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One deck to rule them all Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

3 solutions for acid-fast staining

A
  1. carbol fuschin stain
  2. 3% acid alcohol
  3. methylene blue
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2
Q

Detecting bacterial capsule (2)

A

Quellung/ neufeld reaction or capsule stain

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3
Q

Solutions for capsule stain

A

India ink and carbol fuschin

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4
Q

Detection of spore (4)

A
  1. phase contrast microscope
  2. zhiel neelsen
  3. moeller stain
  4. gram stain (negative stain)
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5
Q

What is the flagella stain?

A

tannic acid and aluminium potasium phosphate

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6
Q

What does Neisser stain detect?

A

presence of polar / volutin / babes-ernst granules in C; dyphteriae

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7
Q

Differenciating - selective culture media?

A

Eosin-methylene blue, only gram negative bacteria grow, differenciates w/ lactose fermentation

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8
Q

Volume sample blood culture adults

A

20-30mL / blood culture

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9
Q

What is streaking?

A

A technique to isolate a pure strain from a single species of bacteria

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10
Q

Aerobic bacteria (2 ex)

A
  • p. aeruginosa

- m. tuberculosis

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11
Q

Parameters of culture of aerobes

A

37°C, 70-80% humidity, 02, 1 atm

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12
Q

Parameters of culture of microaerophiles

A

5%O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2

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13
Q

What does hippurate positive mean?

A

It means that it hydroxylyses sodium hippurate

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14
Q

What does CAMP test positive mean?

A

Increased zone of hemolysis when put with s. aureus

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15
Q

How long do you keep each solution on the slide for gram staining?

A

Crystal violet : 2 minutes
Iodine : 1 minute
Ethanol : until it’s no longer purple
Safranin : 1 minute

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16
Q

Neisser 1 solution

A

Methylene blue, glacial acetate, 96% ethanol, distilled water

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17
Q

Neisser 2 solution

A

10% crystal violet in 96% ethanol, 96% ethanol, distilled water

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18
Q

Chrysoidin solution

A

1% chrysoidin aqueous solution in distilled water

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19
Q

Result of neisser staining

A

Bacterium : yellow, granules : purple

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20
Q

How do we differenciate acid-fast bacteria?

A

Acid-fast bacteria are resistant to decolorizer (acid) due to high amount of lipoidal material in their cell wall.

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21
Q

How long do we keep each solution on the slide for the acid fast?

A

Carbol fuschin : 5 minutes (after heat)
Acid alcohol : 5 minutes
Methylene blue : 2 minutes

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22
Q

What type of objective is used for acid fast stain?

A

1000x oil immersion objective

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23
Q

Size of microorganisms and virus

A

Bacteria : 0.1-50 microM
Fungi, protozoa : 5-100 microM
Viruses : 20-400 nM

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24
Q

What is waterhouse friedrichen syndrome?

A

hemorrhage of the adrenals

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25
Q

What is a bacterial lawn?

A

sheet of bacteria that covers an agar plate used to determine antibiotic resistance of that species or for bacteriophage typing

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26
Q

Example of a selective medium (2)

A
  • manitol salt agar

- chocolate agar with vancomycin for h. influenzae

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27
Q

Example of a differenciation medium

A

eosin methylene blue agar

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28
Q

2 microaerophilic bacteria

A

campylobacters, neisserias

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29
Q

Microaerophilic agar for C.Jejuni

A

skirrow campylobacter selective agar

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30
Q

What is anaerostate

A

physical method of anaerobic incubation, with N2 and CO2 instead of room air

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31
Q

chemical methods for anaerobic culture of bacteria

A
  • broth
  • thioglycolate bouillon
  • gaspack jar
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32
Q

IC bacterias grown on animals

A
  • t. pallidum grown on rabbit testis

- m. leprae on the feet of a mouse or armadillo

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33
Q

examples of obligate IC bacteria

A
  • rickettsia
  • coxiella
  • chlamydia trachomatitis
  • mycobacterium leprae
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34
Q

What is a biofilm?

A

A collection of surface associated microbial cells that is enclosed in an ECM

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35
Q

2 gram positive rods

A
  • corynebacterium

- listeria

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36
Q

How to diferenciate gram negative rods

A

lactose fermentation and oxidase test

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37
Q

What are the obligate structures of bacteria? (5)

A
  • cell wall
  • plasma membrane
  • cytoplasm
  • nucleoid
  • periplasmic space
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38
Q

Non-essential structures of bacteria (6)

A
  • capsule
  • plasmid
  • spore
  • fimbriae
  • pili
  • flagella
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39
Q

How are plasmids transferred?

A

binary fission or conjugation

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40
Q

Spore formation process (4)

A
  1. bacteria divides asymmetrically
  2. fore spore is engulfed by mother cell
  3. Spore is dehydrated to mature
  4. Endospore is released when destruction of mother cell
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41
Q

Arrangements of flagella (3)

A
  • monotrichous (p. aeruginosa)
  • amphitrichous
  • peritrichous (e. coli)
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42
Q

What do streptococci ferment?

A

glucose

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43
Q

Detection of biofilm (3)

A
  • tissue culture plate
  • tube method
  • congo red staining
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44
Q

optimum growth media for campilobacter jejuni

A
  • 42 degrees
  • skirrow media
  • microaerophilic
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45
Q

optimum growth media for listeria monocytogenes

A
  • 4 degrees

- facultative anaerobic

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46
Q

bacteria with positive urease test

A

klebsiella, proteus

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47
Q

enterobacteriacecae family (4)

A

escherichia, klebsiella, salmonella, shigella

48
Q

Serological reactions using precipitation (5)

A
  • Disk precipitation
  • Flocculation
  • Elek test
  • Radial immunodiffusion
  • Electrophoresis
49
Q

Serological reactions using agglutination (3)

A
  1. slide agglutination
  2. tube agglutination
  3. co-agglutination
50
Q

Validation of serological tests

A
  • experiment : precision, repetability…
  • incremental process
  • statistical verification
  • constant observation and maintenance
  • reassessment of test performance for each population
51
Q

types of allergic skin test (3)

A
  • scratch test
  • intradermal
  • patch
52
Q

3 susceptibility tests and their uses

A
  • Tuberculin test (tb)
  • Schick test (diphteria)
  • Lepromin test (type of leprosy)
53
Q

3 roles of the capsule

A
  • major virulence factor : protects from phagocytosis
  • antigenic properties (K antigen) for identification
  • aids adhesion
54
Q

Which bacteria can form spores?

A

Gram positive bacteria :

  • bacillus (aerobic)
  • clostridium (anaerobic)
55
Q

Microaerophiles lvl of O2 + example

A

21% or less

Campylobacter

56
Q

Example of capnophile

A

h. influenzae

57
Q

Enzymes needed for aerobic respiration (3)

A
  • superoxide dismutase
  • peroxidase
  • catalase
58
Q

Glucose fermenters (3)

A
  • v cholerae
  • clostridium
  • streptococci
59
Q

Mannitol fermenter

A

S. Aureus

60
Q

What is the cooking method ineffective against?

A

tetanus, clostridium, hepatitis agents

61
Q

Examples of antiseptics and disinfectants (7)

A
  • alcohols
  • acid bases
  • quaternary ammonium compounds
  • oxidizing agents
  • halogens
  • phenolic compounds
  • aldehydes
62
Q

3 examples of antimicrobial combinations

A
  • TMP/SMX “cotrimoxazole”
  • Amoxicillin / clavulanic acid “coamoxiclav”
  • Gentamycin / vancomycin
63
Q

TMP

A

trimethoprim

64
Q

SMX

A

sulfamethoxazole

65
Q

What type of drug is vancomycin?

A

glycopeptide

66
Q

What type of drug is gentamycin?

A

aminoglycoside

67
Q

Natures of penicillins (4)

A
  • natural
  • aminopenicillins
  • penicillase resistant
  • antipseudomonal
68
Q

What is cephalosporin ineffective against?

A

LAME : listeria, atypical pneumonia, MRSA, enterococci

69
Q

Beta lactam antibiotics

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams

70
Q

Mnemonic for names of carbapenems

A

Ertamerodori-imi

71
Q

What is special with imipenem

A

It is given with cilastatin because it is vulnerable against dehydropeptidase in kidney

72
Q

What is special about monobactams

A
  • Effective against aerobic gram negative only

- binds pbp3

73
Q

What is bacitracin / polypeptide ab effective against?

A

Gram positive cocci

74
Q

Inhibitors of 30S subunit

A

Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines

75
Q

Inhibitors of 50S subunit

A

Amphenicol, macrolides, lincosamides, linezoid

76
Q

Action of aminoglycosides

A

Inhibit initiation complex

77
Q

Action of tetracyclines

A

Block tRNA from binding A site

78
Q

Mechanism of action choramphenicol

A

Blocks peptidyl transferase

79
Q

Mechanism of action of macrolides

A

Blocks translocation of 50S

80
Q

Mechanism of action of lincosamides

A

Blocks peptide translocation

81
Q

Detection of flagella (3)

A
  • Flagella stain
  • Swarming motility
  • Native observation with high magnification
82
Q

What do you use dark field microscopy for?

A

For spirochetes (borrelia, treponema, leptospira)

83
Q

Optimum pH for cultivation of v. cholera

A

8-9

84
Q

Optimum pH for cultivation of lactobacillus

A

5.4-6.6

85
Q

Different cultivation temperatures

A
  • mesophilic (30-37)
  • thermophilic (over 50)
  • cryophilic (under 20)
86
Q

Composition of agar plate

A

2% agar + bouillon

87
Q

Composition of blood agar

A

5% defibrinated sheep blood + agar

88
Q

4 uses for animal in microbiology

A
  • Study of intracellular bacteria
  • Evaluation of sterilization process
  • Testing effectiveness of drugs and chemicals
  • Determination of toxin production
89
Q

Dilution method to determine MIC/MBC (2)

A
  • broth dilution

- agar dilution

90
Q

Diffusion method to determine MIC/MBC (2)

A
  • disk diffusion

- e-test

91
Q

Mechanism of action of quinolones

A

inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

92
Q

Mechanism of action of nitroimidazole

A

free radical production : breaks dna strands

93
Q

Mechanism of action of rifamycin

A

inhibits DNA dependant RNA polymerase

94
Q

Mechanism of action of formaldehyde (2)

A
  • denatures proteins

- disrupts nucleic acids

95
Q

Mechanism of action of chlorine (2)

A
  • denatures proteins

- oxidizes peptide links

96
Q

Mechanism of action of phenolics

A
  • denatures proteins

- inhibits permeases at high conc.

97
Q

Mechanism of action of detergents (quaternary ammonium compounds)

A

Disrupts cell membrane

98
Q

Mechanism of action of isopropyl alcohol

A

Denatures proteins and DNA

99
Q

Which medium is used for urease test?

A

Christensen’s urea agar

100
Q

What does the indole test detect?

A

The ability to transform tryptophan into indole (tryptophanase)

101
Q

3 tube agglutination tests and their use

A
  • Widal (salmonella)
  • Weil (rickettsia)
  • Wright (brucella)
102
Q

How do you detect an infection with the titer?

A

A fresh infection is indicated by at least 2-4x increase in the Ab titer

103
Q

Bacteria detected using direct immunohistochemistry

A

Chlamydia trachomatitis

104
Q

What are paired sera tests?

A

Sera drawn from patient 2-4 weeks apart are tested simultaneously

105
Q

Possible results to tuberculin test (3)

A
  • under 10 mm : negative
  • between 10 and 20 mm : vaccinated
  • over 20 mm : positive
106
Q

What is conversion in a diagnostic test?

A

negative test then positive test

107
Q

What is reversion in a diagnostic test?

A

positive test then negative test

108
Q

What is fixed dose procedure?

A

orally administer toxin to lab animals and determine dose to produce symptoms but not death

109
Q

What are ppm?

A

Mass of a chemical per unit volume of water

110
Q

Phases of acute infection (4)

A
  • incubation
  • prodromal
  • acute
  • convalescence
111
Q

Routes of transmission of infection (6) + example

A
  • enteral (salmonella)
  • inhalation (tuberculosis)
  • through skin (tetanus)
  • urinary (e. coli)
  • sexual (syphilis)
  • congenital (toxoplasma)
112
Q

Difference between mycoplasma pneumoniae and other mycoplasms

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is obligate aerobe while the others are facultative anaerobes

113
Q

Diseases caused by ureaplasma urealyticum (4)

A
  • Urethritis
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Spontaneous abortion
  • Premature birth
114
Q

Long term complications of chlamydia

A
  • PID (women)

- Reactive arthritis (Reiter’s syndrome)

115
Q

Difference between enterococcus and enterobacter?

A

enterococcus : gram positive cocci

enterobacter : gram negative rod

116
Q

Toxins of bacillus anthraxis (2)

A

LF : lethal factor

EF : edema factor

117
Q

Culturing media for corynebacterium dyphteriae (2)

A
  • tellurite medium

- loefller’s medium

Microbiology (4 decks)

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