delivery recommended for pre eclamptic women?

A

deliver 37 weeks unless indication for early delivery.

steroid course before delivery 37 weeks.

473
Q

how should labour be managed in a pre eclamptic women?

A

continuous CTG monitoring, blood pressure and fluid balance closely observed.
Oxytocin rather than ergometrine as latter raises blood pressure.

474
Q

what is the postnatal management of pre-eclamptic patient?

A

24 hours for severe disease to improve
continue LFTs, platelets and renal function
Fluid balance monitored
Blood pressure maintained 140/90
Long term management plan with GP or community midwife. Hypertension persisting past 6 weeks referred to renal or hypertension clinic

475
Q

define pre existing hypertension in pregnancy

A

140/90mmHg before 20 weeks

476
Q

what are the causes of secondary hypertension?

A

secondary hypertension association = obesity, diabetes, renal disease, renal artery stenosis, chronic pyelonephritis, Cushing’s syndrome, coarctation of aorta

477
Q

how is existing hypertension in pregnancy managed?

A

Labetalol normally used with nifedipine as a second line agent.

478
Q

what are the various assessment of urinary protein and what do they indicate?

A

dipsticks(bed side): trace, (1+, >=2) significant protein urea => quantify
Protein creatinine ratio >30mg/nmol = confirmed significant proteinuria
24h collection >0.3g/24h

479
Q

define gestational diabetes

A

carbohydrate intolerance which is diagnosed in pregnancy and may or may not resolve after pregnancy

480
Q

what are the diagnostic threshold for diagnosing gestational diabetes?

A

fasting glucose 5.6

2 hour glucose 7.8

481
Q

what are the complications of maternal diabetes in pregnancy?

A

complications are related to poorly controlled blood sugars:
increased risk of neural and cardiac defect
fetal lung maturity slower
Increased risk of macrosomia
polyhydramnios common
dystocia and birth trauma
fetal compromise and fetal distress in labour and sudden fetal death are more common

482
Q

what are the maternal complications of diabetes?

A

Increased insulin requirement
UTI and endometrial infection more common
caesarean or instrumental delivery more common
diabetic nephropathy and retinopathy

483
Q

how is pre existing diabetes managed preconceptually?

A

HbA1c <6.5% ideal >10% pregnancy not advised

folate 5mg, antihypertensive suitable for pregnancy substituted and statins stopped

484
Q

what is the blood glucose aim when gestational diabetes is being treated?

A

fasting glucose <5.3mmol/l

one hour glucose <7.8mmol/l

485
Q

when is the fetal growth monitored in a woman with gestational diabetes and what are the recommendation for delivery?

A

USS fetal growth and liquor at 32 and 36 weeks
delivery at 37-39 weeks
elective caesarean is often used when fetal weight exceeds 4kg
during labour glucose levels re maintained with a sliding scale of insulin and dextrose infusion

486
Q

how is gestational diabetes managed if fasting levels are >7mmol/l?

A

metformin or insulin is started immediately

487
Q

what murmur is heard during pregnancy due to increase in stroke volume?

A

ejection systolic murmur in 90% of pregnant women

left axis shift and inverted T waves are common

488
Q

what are the risk factors for gestational diabetes and when is it screened?

A
Previous history of gestational diabetes
1st degree relative with diabetes
previous fetus >4.5kg
BMI > 30
racial origin
polyhydramnios
persistent glycosuria
previous unexplained stillbirth
489
Q

which antiepileptic drugs can be used in pregnancy?

A

lamotrigine, levetiracetam

must use 5mg folate

490
Q

how is hyperthyroidism managed in pregnancy?

A

propylthiouracil in first trimester than carbimazole

491
Q

In women presenting with intrahepatic cholestasis what can help with their itching?

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

492
Q

How is the increased risk of haemorrhage reduced in patient’s diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestatsis?

A

Vitamin K is given from 36 weeks 10mg/day
also induction by 40 weeks
38 if bile acids are high

493
Q

why does urea and creatinine decrease in pregnancy?

A

glomerular filtration rate increases 40%

494
Q

why should nitrofurantoin be avoided after 36 weeks gestation?

A

it may produce neonatal

haemolysis.

495
Q

when in bacteriuria screened for during pregnancy and what complications can it lead to?

A

Urine cultured at booking visit. Bacteriuria may led to pyelonephritis
E.coli accounts for 75% of cases

496
Q

what antibodies are present in antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

lupus anticoagulant and or anticardiolipin antibodies or anti B2 glycoprotein I antibody
measured twice 3 months apart

497
Q

give examples of prothrombotic disorders which increase the risk of VTE

A

anti thrombin deficiency, protein s and c deficiency

498
Q

how is hyperhomocysteinaemia managed?

A

> 15 μmol/L, managed with high dose folic acid

aspiring + LMWH

499
Q

how does pregnancy increase the risk of VTE?

A

blood clotting factors are increased

fibrinolytic activity reduced

500
Q

how is pulmonary embolism diagnosed?

A

chest x-ray, arterial blood gas analysis, CTPA, VQ scan

501
Q

how is DVT diagnosed?

A

doppler US or MRI used

502
Q

how is cerebral VT diagnosed?

A

MRI head

503
Q

what are the risk factors for VTE?

A
any previous VTE
High risk thrombophilia
Obesity
increasing age >35
parity >3 or equal
smoker
caesarean section in labour
surgical procedure except perineal repair
prolonged admission
family history of VTE
gross varicose veins
current systemic infection
immobility
current preeclampsia
multiple pregnancy
prolonged labour 
haemorrhage
504
Q

what is the management of VTE?

A

high risk: antenatal LMWH
continue postnatally for 6 weeks if high risk
intermediate risk: consider LMWH antenatal
LMWH postnatally for 10 days

505
Q

what are the criteria to consider for admission to a mother and a baby unit

A
Rapidly changing mental state
suicidal idealation
pervasive guilt or hopelessness
significant estrangement from the infant
new or persistent beliefs of inadequacy as a mother
evidence of psychosis
506
Q

which antipsychotic is first line in pregnancy?

A

haloperidol

507
Q

what are the complications of ecstasy use during pregnancy?

A

cardiac defects and gastroschisis

508
Q

what are the complication of benzodiazepine use during pregnancy?

A

association with facial clefts, neonatal hypotonia and withdrawal symptoms

509
Q

what are the common side effects of oral iron supplement?

A

GI upset- constipation

510
Q

what are the anaemia criteria in pregnancy?

A

110 in first and third

105 in second

511
Q

what are the complications of sickle cell disease in pregnancy?

A

painful crisis, pre eclampsia and thrombosis

512
Q

what are the different severity of alpha thalassaemia?

A

4 gene deletion die in utero
3 gene deletion require lifelong transfusion
2 or 1 gene deletion are carriers and usually well but mildly anaemic

513
Q

what are the complications of beta thalassaemia major?

A

chronic haemolytic anaemia is present and multiple transfusion may cause iron overload

514
Q

what are the four classifications of FGM?

A

type 1: clitoridectomy
type 2: excision partial or total removal of the clitoris and labia minora +- labia major
type 3: infibulation: narrowing of the vaginal opening by cutting and repositioning the labia with our without removal of the clitoris
type 4: other non medical procedure to the female genitalia

515
Q

give examples of potentially sensitising events for rhesus d in pregnancy

A
TOP or ERPC after miscarriage
ectopic pregnancy 
vaginal bleeding >12 weeks or <12 weeks if heavy
external cephalic version
Invasive uterine procedures
intrauterine death
delivery
516
Q

how is sensitisation prevented in pregnancy?

A

anti d given week 28 if fetus rhesus positive or unknown, when mother = rhesus negative
also given within 72 hours of any sensitising event

517
Q

how is rhesus d isoimmunisation managed?

A

anti d level >4IU/mL fetus investigated for anaemia, blood transfusion in utero or delivery for affected fetus

518
Q

how is fetal anaemia assessed?

A

doppler ultrasound of the fetal middle cerebral artery to calculate peak systole velocity has high sensitivity for significant anaemia before 36 weeks.
very severe anaemia <5g/dL is detectable as fetal hydrops or excessive fetal fluid

519
Q

In which veins can transfusion be given to the fetus?

A

umbilical vein or intrahepatic vein

deliver if more than 36 weeks

520
Q

what is the post natal management of a baby born to rh - mother?

A

check FBC, bilirubin and rhesus group

521
Q

what percentage of deliveries are preterm?

A

5-8%

522
Q

what are the complications of preterm labour?

A

increased mortality, cerebral palsy, chronic lung disease, blindness

523
Q

what are the risk factors for spontaneous preterm labour?

A
previous history
lower socioeconomic class
extremes of maternal age
short interpregnancy interval
pre eclampsia
IUGR
STI
vaginal infections
previous cervical surgery
multiple pregnancy
uterine abnormalities
UTI
524
Q

what are the prevention strategies for prevention of preterm of labour?

A

preventive strategies usually limited to high risk women who have previously delivered between 16-34 weeks.
Cervical cerclage: insertion of one or more sutures in the cervix to strengthen it and keep it closed. Either done at 12-14 weeks or scanned regularly and if only done if significant shortening
Progesterone supplementation using pessary may reduce risk but not currently recommended

525
Q

what investigation is done if a women presents with suspected rupture of membranes?

A

at point of care: fetal fibronectin assay
a negative results means preterm delivery within the next week is unlikely.
TVS of cervical length: delivery unlikely if cervical length >15mm
Fetal state assessed by: CTG and ultrasound
To look for infection: high vaginal swab using a sterile speculum.
CRP and WCC may be helpful in diagnosing chorioamnionitis

526
Q

what can be used to delay labour for steroid to be administered in preterm labour?

A

tocolytics: nifedipine, atosiban(oxytocin antagonist)

527
Q

when should magnesium sulphate be given in pregnancy and what are its complications?

A
magnesium sulphate is given within 24 hours of delivery of preterm babies of less than 34 weeks gestation. It is given as a bolus, followed by an infusion for up to 24 hours or until birth
complications:
Reduced respiratory rate
Reduced blood pressure
Absent reflexes
Monitor tendon reflex, ECG if possible
528
Q

how does ROM present?

A

gush of clear fluid is normal followed by further leaking

529
Q

why is co-amoxiclav contraindicated in prevention of infection after ROM?

A

more prone to necrotising enterocolitis

use erythromycin

530
Q

define antepartum haemorrhage

A

bleeding from genital tract after 24 weeks gestation

531
Q

what are the risk factors for placenta praevia

A

more common with twins, previous caesarean, high parity and age, scarred uterus.

532
Q

what are the complications of placenta praevia?

A

obstructs head engagement

haemorrhage

533
Q

how does placenta praevia present?

A

intermittent painless bleeding
incidental US finding
Abnormal lie, breech presentation

534
Q

which examination should not be performed in suspected placenta praevia?

A

vaginal examination

535
Q

When is USS done in third trimester to detect ongoing placenta praevia?

A

32 weeks

536
Q

how can placenta accreta be diagnosed?

A

3D power doppler ultrasound or MRI

537
Q

what investigations should be done if pregnant woman presents with vaginal bleeding?

A

CTG, FBC, clotting studies and cross match blood

538
Q

how is placenta praevia managed?

A

Admit all women with bleeding from placenta praevia
Anti d is administered to rh- women
IV access
Steroids if gestation <34 weeks IM injection
delivery by elective caesarean section at 39 weeks by most senior person available

539
Q

define placental abruption

A

when part or all of the placenta separates before delivery of the fetus.

540
Q

what are the risk factors for placental abruption?

A
IUGR
pre-eclampsia
pre-existing hypertension
maternal smoking
previous abruption
cocaine
541
Q

what are the clinical features of placental abruption?

A

woody uterus, painful bleeding, tachycardia, hypotension, poor urine output or renal failure

542
Q

what CTG features are seen during placental abruption?

A

fetal bradycardia, frequent erratic uterine activity

543
Q

how is placental abruption initially managed?

A
admission to hospital even without vaginal bleeding if there is pain and uterine tenderness.
Resuscitation may be required
IV fluid, steroid if <34 weeks. 
Opiate analgesia, anti D for rh- 
early delivery if fetal distress
transfusion of blood +- blood products
544
Q

what are the delivery options for placental abruption?

A

Depends on fetal state and gestation
Fetal distress urgent delivery by c section required

if no fetal distress but gestation is 37 weeks or more- induction of labour with amniotomy

545
Q

how is maternal condition accessed in placental abruption?

A

fluid balance, renal function, FBC and clotting, urine output

546
Q

what are the causes of perinatal mortality?

A
unexplained
preterm delivery
IUGR
congenital abnormality
intrapartum, including hypoxia
placental abruption
547
Q

define SGA

A

<10th centile for date

548
Q

define IUGR

A

describes foetuses that have failed to reach their own growth potential

549
Q

what is the difference between fetal distress and fetal compromise?

A

fetal distress- acute situation.

fetal compromise- chronic situation

550
Q

how can PAPPA be used to asses risk?

A

low in chromosomal abnormality, IUGR placental abruption and still birth

551
Q

How can maternal uterine artery doppler be used to asses risk ?

A

abnormal wave forms suggesting failure of development of a low resistance circulation identify 75% of pregnancies at risk of adverse neonatal outcomes: early preeclampsia, IUGR, placental abruption

552
Q

when is ductus venous waveform useful?

A

Measure of cardiac function. Useful in assessing disease severity in babies with heart failure and twin to twin transfusion

553
Q

what are the determinants of fetal size?

A

constitutional determinants: gender, ethnicity, low maternal height and weight, nulliparity
Pathological determinants: pre-eclampsia, smoking, drug usage, CMV, extreme exercise and malnutrition

554
Q

what are the major risk factors for SGA at booking?

A
previous history of SGA or stillbirth
heavy smoking
cocaine use
heavy daily exercise
maternal illness: diabetes
parental SGA
555
Q

how is SGA investigated?

A

ultrasound to determine size
check for fetal abnormalities, CMV and chromosome
Umbilical artery doppler if less than 34 weeks
if more add on middle cerebral artery doppler as well
CTG if doppler abnormal

556
Q

defined prolonged pregnancy

A

> =42weeks, labour induced between 41-42 weeks

557
Q

how is prolonged pregnancy managed?

A

at 40-41 week offer cervical sweep
at 41 week check patient vagina and offer induction
if no induction arrange daily CTG
if CTG abnormal caesarean

558
Q

how is IUGR managed?

A

<34 weeks twice weekly umbA doppler if abnormal but not AEDF
give steroids
daily CTG if abnormal AEDF <32 weeks
deliver if abnormal AEDF >32 weeks or CTG abnormal
give magnesium prior to delivery

> 34 week monitor, Cerebroplacental ratio
consider delivery anyway

> 37 Weeks deliver

559
Q

what increases the risk of abnormal lie?

A
preterm delivery
lax uterus due to multiparity
polyhydramnios
twin pregnancy
placenta praevia
uterine deformities
560
Q

after how many weeks gestation is ECV done?

A

37 weeks

561
Q

what are the different types of breech presentation?

A

extended: hip flexion, knee extension
flexed: hips flexion, knee flexion
footling: one /two foot presents below buttocks

562
Q

when is vaginal birth contraindicated in breech?

A

footling breech, >3.8kg

563
Q

what are the different types of multiple pregnancy?

A

DZ twins- different oocyte fertilised by different sperm
MZ division before day 3: DCDA 30%
division between 4-8: MCDA 70%
division between 9-13: MCMA rare

564
Q

what are the risk factors for multiple pregnancy?

A

genetic predisposition, assisted conception (IVF, clomiphene), increasing maternal age and high parity

565
Q

what are the complications of multiple pregnancy?

A

6x greater mortality rate, IUGR, preterm dlivery, malpresentation, post partum haemorrhage
preeclampsia, diabetes, anaemia

566
Q

how is twin twin transfusion syndrome managed?

A

laser ablation

567
Q

what does lambda sign and T sign in pregnancy ultrasound mean?

A

Lambda sign: dichorionic

T sign: monochorionic

568
Q

when are serial ultrasound performed in multiple pregnancies to detect IUGR?

A

28, 32, 36 weeks

569
Q

how many weeks gestatation is delivery advised by in multiple pregnancy?

A

37 weeks for dichorionic twins and 36 weeks for uncomplicated monochoronic twins

570
Q

how often is US surveillance performed in MC twins>

A

starts at 12 weeks, every 2 week until 24 weeks and every 2-3 weeks afterwards

571
Q

when is twin to twin transfusion syndrome most commom?

A

16-24 week gestation

572
Q

after how many weeks are pregnancies complicated by TTTS considered for delivery?

A

26 weeks

573
Q

how is labour diagnosed?

A

painful contraction leading to dialatation of the cervix

574
Q

what are the different stages of labour?

A

first- cervical dialatation
second- delivery of fetus
third- delivery of placenta

575
Q

which three mechanical factors determine progress during labour?

A

the degree of force expelling the fetus
the dimension of pelvis and the resistance of the soft tissue
the diameters of the fetal head

576
Q

which landmark feature is used to access progress during labour?

A

ischial spines, palpable vaginally

577
Q

what are the other names for posterior and anterior fontanelle?

A

posterior- occiput

anterior- bregma

578
Q

what is meant by attitude during labour presentation and how does it effect delivery?

A

attitude = degree of flexion of the head on the neck. Ideal = maximal flexion smaller vertex presentation. extended head causes larger vertex presentation and can mean the fetal diameters are too large to deliver vaginally.

579
Q

what is meant by position during presentation?

A

degree of rotation of the head on the neck. Ideal situation = transverse sagital suture when head enters inlet and vertical at outlet with occiput anterior

580
Q

how does the fetal head move during second stage of labour?

A

transverse at inlet
descent and flexion
rotation 90* to occipito anteror at outlet
descent
extension to deliver
transverse rotation again for delivery of shoulders

581
Q

how is first stage of labour split up?

A

the latent phase - cervix up to 4cm dialated slow

active phase after 4cm- quicker dilatation

582
Q

how long does second stage of delivery last?

A

40 mins nulliparous 20 mins multiparous

583
Q

how long does third stage last on average?

A

15 mins

584
Q

what obervation are made during labourand how often?

A

temperature and BP monitored every 4 hours, pulse every hour(first stage) pulse every 15 mins in second stage. if abnormal measurements should be more frequent
contraction frequency is recorded every 30 mins

585
Q

which position is contraindicated during delivery?

A

supine

586
Q

is drinking encouraged in labour?

A

yes unless high risk

587
Q

how is pyrexia defined in labour and how is it managed?

A

> 37.5 more common with epidural and prolonged labour. Culture of vagina, urine and blood are taken.
administer paracetamol
antibiotics IV and CTG monitor if fever reaches 38*C

588
Q

what effect does epidural have on urination?

A

removes bladder sensation therefore may reduce urination

589
Q

what is the nice guidelines definition of slow progress of labour?

A

<2cm dialatation in 4 hours

590
Q

define augmentation

A

augmentation is the artificial strengthening of contraction in established labour

591
Q

what are the steps in augmentation of labour

A

first rupture of membrane if hasn’t happened yet

oxytocin IV

592
Q

how is OT position managed?

A

rotation with ventouse

593
Q

how is OP managed?

A

kielland’s forcep

594
Q

how is brow presentation managed?

A

requires caesarean

595
Q

how is face presentation managed?

A

chin anterior - vaginal possible

chin posterior - caesarean

596
Q

what is terbutaline used for?

A

stop contractions

597
Q

what is entonox?

A

mix of nitrous oxide and oxygen, mild but rapid analgesia

598
Q

what is in local anaesthetic?

A

opiate + local anaesthetic

fentanyl and bupivacaine

599
Q

where is an epidural injected?

A

l3/4 or l4/5 loading dose followed by intermittent low dose

600
Q

what are the contraindications to epidural?

A
severe sepsis
coagulopathy or anticoagulant therapy unless low dose heparin
active neurological disease
some spinal abnormalities
hypovolaemia
601
Q

what are complications of epidurals?

A
spinal tap
total spinal analgesia
hypotension
local anaesthetic toxicity
higher instrumental delivery rate
poor mobility
urinary retention
maternal fever
602
Q

where is analgesia delivered for caesarean?

A

spinal anaesthesia

603
Q

what are the criteria for home birth?

A
woman's request
low risk on basis of anetnatal or past obstetric medical complications
37-41 weeks
cephalic presentation
clear liquor
normal fetal heart rate
all maternal observations normal
604
Q

how are perineal traumas classified

A

1: injury to skin only
2: involving perineal muscle
3: involving anal sphincter complex
a <50% external
b >50% external
c internal as well
4: involving anal epithelium as well

605
Q

how is oxytocin administered for active management of third stage?

A

IM syntometrine often used : ergometrine + oxytocin

606
Q

what are the risk factors for perineal tears?

A

forecep delivery, large babies, nulliparity

607
Q

define prolonged labour

A

> 12h duration after latent phase

608
Q

what are the causes of prolonged labour?

A

power: inefficent uterine action
passenger: fetal size, disorder of rotation OT OP, disorder of flexion
passage: cephalo-pelvic disproportion

609
Q

how is slow progress in labour managed?

A

Wait if natural labour waned, mobilize and provide support
Nulliparous: amniotomy + oxytocin
Multiparous: amniotomy + oxtocin if malpresentation/ malposition excluded
if this fails caesarean section if in first stage of labour and instrumental delivery if in second stage of labour

610
Q

how common in OP?

A

5%

611
Q

what are the different causes of fetal inury during labour?

A

hypoxia, meconium aspiration, trauma, infection/inflammation, blood loss

612
Q

define fetal distress

A

hypoxia that may result in fetal damage or death if not reversed or the fetus delivered urgently

613
Q

how is the fetus monitored during labour?

A
intermittent ascultation(IA), inspection for meconium, if IA abnormal do CTG
can do fetal blood sample if CTG abnormal
614
Q

how is CTG showing bradycardia managed?

A

resusitate, if no improvemt caesarean or instrumental delivery - whichever quickest route

615
Q

which score predicts successful induction of labour?

A

Bishop’s score

616
Q

what are the methods of inducing labour?

A

medical: prostagladin, oxytocin
surgical: amniotomy

617
Q

what are the indication for induction of labour?

A

IUGR, prolonged pregnancy, pre eclampsia, maternal disease such as diabetes, preterm rupture of membranes

618
Q

what are the absolute and relative contraindication for induced labour?

A

acute fetal comprimise, abnormal lie, placenta praevia, pelvic obstruction, previous caesarean section

619
Q

what are the factors influencing vaginal delivery after one caesarean section?

A

spontaneous labour, interpregnancy interval of less than 2 years, low age and normal BMI, caucasian rave, previous vaginal delivery

620
Q

how is prelabour term rupture of the membranes managed?

A

check for infection, lie/presentation, avoid vaginal examination
consider immediate induction as risks lower, or wait
advise induction and antibiotics if >18-24 hour duration

621
Q

how common is instrumental delivery?

A

20% of nulliparous women and 2% of multiparous

622
Q

when is a classical caesarean indicated?

A

extreme prematurity, multiple fibroids, fetus is transverse

623
Q

what are the absolute indication for caesarean section?

A

placenta praevia, severe antenatal fetal comprimise, uncorrectable abnormal lie, previous vertical caesarean section and gross pelvic deformity

624
Q

what are the relative indication for caesarean?

A

breech, twin, IUGR, diabetes, pre eclampsia, previous caesarean and older nulliparous patients
when delivery before 34 weeks caesarean favoured over induction

625
Q

what are complications of caesarean section and how are they reduced?

A

haemorrhage, blood transfusion, infection of the uterus or wound, bowel or bladder damage, postop pain, VTE
preoperative antibiotic + thromboprophylaxis given

626
Q

how is placenta accreta diagnosed?

A

3D power doppler

627
Q

what is the name of rotational forcep?

A

kielland’s

628
Q

what are the two non rotational forceps?

A

simpson’s neville-barnes

629
Q

what is the risk of shoulder dystocia?

A

Erb’s palsy

630
Q

how is shoulder dystocia managed?

A
McRobert's manoeuvre
gentle pressure on anterior shoulder
episiotomy
Rubins manoeuvre
Wood’s screw manoeuvre
Zavanelli manoeuver- emergency caesarean