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Microbiology > Minimum questions 1 > Flashcards

Minimum questions 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What does sterilization mean?

A

Killing procedure of any kind of germs

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2
Q

What does disinfection mean?

A

Procedure where the number of germs are reduced to a safety level

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3
Q

Which parameters can influence the effectivity of the sterilization? (6)

A
  • Number of germs
  • Resistance of germs
  • Concentration of the disinfectants
  • Presence of organic materials
  • Initial time
  • Presence of biofilm
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4
Q

Parameters of the hot-air sterilization cupboard protocol?

A

180°C - 1 hour
160°C - 2 hours
140°C - 3 hours

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5
Q

Parameters of the autoclaving?

A

+1 atm overpressure - 121°C - 20-30 minutes

+2 atm overpressure - 134°C - 10 minutes

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6
Q

Chemical agents used for gas sterilization? (3)

A

Ethylene oxide
Formaldehyde
Beta-propiolacton

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7
Q

Theoretical background of plasma sterilisation?

A

Hydrogen peroxide in high electric field will form plasma stage. The produced free radicals will kill the microbes. At the end of the procedure will be produced water, oxygen and other non toxic products

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8
Q

Biological method used for checking the effectivity of sterilisation?

A

By bacillus / geobacillus stearothermophilus spores. If the procedure was performed in the right way, the spores cannot be cultivated

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9
Q

Detection of the presence of pyrogenic material in drugs?

A

LAL test ; the blood of horseshoe crab will coagulate in the presence of the LPS

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10
Q

What are the disinfectants?

A

Chemical agents used on inanimate / non-living surfaces

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11
Q

What are antiseptic agents?

A

Chemical agents used for disinfection on animate (tissue, skin, mucous membrane) surfaces

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12
Q

What does serological reaction mean?

A

Reaction based on the Ag/Ab reaction performed in vitro

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13
Q

What does agglutination mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is cell mediated

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14
Q

What are the bacterial cell surface antigens?

A

O : cell wall
H : flagella
K : capsule

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15
Q

What does antibody titre mean?

A

The highest dilution fold or the lowest antibody concentration where we can see in vitro Ag/Ab reaction

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16
Q

What does precipitation mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is soluble (enzyme, toxin or virus particle)

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17
Q

What does iatrogenic infection mean?

A

Infection caused by medical staff during the investigation or treatment

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18
Q

What does nosocomial infection mean?

A

Infection occurred in hospital after 48 hours of the hospitalisation

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19
Q

What are the contents of the vaccines?

A

Live attenuated microbe ; killed microbe, toxoid, antigens of the microbe

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20
Q

What does native examination of the microbe mean in microbiology?

A

The microbe is examined without killing procedure

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21
Q

What kind of information can we get by light microscopical examination? (4 examples)

A
  1. Size of the microbe
  2. Shape of microbe
  3. Motility
  4. The staining
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22
Q

The solutions of the Gram stain? (5)

A
  1. Sodium oxalate
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Iodine solution
  4. 96% ethanol
  5. Fuschin or safranin
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23
Q

What kind of devices can be used for anaerobic cultivation?

A
  1. Anaerostate
  2. Gas-pack jar
  3. High agar
  4. Anaerobic chamber
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24
Q

What is a bacteriostatic? A bactericide?

A

Bacteriostatic : inhibits bacterial growth

Bactericide : kills bacteria

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25
Q

What is selective toxicity?

A

The antibiotic has an effect only on the bacteria, but not on the human host

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26
Q

Chemotherapeutic index

A

Dosis tolerata maxima (DTM) / dosis curativa minima (DCM)

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27
Q

Cell wall synthesis inhibitor antibiotics? (4)

A
  1. Penicillin
  2. Cephalosporin
  3. Carbapenem
  4. Glycoeptide
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28
Q

Glycopeptide antibiotics (2)

A
  1. Vancomycin

2. Teicoplanin

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29
Q

Membrane function alternating antibiotic?

A

Polymixines

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30
Q

What are the protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics? (5)

A
  1. Aminoglycosides
  2. Tetraclycline
  3. Macrolide
  4. Chloramphenicol
  5. Linezoid
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31
Q

Nuclei acid synthesis inhibitors are..? (2)

A
  1. Quinolones
  2. Rifampicin
  3. Nitroimidazoles
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32
Q

Three possible ways of horizontal gene transfer

A
  1. Conjugation (plasmid)
  2. Transduction (bacteriophage)
  3. Transformation (update of naked DNA from the environment)
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33
Q

Antibiotic resistance mechanism ? (3)

A
  • Enzymatic degradation or modification of the antibiotics
  • Efflux pump
  • Modifying of the antibiotic binding site
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34
Q

What does MRSA mean?

A

Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus

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35
Q

What does ESBL mean?

A

Extended spectrum of beta lactamase enzyme

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36
Q

What does MIC mean?

A

Minimal bacteriostatic concentration of an antibiotic measured in microg/mL

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37
Q

What does MBC mean?

A

Minimal bactericidal concentration of an antibiotic measured in microL/mL

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38
Q

Definition of MBL

A

Metallo-beta-lactamase (= carbapenemase)

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39
Q

Definition of MACI

A

Multi-resistant acinetobacter

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40
Q

Definition of PACI

A

Pan resistant acinetobacter

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41
Q

Which 3 vaccines contain capsular polysaccharide?

A
  1. HIB (against haemophilus influenzae type b)
  2. Prevenar / pneumovac (against 13 / 23 serotypes of streptococcus penumoniae)
  3. Meningococcus vaccines (against serotypes ACWY but not B)
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42
Q

What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiology diagnostic laboratory in the case of atypical pneumonia?

A

Blood, urine, broncho-alveolar lavage

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43
Q

What kind of bacterial infection can be treated by antitoxin? (3)

A

Infections caused by bacterial exotoxins : Tetanus, botulism, diphteria

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44
Q

Which bacteria can be differenciated with the catalase test?

A

Staphylococci (+) and streptococci (-)

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45
Q

Which bacteria can be differenciated with the coagulase test?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (+) and the other staphylococcus species (-) aka ‘coagulase-negative staphylococci’

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46
Q

Microscopic morphology of staphylococci

A

Gram positive cocci, arranged in grape-like structures

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47
Q

Colony morphology of staphylococcus aureus on blood agar plate

A

Average size, round of colonie with butter consistency, golden pigment production and beta haemolysis

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48
Q

What are the non-toxic virulence factors of the staphylococcus aureus? (3)

A
  • Protein A
  • Endocoagulase (clumping factor)
  • Hialuronidase
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49
Q

What are the toxic virulence factors of staphylococcus aureus?

A
  • Leudocidin,
  • Toxic shock syndrome toxin,
  • Exfoliative toxin,
  • Enterotoxin,
  • Haemolysin
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50
Q

Disease caused by staphyloccocus aureus? (7)

A
  • Folliculitis
  • Furuncle
  • Carbuncle
  • Impetigo
  • Pneumonia
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Food poisoning
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51
Q

Diseases caused by staphylococcus aureus exotoxins? (3)

A
  • Food poisoning
  • Scalded skin syndrome
  • Toxic shock syndrome
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52
Q

List at least 2 coagulase-negative staphylococcus species

A

S. epidermidis,
S. saprophyticus,
S. haemolyticus,
S. lugdunensis

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53
Q

.Diseases caused by coagulase negative staphylococci? (2)

A
  • Nosocomial infections

- Biofilm production on the surface of plastic devices

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54
Q

Which bacterium can cause “Honeymoon cystitis”?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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55
Q

Colony morphology of Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar plate (morphology)

A

Small, pin point colonies, surrounded by large, strong beta-haemolytic zone

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56
Q

Which streptococci show beta-haemolysis? (2)

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus agalactiae

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57
Q

Which streptococci show alpha-haemolysis? (2)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and viridans streptococci (e.g S mutans, S. mitis, S. salivarius)

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58
Q

Which species is the Lancefield group A streptococcus?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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59
Q

Which species is the Lancefield group B streptococcus?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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60
Q

What is the causative agent of the scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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61
Q

What bacterial virulence factor is the causative agent of scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin or erythrogenic toxin

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62
Q

What is the capsule of S. Pyogenes made of?

A

Hyaluronic acid

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63
Q

Disease caused by streptococcus pyogenes? (3)

A

Pharyngitis, tonsilitis, sinusitis

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64
Q

What kind of post streptococcal infections can be caused by streptococcus pyogenes? (2)

A

Acute rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis

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65
Q

Which 2 streptococcus species show 100% penicillin sensitivity still now?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes and streptococcus agalactiae

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66
Q

What kind of disease can be caused in new-borns by streptococcus agalactiae? (3)

A

Meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia

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67
Q

Which bacterium is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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68
Q

Microscopic morphology of streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

gram positive diplococci

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69
Q

How can we prevent diseases caused by streptococcus pneumoniae? (2)

A

By 23 valent polysaccharide capsule vaccine, or by 13 valent conjugated vaccine

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70
Q

Which two bacteria can be differentiated based on their optochin sensitivity / resistance?

A

S. pneumoniae (S) and viridans streptococci (R)

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71
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by viridans group streptococci? (2)

A

Dental decay or endocarditis

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72
Q

Which are the 2 most frequent human pathogenic Enterococcus species?

A

E. faecalis and E. faecium

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73
Q

Microscopic morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Gram negative, non capsulated diplococci

74
Q

What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate Neisseria gonorrhoeae? (2)

A

Chocolate agar or Thayer Martin agar

75
Q

Microscopic morphology of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Gram-negative, capsulated, diplococci

76
Q

How can neisseria meningitidis spread?

A

By respiratory droplets that will colonize the nasopharynx

77
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis? (3)

A
  • Sepsis
  • Meningitis
  • Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
78
Q

What kind of diseases can be caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae? (4)

A
  • Gonorrhoea
  • Blenorrhoea neonatorum
  • Proctitis
  • Orchitis
79
Q

What is the causative agent of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

80
Q

What kind of tests can be performed from liquor in case of Neisseria meningitidis infection?

A
  • Microscopic examination
  • Gram stain
  • Latex agglutination
81
Q

What can be done as prophylactics for a person who has been in contact with Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin or ciprofloxacin

82
Q

What can Nesseria gonorrhoeae cause in newborns?

A

Ophthalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum

83
Q

Which serotype of Haemophilus influenzae can cause invasive infection?

A

The haemophilus influenzae with capsule “b” serotype

84
Q

How can we prevent invasive infections caused by haemophilus influenzae strains?

A

By Hib vaccine

85
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by haemophillus ducreyi?

A

Ulcus molle (chancroid)

86
Q

What is the causative agent of whooping cough?

A

Bordetella pertussis

87
Q

What are the virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis (2)?

A

Fimbria, pertussis toxin

88
Q

What is the causative agent of tularemia?

A

Francisella tularensis

89
Q

What are the causative agents of human brucellosis? (4)

A
  • Brucella abortus
  • Melitensis
  • Suis
  • Canis
90
Q

What are the diseases caused by bacillus anthracis? (3)

A
  • Cutaneous anthrax,
  • pulmonary anthrax,
  • gastrointestinal anthrax
91
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by bacillus cereus? (2)

A
  • Food poisoning

- Wound infection

92
Q

What is the causative agent of pseudomembranosus colitist?

A

Clostridium difficile

93
Q

What kind of bacteria can cause flaccid paralysis?

A

Clostridium botulinum

94
Q

What kind of bacteria can cause spastic paralysis?

A

Clostridium tetani

95
Q

What is the treatment of Botulism?

A

giving polyvalent antitoxin

96
Q

What is the treatment of pseudomembranosus colitis? (3)

A
  • Vancomycin per os,
  • metronidazole,
  • faecal transplantation
97
Q

Which bacteria can cause gas gangrene? (3)

A
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Clostridium histolyticum
  • Clostridium septicum
98
Q

What is the causative agent of diphteria?

A

Corynebacterium diphteriae

99
Q

How can we detect the toxin of corynebacterium diphteriae? (2)

A
  • Elek’s test

- Römer test (in guinea pigs)

100
Q

What is the treatment of diphteria? (3)

A
  • Passive immunisation
  • Giving antibiotics
  • Artificial ventilation if necessary
101
Q

Which bacteria belong to diphteroid group?

A
  • Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum
  • Corynebacterium ulcerans
  • Corynebacterium minutissimum
  • Corynebacterium urealyticum
102
Q

What are the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes in kids? (3)

A
  • meningitis
  • sepsis
  • granulomatosis infantiseptica
103
Q

What are the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes in adults? (4)

A
  • Gastrointestinal symptoms
  • Meningitis
  • Sepsis
  • Endocarditis
104
Q

What is the treatment of Listeriosis?

A

Ampicillin-gentamicin is the drug of choice

105
Q

What is the causative agent of erysipeloid?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

106
Q

Which bacteria can cause dental decay? (2)

A

Lactobacilli and streptococcus mutans

107
Q

Which bacteria can cause human tuberculosis? (3)

A
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Mycobacterium bovis
  • Mycobacterium africanum
108
Q

What kind of staining can be used to stain mycobacteria?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen staining

109
Q

How long can be cultivated the causative agent of human tuberculosis
on Lowenstein-Jensen culture media?

A

6-8 weeks

110
Q

How can be prevented the human tuberculosis?

A

By BCG vaccine

111
Q

What are the facultative pathogenic mycobacteria? (4)

A
  • Mycobacterium avium komplex
  • Mycobacterium kansasii
  • Mycobacterium marinum
  • Mycobacterium ulcerans
112
Q

Which mycobacteria is apathogenic?

A

Mycobacterium smegmatis

113
Q

What is the causative agent of leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

114
Q

What are the types of leprosy? (2)

A
  • Tuberculoid

- Lepromatosus leprosy

115
Q

What is the treatment of leprosy? (3)

A
  • Dapson
  • Clofazimin
  • Rifampicin
116
Q

How can Nocardia stain?

A

It is gram positive and zhiel neelsen positive

117
Q

What are the most important Actinomyces species? (3)

A
  • Actinomyces israelii
  • Astinomyces naeslundii
  • Astinomyces odontolyticus
118
Q

Which E. coli can be toxin producer? (5)

A
  • ETEC
  • EPEC
  • EAEC
  • EIEC
  • EHEC
119
Q

What kind of extra intestinal disease can be caused by Escherichia
coli? (3)

A
  • Urinary tract infections
  • Neonatal meningitis
  • Sepsis
120
Q

What are the causative agent of typhoid fever? (4)

A
  • Salmonella Typhi

- Salmonella Paratyphi A, B, C

121
Q

Which bacteria can cause salmonellosis? (3)

A
  • Salmonella Enteritidis
  • Salmonella Typhimurium
  • Salmonella Choleraesuis
122
Q

What is the causative agent of dysentery? (3)

A
  • Shigella dysenteriae
  • Shigella flexneri
  • Shigella sonnei
123
Q

Which bacterium is the causative agent of plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

124
Q

What is the spreading way of the plague?

A

By the bite of the rat flea or by respiratory droplets

125
Q

What are the diseases caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae? (4)

A
  • Lobar (friedländer) pneumonia
  • Wound infection
  • Bloodstream infection
  • Urinary tract infection
126
Q

What is the causative agent of cholera?

A

Vibrio cholerae

127
Q

What kind of Vibrio species can cause human diseases? (3)

A
  • Vibrio cholera
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • Vibrio vulnificus
128
Q

What are the characteristic biochemical properties of pseudomonas aeruginosa? (2)

A
  • Obligate aerobic

- Oxidase positive

129
Q

Colony morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Bacteria can produce water soluble pigment that stains the culture media, the colonies have grape like smells

130
Q

Microscopic morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Gram-negative rod

131
Q

What are the most frequent diseases caused by Pseudomas

aeruginosa? (2)

A
  • Nosocomia lung infections

- Wound and blood stream infections

132
Q

What is the treatment of the diseases cause by Pseudomonas

aeruginosa?

A

Multiresistant, based on antibiogram

133
Q

What is the most common source of the infection caused by

Acinetobacter baumanii?

A

Hospital environment

134
Q

What does MACI mean in microbiology?

A

Multiresistant Acinetobacter baumannii

135
Q

What is the most common infection caused by Stenotrophomonas

maltophila? (2)

A
  • Nosocomial lung infection

- Sepsis

136
Q

What is characteristic for antibiotic sensitivity of Stenotrophomonas
maltophila?

A

Multiresistant

137
Q

How can legionella pneumophila spread?

A

by aerosol

138
Q

What is the diagnosis of Legionellosis? (2)

A
  • By serology from blood

- By immune chromatography form urine

139
Q

Which bacterium can cause chronic gastritis or stomach ulcer?

A

Helicobacter pylori

140
Q

What is the most important cultivable anaerobic member of the normal
flora of the large bowel?

A

Bacteroides fragilis

141
Q

Which genera belongs to the Spirochaetales order? (3)

A
  • Treponema
  • Borrelia
  • Leptospira
142
Q

What are the causative agents of Plaut-vincent angina? (2)

A
  • Treponema vincentii

- Fusobacteria

143
Q

What is the causative agent of syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

144
Q

How can syphilis spread? (4)

A
  • By sexual contact,
  • transplacental, by blood
  • transfusion
  • by organ
    transplantation.
145
Q

What is the first symptom in syphilis?

A

Ulcus durum - painless hard ulcer, enlarged lymph nodes

146
Q

In which stage of the syphilis can appear rash all over the body?

A

2nd stage

147
Q

In which stages is syphilis contagious?

A

1st and 2nd stages and in the first 2 years of the latency.

At the 3rd stage only in utero infections may occur

148
Q

When can develop neurosyphilis during the infection?

A

In all stages of the diseases can develop neurophylis

149
Q

What is the specific diagnosis of syphilis? (3)

A
  • ELISA
  • TPHA
  • TPPA
150
Q

When can we use which non treponemal serological reactions during infection by syphyllis? (3)

A
  • RPR and VDRL are used to determine the stages of syphilis
  • To detect reinfection
  • To control the efectiveness of the therapy
151
Q

What are the non-specific treponemal serological reactions? (2)

A
  • RPR

- VDRL

152
Q

What kind of diseases can be caused by Borrelia? (2)

A
  • Lyme diseases and relapsing fever
153
Q

How can the Lyme disease spread?

A

By a bite of a tick

154
Q

What are the causative agents of Lyme disease? (3)

A
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Borrelia afzelli
  • Borrelia garini
155
Q

What is the causative agent of epidemic relapsing fever?

A

Borellia recurrentis

156
Q

What is the vector of Lyme diseases?

A

Tick

157
Q

What is the vector of Borrelia recurrentis?

A

Body louse

158
Q

What is the molecular background of relapsing fever?

A

Bacterial antigen changing.

159
Q

What is the first symptom of Lyme diseases?

A

Erythema chronicum migrans

160
Q

What is the causative agent of Weil’s diseases?

A

Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae

161
Q

What are the characteristic properties of the meningitis caused by
Leptospira?

A

Serosus, non-purulent

162
Q

What is the source of the infection caused by Leptospira?

A

Zoonotic diseases, can spread by the urine of animals

163
Q

How can the Lyme diseases diagnosed? (3)

A
  • Serology
  • ELISA screening test
  • Immunoblot is used for confirmation
164
Q

Which bacteria cannot have cell wall? (2)

A
  • Mycoplasma

- Ureaplasma

165
Q

Which bacteria can cause atypical pneumoniae? (3)

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Chlamydophila pneumoniae
  • Legionella pneumophila
166
Q

What is the causative agent of typhus exanthematicus?

A

Rickettsia prowaczekii

167
Q

What is the causative agent of Q-fever?

A

Coxiella burnettii

168
Q

What is the causative agent of parrot fever?

A

Chlamydia psittaci

169
Q

What is the causative agent of trachoma?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis, serotype A-C

170
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis

serotype L1-L3?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

171
Q

What is the effect of the bacterial AB exotoxins?

A
  • Neurotoxins
  • Protein synthesis inhibitors
  • Ion secretion enhancers
172
Q

What is the effect of the cholera toxin?

A
  • Increasing cAMP

- Enhancing ion secretion

173
Q

What are the causative agents of impetigo contagiosa? (2)

A
  • S. aureus

- S. pyogenes

174
Q

What is the causative agent of erysipelas?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

175
Q

What is the causative agent of Trachoma?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis A,B,C

176
Q

What is the causative agent of Ophtalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

177
Q

List 4 capsulated bacteria

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Streptococcus agalactiae,
  • Streptococcus
    pyogenes,
  • Escherichia col
178
Q

How many percentage of the adults are carrier of Staphylococcus. aureus?

A

20-30%

179
Q

How many different kind (serotype) of capsule can be produced by
Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

94 (or 90-100)

180
Q

What is the most common causative agent of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

181
Q

What kind of vaccines can be used to prevent invasive diseases caused by
Streptococcus pneumoniae

A
  • Prevenar-13 : streptococcus pneumoniae 13 type of capsule conjugated to toxoid - recommended for new borns and elderly
  • Pneumovax : streptococcus pneumoniae 23 type of capsule - recommended for adults and teenagers

Microbiology (4 decks)

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