Oncology and Haematology SBAs Flashcards

1
Q

Scenario: A rabbit is brought to your clinic for a routine health check. You need to collect a blood sample for haematology and biochemistry.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate site for blood collection in this rabbit?

Options:

a) Lateral saphenous vein
b) Marginal ear vein
c) Cephalic vein
d) Jugular vein
e) Cranial vena cava

A

Answer: a) Lateral saphenous vein

Explanation: While all the options are potential sites for blood collection in rabbits, the lateral saphenous vein is generally preferred for small samples due to its ease of access and relatively low risk of complications.

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2
Q

Scenario: A ferret presents with lethargy and anorexia. You suspect hyperestrogenism and need to collect a blood sample to assess the severity of the anaemia.

Lead-in: Which of the following blood collection sites is most appropriate for this ferret?

Options:

a) Lateral saphenous vein
b) Marginal ear vein
c) Cephalic vein
d) Jugular vein
e) Cranial vena cava

A

Answer: d) Jugular vein

Explanation: In ferrets, the jugular vein is a suitable site for blood collection due to its relatively large size and accessibility. The other options are less ideal due to the ferret’s anatomy and the potential need for larger blood volume.

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3
Q

Scenario: A bird needs a blood sample for a health check. You are considering collecting the sample from the ulnar vein.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most significant risk associated with ulnar vein blood collection in birds?

Options:

a) Cardiac puncture
b) Haematomas
c) Wing fracture
d) Tail autotomy
e) Lymphatic contamination

A

Answer: c) Wing fracture

Explanation: While haematomas can occur, the most significant risk associated with ulnar vein blood collection in birds is the potential for wing fracture, especially in conscious birds or those with fragile bones

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4
Q

Scenario: A snake presents for a health check, and you need to collect a blood sample.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most commonly used site for blood collection in snakes?

Options:

a) Lateral saphenous vein
b) Ventral coccygeal vein
c) Cephalic vein
d) Jugular vein
e) Cranial vena cava

A

Answer: b) Ventral coccygeal vein

Explanation: The ventral coccygeal vein is the most commonly used site for blood collection in snakes due to its accessibility and relatively easy restraint. The other options are less ideal due to the snake’s anatomy or potential complications.

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5
Q

Scenario: A tortoise requires a blood sample for a diagnostic workup.

Lead-in: Which of the following blood collection sites is generally preferred for tortoises?

Options:

a) Lateral saphenous vein
b) Ventral coccygeal vein
c) Jugular vein
d) Subcarapacial vein
e) Cranial vena cava

A

Answer: c) Jugular vein

Explanation: The jugular vein is often preferred for blood collection in tortoises due to its accessibility and relatively low risk of lymphatic contamination. The other options can be more challenging or have a higher risk of complications.

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6
Q

Scenario: A rabbit blood smear shows a heterophil:lymphocyte ratio of 1:1.

Lead-in: What is the most appropriate interpretation of this finding?

Options:

a) Normal finding
b) Indicative of stress
c) Suggestive of infection
d) Consistent with chronic disease
e) Requires further investigation

Answer: a) Normal finding

A

Answer: a) Normal finding

Explanation: A heterophil:lymphocyte ratio of 1:1 is typically considered a normal finding in rabbits.

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7
Q

Scenario: A guinea pig blood smear reveals the presence of Kurloff cells.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

Options:

a) Stress
b) Infection
c) Oestrogen stimulation
d) Anaemia
e) Young age

A

Answer: c) Oestrogen stimulation

Explanation: Kurloff cells are unique to guinea pigs and are produced by the thymus under the influence of oestrogen.

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8
Q

Scenario: A ferret blood sample shows a haematocrit (HCT) of 60%.

Lead-in: What is the most appropriate interpretation of this HCT value?

Options:

a) Normal finding
b) Indicative of anaemia
c) Suggestive of dehydration
d) Consistent with hyperestrogenism
e) Requires immediate blood transfusion

A

Answer: a) Normal finding

Explanation: Ferrets generally have higher HCT values compared to other mammals. A HCT of 60% is within the normal range for ferrets.

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9
Q

Scenario: A reptile blood smear shows a high number of heterophils with fusiform granules.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

Options:

a) Normal finding
b) Oestrogen stimulation
c) Anaemia
d) Infection
e) Kurloff cells

A

Answer: d) Infection

Explanation: Heterophils are the reptilian equivalent of mammalian neutrophils. An increased number of heterophils often indicates infection or inflammation.

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10
Q

Scenario: A bird blood smear reveals a PCV of 30%.

Lead-in: What is the most appropriate interpretation of this PCV value?

Options:

a) Normal finding
b) Indicative of anaemia
c) Suggestive of dehydration
d) Consistent with polycythaemia
e) Requires immediate blood transfusion

A

Answer: b) Indicative of anaemia

Explanation: A PCV of 30% is below the normal range for most bird species, suggesting anaemia.

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11
Q

Scenario: A rabbit presents with a history of chronic respiratory disease. You perform a blood test and find that the total white blood cell count is within the normal range, but there is a relative lymphopenia.

Lead-in: What is the most likely explanation for this finding?

Options:

a) Normal finding
b) Physiological response to stress
c) Chronic stress or disease
d) Acute stress
e) Adrenaline release

A

Answer: c) Chronic stress or disease

Explanation: In rabbits, the total white blood cell count rarely increases significantly. Instead, the heterophil:lymphocyte ratio changes in response to stress or disease. A relative lymphopenia can be seen with chronic stress or disease.

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12
Q

Scenario: A ferret presents with pale mucous membranes and lethargy. You suspect anaemia.

Lead-in: Which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to confirm regenerative anaemia in this ferret?

Options:

a) Bone marrow aspirate
b) Serum iron levels
c) Faecal occult blood test
d) Reticulocyte count
e) Blood glucose measurement

A

Answer: d) Reticulocyte count

Explanation: An increased reticulocyte count is a key indicator of regenerative anaemia, where the bone marrow is actively producing new red blood cells in response to blood loss or destruction.

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13
Q

Scenario: A dog presents with severe anaemia. The blood smear shows spherocytes.

Lead-in: Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with this finding?

Options:

a) Iron deficiency anaemia
b) Regenerative anaemia
c) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia (IMHA)
d) Liver disease
e) Splenectomy

A

Answer: c) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia (IMHA)

Explanation: Spherocytes are small, spherical red blood cells that lack central pallor. They are a strong indicator of IMHA in dogs, where the immune system is attacking and destroying red blood cells.

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14
Q

Scenario: A cat presents with pale mucous membranes, lethargy, and weight loss. You suspect feline leukaemia virus (FeLV) infection.

Lead-in: Which of the following tests is the most appropriate for initial screening for FeLV in this cat?

Options:

a) ELISA test for FeLV antigen
b) PCR test for FeLV provirus
c) Immunocytochemistry for FeLV proteins
d) Western blot for FeLV antibodies
e) IFA for FeLV p27 antigen

A

Answer: a) ELISA test for FeLV antigen

Explanation: ELISA tests for FeLV antigen are widely available, rapid, and cost-effective, making them suitable for initial screening. PCR tests are more expensive and typically used for confirmation or in cases with ambiguous ELISA results.

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15
Q

Scenario: A cat tests positive for FeLV antigen on an ELISA screening test.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Options:

a) Euthanize the cat
b) Isolate the cat from other cats
c) Perform a confirmatory PCR test
d) Commence treatment for FeLV
e) Monitor the cat for clinical signs

A

Answer: c) Perform a confirmatory PCR test

Explanation: False positives can occur with ELISA tests for FeLV. A confirmatory PCR test is recommended to verify the initial positive result before making further management decisions.

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16
Q

Scenario: A cat has a positive FeLV antigen test and a negative FeLV provirus PCR test.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely stage of FeLV infection in this cat?

Options:

a) Progressive
b) Regressive
c) Abortive
d) Latent
e) Recovered

A

Answer: b) Regressive

Explanation: In regressive FeLV infection, the virus is controlled but still detectable by PCR, while antigen tests may be negative as the viral load is low.

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17
Q

Scenario: A client is concerned about their cat contracting FIV.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most important risk factor for FIV transmission to emphasize?

Options:

a) Sharing food and water bowls
b) Mutual grooming
c) Close confinement
d) Bite wounds from an infected cat
e) Vertical transmission from mother to kitten

A

Answer: d) Bite wounds from an infected cat

Explanation: FIV is primarily transmitted through deep bite wounds, where saliva from an infected cat is inoculated into another cat. While vertical transmission can occur, it is less common.

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18
Q

Scenario: A cat presents with chronic gingivitis and stomatitis. You suspect FIV infection.

Lead-in: Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for confirming FIV infection in this cat?

Options:

a) ELISA test for FIV antibodies
b) PCR test for FIV provirus
c) Western blot for FIV p24 antigen
d) Lymph node aspirate for FIV RNA
e) Saliva test for FIV antibodies

A

Answer: a) ELISA test for FIV antibodies

Explanation: ELISA tests for FIV antibodies are the most common and reliable method for diagnosing FIV infection. PCR tests are less sensitive in the later stages of infection when antibody levels are high.

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19
Q

Scenario: A cat with clinical signs consistent with FIP has a positive FCoV antibody test.

Lead-in: What is the most appropriate interpretation of this result?

Options:

a) Confirms the diagnosis of FIP
b) Rules out the diagnosis of FIP
c) Indicates exposure to FCoV but not necessarily FIP
d) Suggests a need for euthanasia
e) Requires a confirmatory PCR test for FCoV

A

Answer: c) Indicates exposure to FCoV but not necessarily FIP

Explanation: Antibodies to FCoV are common in cats, and their presence does not definitively diagnose FIP. The diagnosis of FIP is challenging and often involves a combination of clinical signs, imaging, and laboratory findings.

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20
Q

Scenario: A shelter is considering implementing routine FeLV/FIV testing for all incoming cats.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most important factor to consider when deciding whether to implement routine testing?

Options:

a) Cost of the tests
b) Prevalence of FeLV/FIV in the shelter’s population
c) Availability of isolation facilities
d) Risk of false positive results
e) Potential impact on adoption rates

A

Answer: b) Prevalence of FeLV/FIV in the shelter’s population

Explanation: The prevalence of FeLV/FIV in the population significantly influences the positive predictive value of the tests. In low prevalence populations, routine testing may lead to unnecessary euthanasia or isolation due to false positives.

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21
Q

Scenario: A rabbit presents with a history of chronic nasal discharge and sneezing. You suspect Pasteurella multocida infection. You collect a blood sample and find a leukocyte count of 12 x 10^9/L with the following differential:

Heterophils: 50%
Lymphocytes: 45%
Monocytes: 3%
Eosinophils: 2%
Lead-in: What is the most likely interpretation of this leukogram?

Options:

a) Normal leukogram for a rabbit
b) Leukogram suggestive of acute stress
c) Leukogram suggestive of chronic stress
d) Leukogram suggestive of inflammation, possibly due to Pasteurella infection
e) Leukogram suggestive of a lymphoproliferative disorder

A

Answer: d) Leukogram suggestive of inflammation, possibly due to Pasteurella infection

Explanation: While the total leukocyte count is within the normal range, the elevated heterophil percentage and slightly decreased lymphocyte percentage suggest inflammation. This could be consistent with the suspected Pasteurella infection.

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22
Q

Scenario: A ferret presents with a large subcutaneous mass on its flank. Cytology suggests a mast cell tumour. You are planning surgical removal.

Lead-in: Which of the following pre-operative medications is most important to consider for this ferret?

Options:

a) H1 blocker (e.g., chlorphenamine)
b) H2 blocker (e.g., ranitidine)
c) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
d) Opioid analgesic
e) Corticosteroid

A

Answer: a) H1 blocker (e.g., chlorphenamine)

Explanation: Mast cell tumours can degranulate and release histamine, potentially causing anaphylaxis. Pre-operative administration of an H1 blocker helps to mitigate this risk.

23
Q

Scenario: A bird presents with a suspected bacterial infection. You collect a blood sample and find leukocytosis with a left shift.

Lead-in: Which of the following leukocyte changes is most consistent with a left shift in birds?

Options:

a) Increased number of mature heterophils
b) Increased number of immature heterophils
c) Increased number of lymphocytes
d) Decreased number of heterophils
e) Decreased number of lymphocytes

A

Answer: b) Increased number of immature heterophils

Explanation: A left shift refers to the presence of increased numbers of immature leukocytes, particularly band cells, in the blood. In birds, heterophils are the equivalent of neutrophils.

24
Q

Scenario: A reptile presents with a history of lethargy and anorexia. You find a low lymphocyte count on a blood smear.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of lymphopenia in this reptile?

Options:

a) Normal finding in reptiles
b) Oestrogen stimulation
c) Infection
d) Chronic stress or disease
e) Kurloff cells

A

Answer: d) Chronic stress or disease

Explanation: Lymphopenia in reptiles can be associated with various factors, including malnutrition, stress, immunosuppression, and poor husbandry.

25
Q

Scenario: A cat presents with a history of chronic sneezing and ocular discharge. You suspect feline herpesvirus (FHV) infection.

Lead-in: Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for confirming FHV infection in this cat?

Options:

a) ELISA test for FHV antibodies
b) PCR test for FHV DNA
c) Virus isolation from ocular swabs
d) Immunocytochemistry for FHV proteins
e) Western blot for FHV antigens

A

Answer: c) Virus isolation from ocular swabs

Explanation: While PCR and antibody tests can be helpful, virus isolation is generally considered the gold standard for confirming FHV infection. It involves culturing the virus from a sample, such as an ocular swab.

26
Q

Scenario: A dog presents with severe regenerative anaemia following a road traffic accident. You need to perform a blood transfusion.

Lead-in: Which of the following blood products is the most appropriate for this dog?

Options:

a) Packed red blood cells
b) Whole blood
c) Fresh frozen plasma
d) Cryoprecipitate
e) Platelet-rich plasma

A

Answer: a) Packed red blood cells

Explanation: Packed red blood cells are the most appropriate blood product for treating severe anaemia, as they provide concentrated red blood cells to increase oxygen-carrying capacity without the excess volume of whole blood.

27
Q

Scenario: A 10-year-old male neutered Labrador Retriever presents with a 3 cm subcutaneous mass on its flank. Fine needle aspiration cytology suggests a mast cell tumour.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Options:

a) Perform wide surgical excision with 3 cm lateral margins and one fascial plane deep.
b) Perform marginal surgical excision with 1 cm lateral margins.
c) Perform debulking surgery to remove as much of the mass as possible.
d) Do not perform surgery; monitor the mass for changes.

A

Answer: a) Perform wide surgical excision with 3 cm lateral margins and one fascial plane deep.

Explanation: Wide surgical excision with adequate margins is the treatment of choice for mast cell tumours to minimize the risk of recurrence.

28
Q

Scenario: A 9-year-old female spayed Domestic Shorthair cat presents with a 2 cm oral mass. Cytology suggests a squamous cell carcinoma.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most important prognostic factor for this cat?

Options:

a) Tumour grade
b) Tumour stage
c) Presence of metastasis
d) Cat’s age
e) Cat’s breed

A

Answer: c) Presence of metastasis

Explanation: The presence or absence of metastasis is the most critical prognostic factor for oral squamous cell carcinoma in cats. Early detection and treatment before metastasis significantly improve the prognosis.

29
Q

Scenario: A 7-year-old male neutered Border Collie presents with a 5 cm splenic mass. Cytology is consistent with haemangiosarcoma.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely complication associated with this condition?

Options:

a) Splenic rupture and haemorrhage
b) Hypercalcaemia
c) Myasthenia gravis
d) Hypoglycaemia
e) Hyperviscosity syndrome

A

Answer: a) Splenic rupture and haemorrhage

Explanation: Haemangiosarcoma is a malignant tumour of vascular origin. Splenic haemangiosarcoma can rupture, leading to potentially life-threatening internal bleeding.

30
Q

Scenario: A dog with multicentric lymphoma is undergoing chemotherapy with the COPH protocol.

Lead-in: Which of the following drugs in the COPH protocol is most commonly associated with sterile haemorrhagic cystitis?

Options:

a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Vincristine
c) Doxorubicin
d) Prednisolone
e) L-asparaginase

A

Answer: a) Cyclophosphamide

Explanation: Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent that can cause sterile haemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect.

31
Q

Scenario: A cat with a suspected thymoma shows signs of Horner’s syndrome.

Lead-in: Which of the following clinical signs is NOT associated with Horner’s syndrome in cats?

Options:

a) Miosis (constricted pupil)
b) Ptosis (drooping eyelid)
c) Enophthalmos (sunken eye)
d) Exophthalmos (protruding eye)
e) Third eyelid protrusion

A

Answer: d) Exophthalmos (protruding eye)

Explanation: Horner’s syndrome is caused by disruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. Clinical signs include miosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, and third eyelid protrusion. Exophthalmos is not a feature of Horner’s syndrome.

32
Q

Scenario: A dog presents with a suspected mast cell tumour. You perform a fine needle aspirate.

Lead-in: Which of the following cytological findings is NOT suggestive of a mast cell tumour?

Options:

a) Large numbers of round cells with prominent purple granules
b) Presence of eosinophils
c) Large numbers of spindle-shaped cells with poorly defined cytoplasmic borders
d) Presence of multinucleated cells
e) High mitotic index

A

Answer: c) Large numbers of spindle-shaped cells with poorly defined cytoplasmic borders

Explanation: Mast cell tumours are characterized by the presence of mast cells, which are round cells with prominent purple granules. Spindle-shaped cells are more characteristic of mesenchymal tumours (sarcomas).

33
Q

Scenario: A cat presents with a history of chronic vomiting and weight loss. You suspect alimentary lymphoma.

Lead-in: Which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

Options:

a) Abdominal ultrasound and fine needle aspiration of the affected intestinal segment
b) Complete blood count and serum biochemistry profile
c) FeLV/FIV testing
d) Urinalysis and urine culture
e) Thoracic radiographs

A

Answer: a) Abdominal ultrasound and fine needle aspiration of the affected intestinal segment

Explanation: Abdominal ultrasound can help identify the affected intestinal segment, and fine needle aspiration can provide a cytological sample for confirmation of lymphoma.

34
Q

Scenario: A dog with lymphoma is undergoing chemotherapy. You are monitoring for potential side effects.

Lead-in: Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of chemotherapy in dogs?

Options:

a) Gastrointestinal upset (nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea)
b) Myelosuppression (neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, anaemia)
c) Alopecia (hair loss)
d) Sterile haemorrhagic cystitis
e) Hypercalcaemia

A

Answer: e) Hypercalcaemia

Explanation: Hypercalcaemia is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with certain tumours, but it is not a typical side effect of chemotherapy drugs.

35
Q

Scenario: A dog presents with macrocytic hypochromic anaemia. Blood smear examination reveals reticulocytosis and anisocytosis.

Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of this anaemia?

Options:

a) Iron deficiency
b) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia
c) Chronic renal disease
d) Portosystemic shunt
e) Myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Answer: b) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia

Explanation: Macrocytic hypochromic anaemia with reticulocytosis is a classic presentation of regenerative anaemia. Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia is a common cause of regenerative anaemia in dogs.

36
Q

Scenario: A cat presents with normocytic normochromic anaemia. The cat is FeLV positive.

Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of this anaemia?

Options:

a) Blood loss
b) Iron deficiency
c) Chronic inflammation
d) Erythroid hypoplasia due to FeLV infection
e) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia

A

Answer: d) Erythroid hypoplasia due to FeLV infection

Explanation: FeLV infection can suppress red blood cell production in the bone marrow, leading to normocytic normochromic anaemia.

37
Q

Scenario: A dog presents with normocytic normochromic anaemia. The dog has intestinal parasites.

Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of this anaemia?

Options:

a) Iron deficiency anaemia due to chronic blood loss
b) Anaemia of chronic disease/inflammation
c) Canine infectious anaemia
d) Oxidative damage to red blood cells
e) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia

A

Answer: a) Iron deficiency anaemia due to chronic blood loss

38
Q

Scenario: A dog presents with microcytic hypochromic anaemia.

Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of this anaemia?

Options:

a) Iron deficiency
b) Copper deficiency
c) Cobalt deficiency
d) Vitamin B12 deficiency
e) Folate deficiency

A

Answer: a) Iron deficiency

39
Q

Scenario: A dog presents with normocytic normochromic anaemia. The dog has a history of chronic diarrhoea and weight loss.

Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of this anaemia?

Options:

a) Acute blood loss
b) Iron deficiency
c) Anaemia of chronic disease
d) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia
e) Splenic haemangiosarcoma

A

Answer: c) Anaemia of chronic disease

Explanation: Chronic diseases, such as inflammatory bowel disease, can lead to anaemia of chronic disease, which is typically normocytic normochromic.

40
Q

Scenario: You examine a blood smear from a dog and observe the following cells (see image).

Lead-in: What is the most likely cause of this finding?

Options:

a) Liver disease
b) Iron deficiency
c) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia
d) Oxidative damage
e) Normal finding

A

Answer: a) Liver disease

Explanation: The image shows acanthocytes, which are red blood cells with irregularly spaced, blunt-ended projections. They are often associated with altered lipid metabolism, which can be seen in liver disease.

41
Q

Scenario: You are examining a blood smear from a dog. The blood sample was drawn 2 hours ago and has been sitting in EDTA at room temperature since collection. You see the following cells (see image).

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

Options:

a) Sample artefact
b) Renal disease
c) Hepatic disease
d) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia
e) Oxidative damage

A

Answer: a) Sample artefact

Explanation: The image shows echinocytes, which are red blood cells with regularly spaced, spiky projections. While they can be associated with various conditions, they are most commonly an artefact of sample storage or preparation, especially in this case where the blood has been sitting in EDTA for a prolonged period.

42
Q

Scenario: A 5-year-old Cocker Spaniel presents for a routine health check. You collect a blood sample and examine the blood smear, where you observe the following cells (see image).

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

Options:

a) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
b) Iron deficiency
c) Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia
d) Portosystemic shunt
e) Glomerulonephritis

A

Answer: a) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Explanation: The image shows schistocytes, which are fragmented red blood cells. Schistocytes are often a result of mechanical trauma to red blood cells, such as that seen in DIC.

43
Q

Scenario: A 6-year-old male neutered Domestic Shorthair cat presents with a history of lethargy, anorexia, and weight loss. On physical examination, you note pale mucous membranes and icterus. You perform a complete blood count and find a marked regenerative anaemia with spherocytes and agglutination on the blood smear.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most important diagnostic test to perform next?

Options:

a) Coombs’ test
b) Saline agglutination test
c) FeLV/FIV testing
d) Blood typing and cross-matching
e) Bone marrow aspirate

A

Answer: c) FeLV/FIV testing

Explanation: While all the options could be considered, it is crucial to rule out an underlying infectious cause for the regenerative anaemia, such as FeLV or FIV, before initiating immunosuppressive treatment for suspected immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia (IMHA).

44
Q

Scenario: A 12-year-old female spayed Labrador Retriever presents with a 4 cm subcutaneous mass on her neck. Fine needle aspiration cytology suggests a low-grade mast cell tumour.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment recommendation?

Options:

a) Wide surgical excision with 3 cm lateral margins and one fascial plane deep.
b) Marginal surgical excision with 1 cm lateral margins.
c) Radiotherapy.
d) Chemotherapy with vinblastine.
e) No treatment; monitor the mass for changes.

A

Answer: a) Wide surgical excision with 3 cm lateral margins and one fascial plane deep.

Explanation: Even though this is a low-grade mast cell tumour, wide surgical excision with adequate margins is still the treatment of choice to minimize the risk of recurrence.

45
Q

Scenario: A 9-year-old male castrated West Highland White Terrier presents with a 6 cm splenic mass. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a heterogeneous, cavitated mass with evidence of free fluid in the abdomen. You suspect splenic haemangiosarcoma.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most important pre-operative consideration for this dog?

Options:

a) Blood typing and cross-matching in case a blood transfusion is needed during or after surgery.
b) Pre-operative antibiotics to reduce the risk of infection.
c) Pain management with opioids.
d) Placement of a chest drain to remove any pleural effusion.
e) Measurement of blood pressure to assess cardiovascular stability.

A

Answer: a) Blood typing and cross-matching in case a blood transfusion is needed during or after surgery.

Explanation: Splenic haemangiosarcoma carries a high risk of haemorrhage, especially during surgical manipulation. Blood typing and cross-matching should be performed pre-operatively to ensure that blood products are readily available if needed.

46
Q

Scenario: A 4-year-old female ferret presents with a history of lethargy, anorexia, and alopecia. On physical examination, you note pale mucous membranes and a swollen vulva. You suspect hyperestrogenism.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm your suspicion?

Options:

a) Vaginal cytology
b) Complete blood count and serum biochemistry profile
c) Abdominal ultrasound
d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test
e) Urine cortisol:creatinine ratio

A

Answer: b) Complete blood count and serum biochemistry profile

Explanation: Hyperestrogenism in ferrets causes pancytopenia due to bone marrow suppression. A complete blood count will show a non-regenerative anaemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia

47
Q

Scenario: A 10-year-old male neutered cat presents with a history of chronic sneezing and ocular discharge. You suspect feline herpesvirus (FHV) infection.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this cat?

Options:

a) Oral famciclovir
b) Topical idoxuridine
c) Systemic interferon
d) Vaccination against FHV
e) No treatment; monitor the cat for clinical signs

A

Answer: a) Oral famciclovir

Explanation: Famciclovir is an antiviral medication that can be used to manage FHV infection in cats. It is available in an oral formulation, making it easier to administer than topical medications.

48
Q

Scenario: A dog with a suspected insulinoma presents with episodic weakness and collapse.

Lead-in: Which of the following blood test results would be most supportive of this diagnosis?

Options:

a) Hypoglycaemia with inappropriately high insulin levels
b) Hyperglycaemia with low insulin levels
c) Normal blood glucose with high insulin levels
d) Hypoglycaemia with low insulin levels
e) Normal blood glucose with normal insulin levels

A

Answer: a) Hypoglycaemia with inappropriately high insulin levels

Explanation: Insulinomas are insulin-secreting tumours that cause excessive insulin release, leading to hypoglycaemia. A blood test showing hypoglycaemia with inappropriately high insulin levels is consistent with insulinoma.

49
Q

Scenario: A cat presents with a suspected mast cell tumour. You perform a fine needle aspirate.

Lead-in: Which of the following cytological findings is most suggestive of a high-grade mast cell tumour?

Options:

a) High mitotic index and marked anisokaryosis
b) Presence of eosinophils
c) Uniform population of round cells with central nuclei
d) Low numbers of mast cells with minimal granulation
e) Presence of multinucleated cells with a perinuclear clearing

A

Answer: a) High mitotic index and marked anisokaryosis

Explanation: A high mitotic index (many cells dividing) and marked anisokaryosis (variation in nuclear size and shape) are cytological features suggestive of malignancy and a high-grade tumour.

50
Q

Scenario: A 17-year-old Domestic Shorthair cat presents with lethargy, pale mucous membranes, and a palpably enlarged abdomen. Haematology shows a severe, non-regenerative anaemia with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Biochemistry reveals hypoalbuminaemia, hyperbilirubinaemia, and elevated liver enzymes.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

a) Hepatic lipidosis
b) Cholangiohepatitis
c) Lymphoma
d) Metastatic carcinoma
e) Feline infectious peritonitis

A

Answer: c) Lymphoma

Explanation: The clinical presentation, haematology, and biochemistry findings are most consistent with lymphoma. The severe non-regenerative anaemia with pancytopenia suggests bone marrow involvement, and lymphoma is a common cause of bone marrow infiltration in cats.

51
Q

Scenario: A 1-year-old female Labrador Retriever presents with a large volume of abdominal effusion. Fluid analysis reveals a high protein concentration and the presence of atypical lymphocytes.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of the abdominal effusion?

Options:

a) Right-sided congestive heart failure
b) Hypoalbuminaemia
c) Lymphangiectasia
d) Chylothorax
e) Lymphoma

A

Answer: e) Lymphoma

Explanation: The presence of atypical lymphocytes in the abdominal effusion strongly suggests lymphoma. Lymphoma can cause chylous effusions due to obstruction of lymphatic drainage.

52
Q

Scenario: An 11-year-old Domestic Shorthair cat presents with a 2-week history of lethargy and polydipsia. Haematology shows a moderate, non-regenerative anaemia with leukocytosis. Biochemistry reveals hyperphosphataemia, azotaemia, and hypercalcaemia.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of the hypercalcaemia?

Options:

a) Primary hyperparathyroidism
b) Idiopathic hypercalcaemia
c) Vitamin D toxicity
d) Paraneoplastic syndrome
e) Chronic kidney disease

A

Answer: d) Paraneoplastic syndrome

Explanation: Hypercalcaemia in a cat with non-regenerative anaemia and azotaemia is concerning for a paraneoplastic syndrome, possibly associated with lymphoma or other malignancies.

53
Q

Scenario: A 5-year-old mixed-breed dog presents with exercise intolerance, a distended abdomen, and PU/PD. Fluid analysis reveals a low protein concentration and a low cell count.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely cause of the dog’s clinical signs?

Options:

a) Protein-losing nephropathy
b) Right-sided congestive heart failure
c) Liver failure
d) Hypoadrenocorticism
e) Diabetes insipidus

A

Answer: a) Protein-losing nephropathy

Explanation: The combination of exercise intolerance, abdominal distension, PU/PD, and low-protein effusion is most consistent with protein-losing nephropathy.

54
Q

Scenario: An 8-year-old Golden Retriever presents with weakness, shifting leg lameness, back pain, intermittent epistaxis, and sudden blindness. Haematology shows a moderate, non-regenerative anaemia with thrombocytopenia. Biochemistry reveals hyperglobulinaemia and elevated liver enzymes.

Lead-in: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Options:

a) Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
b) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
c) Hepatic haemangiosarcoma
d) Splenic haemangiosarcoma
e) Multiple myeloma

A

Answer: d) Splenic haemangiosarcoma

Explanation: The combination of clinical signs, haematology, and biochemistry findings is most suggestive of splenic haemangiosarcoma. The non-regenerative anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and hyperglobulinaemia are common findings in dogs with haemangiosarcoma.