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patho test 2 > oncology > Flashcards

oncology Flashcards

0
Q

what is the number two leading cause of death for all ages?

A

cancer

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1
Q

what is the leading cause of death for all ages?

A

heart disease

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2
Q

which type of cancer is the leading cause of death for both men and women?

A

lung/bronchus

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3
Q

in cancer death rates, which ethnicity has highest rates?

A

AA

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4
Q

what are the mens lifetime probability of developing cancer?

A

1 in 2

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5
Q

what are women probability in developing cancer?

A

1 in 3

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6
Q

what is cancer?

A

when cellular DNA becomes damaged and doesn’t correct itself and then proliferates

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7
Q

what is the resting cell phase of the cell division cycle?

A

G0

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8
Q

what phase are most cells in?

A

G0

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9
Q

what phase are neurons permanently in?

A

G0

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10
Q

once cells complete M phase (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase) the two daughter cells can go into either ___ or ___

A

G0 or G1

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11
Q

what is pre programmed cell death

A

apoptocysis

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12
Q

how many cells die each day?

A

70-80 million

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13
Q

in what phase does DNA replication occur?

A

S

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14
Q

what phase does a cell prepare for mitosis?

A

G 2

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15
Q

T/F. when a cancer cell grows it overlaps with other cancer cell in a disorganized matter

A

T

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16
Q

T/F. cancer cells need a matrix to attach to in order to divide

A

F, they do not need a matrix

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17
Q

which type of cancer occurs in the lining of the epithelium or passages or organs

A

carcinomas

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18
Q

which type of cancer occurs in gland cells or cells that secrete substances?

A

adenocarcinoma

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19
Q

which type of cancer occurs in bones

A

sarcomas

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20
Q

which type of cancer occurs in the immune system

A

lymphoma or multiple myelomas

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21
Q

cancers of the blood

A

leukemia

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22
Q

tumor that doesnt mets.

A

benign

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23
Q

tumor that has potential to mets.

A

malignant

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24
Q

three ways a cancer can spread

A

1) direct extension into surrounding tissue
2) lymphatic spread
3) hematologic spread

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25
Q

what is the SEED and SOIL hypothesis

A

each tumor type has a common pattern of spread or mets.

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26
Q

the area of healthy tissue surrounding tumor to “ensure” that all of the tumor was removed

A

clean margin

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27
Q

XRT

A

beams of photons hits tumor, excites them, breaks bonds and hopefully diminishes tumor

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28
Q

T/F. rapidly proliferating cells respond well to XRT (and quickly)

A

T

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29
Q

which type of cancers respond well to XRT

A

skin, GI tract, bone marrow, tumors

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30
Q

which type of treatment is XRT?

A

non-selective localized

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31
Q

the impact of XRT depends on two things

A

dose, radiation field

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32
Q

3 main types of radiation are

A

external beam, internal/brachytherapy, systemic

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33
Q

chemotherapy given before surgery

A

neoadjuvant

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34
Q

chemotherapy given after surgery

A

adjuvant

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35
Q

nonselective, systemic treatment for cancer

A

chemo

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36
Q

T/F. chemo has long term effects that include early onset cardiac issues

A

T

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37
Q

when MABs also carry chemo or radioactive particles with it to the cancer target site

A

conjugated

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38
Q

MABs target ___ on the cell surface of cancer cells

A

antigen

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39
Q

what is a MAB

A

immunoglobulin sequence that recognizes a specific antigen or protein on a cell surface

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40
Q

risk factors of cancer

A

inactivity, sun, age, obesity, hormones, viruses, tobacco, alcohol, poor diet, fam history

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41
Q

screening for cancer

A

CAUTIONS

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42
Q

two most common pediatric cancers

A

leukemia, brain ONS

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43
Q

how many malignant tumors of the brain or spinal cord diagnosed in 2013?

A

23,130

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44
Q

how many people die from CNS neoplasms/year?

A

14.080

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45
Q

T/F. primary brain tumors are more common than secondary brain tumors

A

Flase, secondary are more common

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46
Q

what is the chance of developing a malignant brain tumor or spinal cord tumor?

A

< 1%, lower for females

47
Q

risk factors for CNS neoplasms

A

genetics, fam history, rare genetic disorder, NM disorders, environment, radiation

48
Q

what is is called when CSF pressure is blocked?

A

vasogenic edema

49
Q

tumor between the hemispheres, above brainstem and cerebellum

A

supratentorial

50
Q

main symptom of tumor in cerebellum

A

ataxia

51
Q

symptom of frontal lobe tumor

A

personality change

52
Q

how many tumors are gliomas

A

3 in 10

53
Q

what is the peak incidence of gliomas (bimodal)

A

2-10 years/45-55 years

54
Q

what lobes does GBM occur primarily?

A

frontal and temporal lobes

55
Q

peak age for GBM?

A

50-60

56
Q

what is the 1 year survival rate of GBM?

A

50%

57
Q

what is GBM 2 year survival rate?

A

<15%

58
Q

what is the most common brain tumor in adults?

A

meningiomas

59
Q

what sex are meningiomas more common?

A

F

60
Q

what cells do neurinomas affect?

A

schwann cells

61
Q

peak incidence age foro neurinomas

A

40-50

62
Q

what is the most common manifestation in neurinomas

A

CN8 acoustic neuroma

63
Q

what is the most common malignant tumor in children?

A

medulloblastoma

64
Q

where does medulloblastoma occur?

A

vermis of cerebellum

65
Q

where do medulloblastomas mets. to?

A

spinal cord

66
Q

what is the 5 year survival rate?

A

> 60% with good incision

67
Q

what is the best tool for diagnosing brain tumors?

A

MRI

68
Q

what tool is best for examining large tumors

A

CT scan

69
Q

what tool is best used for differentiating between tumor and edema?

A

MRI

70
Q

what tool is best for locating pertinent vasculature for surgery?

A

cerebral angiography

71
Q

what tool is used when patients are under conscious sedation to access deep tumors

A

CT guided sterotactic needle biopsy

72
Q

intrathecal chemotherapy is in which ventricle?

A

third ventricle, but placed in a lateral ventricle first

73
Q

MS neoplasms often mets. in where?

A

lungs, bone, liver

74
Q

what is the M:F ratio?

A

3:1 men

75
Q

what are the risk factors for NM neoplasms?

A

radiation, toxins, chemo

76
Q

MS tumors are either ___ or ____

A

osteoblastic, osteolytic

77
Q

signs of MS tumor

A

pain, vague, edema, lump

78
Q

what test is done first in diagnosing MS tumor?

A

radiograph

79
Q

what test is superior for diagnosing lung mets. MS tumors?

A

CT scan

80
Q

what test is superior for soft tissue lesions?

A

MRI

81
Q

these lab tests are done as a work up for MS tumors

A

1) ESR (RBC rate)
2) ca
3) alkaline phosphatase

82
Q

what system is used for classifying MS tumors?

A

TNM, tumor (0-4), nodal (0,1), mets. (0,1)

83
Q

when majority of tumor is resected

A

marginal excision

84
Q

tumor and surrounding area of clean tissue is excised

A

wide excision

85
Q

what is the number one form of treatment for MS neoplasms?

A

chemo

86
Q

what is the exception for MS neoplasms that XRT responds to

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

87
Q

what percent of all malignant tumors does osteosarcoma account for?

A

15-20%

88
Q

what is the bimodal peak age for osteosarcoma

A

50, peak age is 15

89
Q

osteosarcoma is often thought to be this

A

growing pains

90
Q

what type of cells does osteosarcoma develop from?

A

osteoblast

91
Q

risk factors for osteosarcoma

A

Paget’s disease, radiation, chromosomal abnormalities

92
Q

5 year cure rate for osteosarcoma

A

70-80 %

93
Q

how is Ewing’s sarcoma usually diagnosed?

A

lytic lesions on radiograph

94
Q

prognosis for Ewing’s sarcoma

A

5 year survival is > 70%

95
Q

prognosis for osteosarcomas that mets in lungs

A

20-30% 5 year survival rate

96
Q

which chromosomes are affected in Ewing’s sarcoma ?

A

11 and 22

97
Q

peak age for ES

A

<20

98
Q

where are ES predominantly found

A

LE and pelvis

99
Q

what sex is more likely to develop rhabdomyosarcoma and what is the peak age

A

M, 2-6/15-19

100
Q

what is the 5 year survival rate for rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

50%

101
Q

T/F all cells have a finite lifespan

A

T

102
Q

acute leukemia is abnormal production of immature ___ or ____

A

myelocyte or granulocyte

103
Q

AML is fatal in - months if not treated

A

3-6

104
Q

what percent is acute leukemia in children

A

80%

105
Q

what is peak age for chronic leukemias

A

40

106
Q

what is the peak age for AML

A

15

107
Q

what percent with CML have the philadelphia chromosome

A

85%

108
Q

what is the Philadelphia chromosome?

A

translocation of the long arm of chromosome 22 to chromosome 9

109
Q

median survival w or w/o survival of CML

A

3 years

110
Q

peak age for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

18-35

111
Q

ratio M:F of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

3:2

112
Q

what is cell characteristic found that differentiates between hodgkins and nonhodgkins lymphoma?

A

reed-sternberg (bi or multinucleated cell with large nuclei)

113
Q

median age of onset of nonhodgkins lymphoma

A

50

114
Q

three steps of chemo in treatment of liquid tumors

A

1) induction
2) conditioning
3) maintenance

115
Q

two types bone marrow transplant

A

1) autologist

2) donor

patho test 2 (3 decks)

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