Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Types of cancer in the 0-15yo
- _____: 25% of total childhood cancers

  • ___ tumors: 17%
    • _____ are the most common primary childhood CNS tumors; can be astrocytomas or gliomas; can arise anywhere in the CNS (50-60% of brain tumors)
      • _____ account for 40% of all childhood brain tumors.
      • Cerebellar astrocytomas are the most common posterior fossa tumors of childhood (12%)
    • Primitive neuroectodermal tumors are the most common type of malignant CNS tumor in childhood, and _______ account for most of these. Medulloblastomas make up ~33% of all infratentorial tumors in children.
    • Craniopharyngiomas are benign tumors that arise in the suprasellar regions.
      • Symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (headache, nausea, vomiting) and vision problems
        • > 50% of children have visual changes due to optic involvement.
      • Morbidity is due to damage to the pituitary gland and the optic chiasm incurred as the tumor grows, and secondary to treatment. As such, children with craniopharyngiomas frequently experience panhypopituitarism - central hypothyroidism, hypocortisolism, hypogonadism, GH deficiency, and diabetes insipidus, all of which require hormone replacement.
        • Growth hormone deficiency is the most common anterior pituitary hormone deficiency at the time of diagnosis of craniopharyngioma, presenting as growth problems.
      • Dx: MRI w and wo contrast is the standard imaging modality where appears as a cystic mass. Characteristic intratumoral suprasellar calcifications of cystic mass can be seen on CT.
        • Calcifications in the suprasellar regions are present in most cases.
      • Tx: Surgery is recommended for many craniopharyngiomas, but location is frequently a problem.
        • Diabetes insipidus is a common complication of surgery.
  • ______ 7% - Most common malignancy in infants
A

Types of cancer in the 0-15yo
- Leukemias: 25% of total childhood cancers

  • CNS tumors: 17%
    • Gliomas are the most common primary childhood CNS tumors; can be astrocytomas or gliomas; can arise anywhere in the CNS (50-60% of brain tumors)
      • Astrocytomas account for 40% of all childhood brain tumors.
      • Cerebellar astrocytomas are the most common posterior fossa tumors of childhood (12%)
    • Primitive neuroectodermal tumors are the most common type of malignant CNS tumor in childhood, and medulloblastomas account for most of these. Medulloblastomas make up ~33% of all infratentorial tumors in children.
    • Craniopharyngiomas are benign tumors that arise in the suprasellar regions.
      • Symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (headache, nausea, vomiting) and vision problems
        • > 50% of children have visual changes due to optic involvement.
      • Morbidity is due to damage to the pituitary gland and the optic chiasm incurred as the tumor grows, and secondary to treatment. As such, children with craniopharyngiomas frequently experience panhypopituitarism - central hypothyroidism, hypocortisolism, hypogonadism, GH deficiency, and diabetes insipidus, all of which require hormone replacement.
        • Growth hormone deficiency is the most common anterior pituitary hormone deficiency at the time of diagnosis of craniopharyngioma, presenting as growth problems.
      • Dx: MRI w and wo contrast is the standard imaging modality where appears as a cystic mass. Characteristic intratumoral suprasellar calcifications of cystic mass can be seen on CT.
        • Calcifications in the suprasellar regions are present in most cases.
      • Tx: Surgery is recommended for many craniopharyngiomas, but location is frequently a problem.
        • Diabetes insipidus is a common complication of surgery.
  • Neuroblastoma 7% - Most common malignancy in infants
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2
Q

LEUKEMIA
- CBC is the initial test if leukemia is suspected. If abnormal, a bone marrow biopsy is performed as well as a lumbar puncture to determine if the CNS is affected.

  • Flow cytometry is the diagnostic test of choice for leukemia bc it can distinguish cells with aberrant surface marker expression.
A

LEUKEMIA
- CBC is the initial test if leukemia is suspected. If abnormal, a bone marrow biopsy is performed as well as a lumbar puncture to determine if the CNS is affected.

  • Flow cytometry is the diagnostic test of choice for leukemia bc it can distinguish cells with aberrant surface marker expression.
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3
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
- Most common form of childhood cancer and one of the most curable cancers today.

  • Accepted risk factors for ALL
    • Prenatal radiation exposure
    • Postnatal exposure to high doses of radiation
    • Down syndrome
    • Ataxia-telangiectasia (ataxia, speech delay, frequent sinopulmonary infections, and classic telangiectasias)
    • Bloom syndrome
    • Fanconi anemia
    • Neurofibromatosis
  • Good prognostic indicators for ALL
    • Rapid response to treatment
    • Hyperdiploidy (>50 chromosomes or DNA index >1.16)
    • Trisomies of chromosomes 4 and 10
    • t(__) translocation (TEL-AML)
    • Female gender
  • Poorer prognostic indicators for ALL
    • Age _____yo at diagnosis
    • Presence of the Philadelphia chromosome t(___)
    • Abnormalities of the MLL gene; i.e. t(4;11)
    • WBC count >50,000 cells/uL on presentation
    • Mature B-cell leukemia
    • T-cell leukemia
    • African American or Hispanic ethnicity
  • Pt:
    • Most common presentation is the “4 Ps”: Pallor, pyrexia, purpura, and pain.
      • Fever, lymphadenopathy, bone pain, bleeding
    • Be aware of the limping 2-5 yo with pallor! The presence of bone pain can distinguish the pancytopenia of leukemia from the pancytopenia of aplastic anemia. Many children with leukemia present with bone pain. Parents often report carrying the child everywhere.
    • Generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly are seen in >50% of pts.
  • Lab findings
    • 90% of pts with ALL have an abnormal CBC at the time of diagnosis.
      • Normocytic normochromic anemia and reticulocytopenia occur frequently.
      • The WBC count can be very low to very high
      • Despite relatively high WBC counts at presentation, a majority of patients have severe neutropenia, putting them at increased risk for infection.
      • Thrombocytopenia is also very common
  • Dx: Bone marrow evaluation- classically hypercellular and infiltrated with leukemic lymphoblasts.
    • For diagnosis of acute leukemia, at least ____% of the marrow must be involved
  • Relapse
    • Relapse can occur in the___ > ____ > ____, or any combination of these sites.
      • CNS Relapse
        • Pt: Most headaches reported by survivors are not caused by a relapse, but relapse should be considered when close to proximity of tx
        • Dx: If a CNS relapse of leukemia is suspected, a lumbar puncture with examination of the CSF for leukemic blasts should be performed.
    • The most important predictive factor for achieving a 2nd remission is _____
  • Long-term effects of therapy
    • ______ toxicity have been noted in those receiving intrathecal and radiation therapy.
      • Seizures occur in 5-15% of children with standard CNS therapy
      • Cranial radiation results in neurodevelopmental and neuroendocrine abnormalities (including growth hormone deficiency) and spinal radiation can cause growth retardation.
A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
- Most common form of childhood cancer and one of the most curable cancers today.

  • Accepted risk factors for ALL
    • Prenatal radiation exposure
    • Postnatal exposure to high doses of radiation
    • Down syndrome
    • Ataxia-telangiectasia (ataxia, speech delay, frequent sinopulmonary infections, and classic telangiectasias)
    • Bloom syndrome
    • Fanconi anemia
    • Neurofibromatosis
  • Good prognostic indicators for ALL
    • Rapid response to treatment
    • Hyperdiploidy (>50 chromosomes or DNA index >1.16)
    • Trisomies of chromosomes 4 and 10
    • t(12;21) translocation (TEL-AML)
    • Female gender
  • Poorer prognostic indicators for ALL
    • Age <1yo or >10yo at diagnosis
    • Presence of the Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)
    • Abnormalities of the MLL gene; i.e. t(4;11)
    • WBC count >50,000 cells/uL on presentation
    • Mature B-cell leukemia
    • T-cell leukemia
    • African American or Hispanic ethnicity
  • Pt:
    • Most common presentation is the “4 Ps”: Pallor, pyrexia, purpura, and pain.
      • Fever, lymphadenopathy, bone pain, bleeding
    • Be aware of the limping 2-5 yo with pallor! The presence of bone pain can distinguish the pancytopenia of leukemia from the pancytopenia of aplastic anemia. Many children with leukemia present with bone pain. Parents often report carrying the child everywhere.
    • Generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly are seen in >50% of pts.
  • Lab findings
    • 90% of pts with ALL have an abnormal CBC at the time of diagnosis.
      • Normocytic normochromic anemia and reticulocytopenia occur frequently.
      • The WBC count can be very low to very high
      • Despite relatively high WBC counts at presentation, a majority of patients have severe neutropenia, putting them at increased risk for infection.
      • Thrombocytopenia is also very common
  • Dx: Bone marrow evaluation- classically hypercellular and infiltrated with leukemic lymphoblasts.
    • For diagnosis of acute leukemia, at least 25% of the marrow must be involved
  • Relapse
    • Relapse can occur in the bone marrow > the CNS (bc many chemotherapeutic drugs have difficulty crossing the BBB) >the testes (blood-testicular barrier behaves in a similar way to the blood-brain barrier), or any combination of these sites.
      • CNS Relapse
        • Pt: Most headaches reported by survivors are not caused by a relapse, but relapse should be considered when close to proximity of tx
        • Dx: If a CNS relapse of leukemia is suspected, a lumbar puncture with examination of the CSF for leukemic blasts should be performed.
    • The most important predictive factor for achieving a 2nd remission is the length of time that 1st remission lasted (ie the longer the 1st remission lasted, the better the survival rate).
  • Long-term effects of therapy
    • Early and late CNS toxicity have been noted in those receiving intrathecal and radiation therapy.
      • Seizures occur in 5-15% of children with standard CNS therapy
      • Cranial radiation results in neurodevelopmental and neuroendocrine abnormalities (including growth hormone deficiency) and spinal radiation can cause growth retardation.
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4
Q

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

  • Some conditions predispose to AML:
    • Trisomy 21
    • Diamond-Blackfan anemia
    • Fanconi anemia
    • Bloom syndrome
    • Kostmann syndrome
    • Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
    • Neurofibromatosis
    • Previous exposure to VP-16 and ionizing radiation
  • 7 subtypes
    • M3: Acute promyelocytic leukemia. Chromosome t(15;17). DIC
      • For example, t(___ is found in most cases of _____. Children with APML present with ____.
  • Pt:
    • Chloromas are a localized mass of leukemia cells and are often present at the time of diagnosis. For example, an ______ can be the 1st clue to the diagnosis.
  • Dx: Bone marrow evaluation
    • Bone marrow morphology, flow cytometry, and cytogenetics are used to classify AML
    • Finding _____ inside peripheral blood blast cells is pathognomonic for AML
  • Children with acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL; M3 subtype) represent a unique subset of AML pts who have excellent cure rates. These children receive _____ in addition to chemotherapy - and do not undergo transplant.
A

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

  • Some conditions predispose to AML:
    • Trisomy 21
    • Diamond-Blackfan anemia
    • Fanconi anemia
    • Bloom syndrome
    • Kostmann syndrome
    • Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
    • Neurofibromatosis
    • Previous exposure to VP-16 and ionizing radiation
  • 7 subtypes
    • M3: Acute promyelocytic leukemia. Chromosome t(15;17). DIC
      • For example, t(15;17) is found in most cases of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML). Children with APML present with DIC.
  • Pt:
    • Chloromas are a localized mass of leukemia cells and are often present at the time of diagnosis. For example, an orbital or epidural chloroma can be the 1st clue to the diagnosis.
  • Dx: Bone marrow evaluation
    • Bone marrow morphology, flow cytometry, and cytogenetics are used to classify AML
    • Finding Auer rods inside peripheral blood blast cells is pathognomonic for AML
  • Children with acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL; M3 subtype) represent a unique subset of AML pts who have excellent cure rates. These children receive retinoic acid in addition to chemotherapy - and do not undergo transplant.
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5
Q

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
- Disorder of pluripotent stem cell defined by the t(_____) translocation (____ chromosome). Causing a fusion gene that encodes for a _____ abnormal protein ______ that drives oncogenesis.

  • Pt
    • Initial chronic phase (2-4 years) of splenomegaly and extreme leukocytosis with complete granulocytic maturation. This chronic phase can evolve into an acute blast crisis that behaves as an aggressive acute leukemia.
  • Tx: Most pts presenting in the chronic phase are treated initially with ________ such as ____ or ____.
A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
- Disorder of pluripotent stem cell defined by the t(9;22) translocation (Philadelphia chromosome). Causing a fusion gene that encodes for a BCR-ABL abnormal protein tyrosine kinase that drives oncogenesis.

  • Pt
    • Initial chronic phase (2-4 years) of splenomegaly and extreme leukocytosis with complete granulocytic maturation. This chronic phase can evolve into an acute blast crisis that behaves as an aggressive acute leukemia.
  • Tx: Most pts presenting in the chronic phase are treated initially with tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) such as imatinib or dasatinib.
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6
Q

LYMPHOMA
- Cancer of the lymphatic system, which includes lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, and bone marrow.

  • Lymphomas are divided into 2 categories, Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma, depending on the microscopic appearance and characteristics of the malignant cells.
  • Worrisome features:
    • Systemic symptoms (eg fever, night sweats, weight loss)
    • Fixed, nontender nodes
    • Supraclavicular nodes
    • Lymph nodes >___cm with no response to a 2-week course of antibiotics.

Biopsy should be considered with the following:
Size >__cm
Size increasing over __ weeks
No decrease in size of node after __weeks
Any supraclavicular lymph node
Any hard, matted, or rubbery lymph node
Lymphadenopathy associated with an abnormal chest radiograph suggestive of lymphoma
Lymphadenopathy associated with fever, weight loss, or hepatosplenomegaly

  • Dx: ______ Lymph node or mass biopsy (NOT FNA)
A

LYMPHOMA
- Cancer of the lymphatic system, which includes lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, and bone marrow.

  • Lymphomas are divided into 2 categories, Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma, depending on the microscopic appearance and characteristics of the malignant cells.
  • Worrisome features:
    • Systemic symptoms (eg fever, night sweats, weight loss)
    • Fixed, nontender nodes
    • Supraclavicular nodes
    • Lymph nodes >2cm with no response to a 2-week course of antibiotics.

Biopsy should be considered with the following:
Size >2cm
Size increasing over 2 weeks
No decrease in size of node after 4 weeks
Any supraclavicular lymph node
Any hard, matted, or rubbery lymph node
Lymphadenopathy associated with an abnormal chest radiograph suggestive of lymphoma
Lymphadenopathy associated with fever, weight loss, or hepatosplenomegaly

  • Dx: EXCISIONAL Lymph node or mass biopsy (NOT FNA)
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7
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma

  • 3 typical age ranges for Hodgkin lymphoma:
    • 1) Childhood (<14 yo) - mainly seen in poorer SES and has a predominant mixed cellularity histologic subtype
    • 2) Young adult (15-34 yo) - most common form; predominantly nodular sclerosing histology
    • 3) Older adult (55-74 yo)
  • Defined by the presence of _____ cells, which are multinucleated/multilobulated large cells (looks like “owl’s eyes”) that divide rapidly and live longer than normal cells.
  • Pt:
    • Most common presentation is _________, which often involves the cervical or supraclavicular region.
    • ⅓ of children have B (constitutional) symptoms, which include fever, drenching night sweats, and unexplained weight loss >10%
    • An especially common infection is _______
    • Itching and alcohol-induced pain (localized to areas involved in the disease; eg bones, lymph nodes) are also reported but are not prognostic.
  • Diagnosis: Confirmed by _____ of an accessible lymph node. Staging is accomplished by a combination of the radiographic techniques noted below.
  • Therapy: The combination of ____ and ____ was found to improve treatment outcomes compared to radiation alone.
    • The long-term side effects of radiation therapy, depending on the field of radiation, include growth retardation, thyroid failure, early ____ disease, ____ fibrosis, and increased risk of secondary malignancies, including breast cancer.
      • Among childhood cancer survivors, female patients with a history of Hodgkin lymphoma who were treated with chest irradiation are at greatest risk for developing ____ later in life.
A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

  • 3 typical age ranges for Hodgkin lymphoma:
    • 1) Childhood (<14 yo) - mainly seen in poorer SES and has a predominant mixed cellularity histologic subtype
    • 2) Young adult (15-34 yo) - most common form; predominantly nodular sclerosing histology
    • 3) Older adult (55-74 yo)
  • Defined by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are multinucleated/multilobulated large cells (looks like “owl’s eyes”) that divide rapidly and live longer than normal cells.
  • Pt:
    • Most common presentation is asymptomatic lymphadenopathy, which often involves the cervical or supraclavicular region.
    • ⅓ of children have B (constitutional) symptoms, which include fever, drenching night sweats, and unexplained weight loss >10%
    • An especially common infection is varicella zoster.
    • Itching and alcohol-induced pain (localized to areas involved in the disease; eg bones, lymph nodes) are also reported but are not prognostic.
  • Diagnosis: Confirmed by excisional biopsy of an accessible lymph node. Staging is accomplished by a combination of the radiographic techniques noted below.
  • Therapy: The combination of chemotherapy and radiation was found to improve treatment outcomes compared to radiation alone.
    • The long-term side effects of radiation therapy, depending on the field of radiation, include growth retardation, thyroid failure, early coronary artery disease, pulmonary fibrosis, and increased risk of secondary malignancies, including breast cancer.
      • Among childhood cancer survivors, female patients with a history of Hodgkin lymphoma who were treated with chest irradiation are at greatest risk for developing breast cancer later in life.
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8
Q

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)
- Most common type of lymphoma to occur in pediatrics (NHL 60% vs Hodgkin lymphoma 40%)

  • 3 histologic types:
    • 1) Burkitt lymphoma (most common form of NHL)
      • 90% of Burkitt-type lymphomas originate from mature ___ cells in ____ within the ___, most commonly at the ____ junction.
      • Only 10% of US cases begin in the B lymphocytes within the _____
      • Pt:
        • Majority present with abdominal mass or pain with nausea and vomiting.
        • Jaw involvement is very common in the African form but occurs in only about 15% of US cases.
        • Burkitt lymphoma is the fastest growing malignant tumor - it can double in 2-3 days! Consequently, tumor lysis syndrome is common
      • ____ DNA is present in the tumor cells of 95% of endemic cases in equatorial Africa, but is found in only 15-20% of US cases.
      • Especially high risk for ______
    • 2) Lymphoblastic lymphoma (33% of NHLs)
    • 3) Large cell non-hodgkin lymphoma (T-cell, B-cell, or indeterminate-cell origin)
      • Lymphadenopathy is usually tender, which separates it from the other lymphomas.
  • Do NOT have Reed-Sternberg cells
  • Tx:
    • Multidrug chemotherapy regimen, with a typical regimen being CHOP (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin (Hydroxydaunorubicin), vincristine (Oncovin), and prednisone).
    • Rituximab, an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody, is a treatment option for tumors that are positive for CD20.
    • Pts with abdominal tumors that are resected at diagnosis have an excellent prognosis with short-course, postop chemotherapy.
    • Radiation therapy is usually limited to CNS disease or emergency situations (airway obstruction).
  • Prognosis: Most have a good prognosis, with >80% survival rate overall.
A

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)
- Most common type of lymphoma to occur in pediatrics (NHL 60% vs Hodgkin lymphoma 40%)

  • 3 histologic types:
    • 1) Burkitt lymphoma (most common form of NHL)
      • 90% of Burkitt-type lymphomas originate from mature B cells in Peyer patches within the GI tract, most commonly at the ileocecal junction.
      • Only 10% of US cases begin in the B lymphocytes within the Waldeyer ring (adenoids/tonsils).
      • Pt:
        • Majority present with abdominal mass or pain with nausea and vomiting.
        • Jaw involvement is very common in the African form but occurs in only about 15% of US cases.
        • Burkitt lymphoma is the fastest growing malignant tumor - it can double in 2-3 days! Consequently, tumor lysis syndrome is common
      • EBV DNA is present in the tumor cells of 95% of endemic cases in equatorial Africa, but is found in only 15-20% of US cases.
      • Especially high risk for tumor lysis syndrome!
    • 2) Lymphoblastic lymphoma (33% of NHLs)
    • 3) Large cell non-hodgkin lymphoma (T-cell, B-cell, or indeterminate-cell origin)
      • Lymphadenopathy is usually tender, which separates it from the other lymphomas.
  • Do NOT have Reed-Sternberg cells
  • Tx:
    • Multidrug chemotherapy regimen, with a typical regimen being CHOP (cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin (Hydroxydaunorubicin), vincristine (Oncovin), and prednisone).
    • Rituximab, an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody, is a treatment option for tumors that are positive for CD20.
    • Pts with abdominal tumors that are resected at diagnosis have an excellent prognosis with short-course, postop chemotherapy.
    • Radiation therapy is usually limited to CNS disease or emergency situations (airway obstruction).
  • Prognosis: Most have a good prognosis, with >80% survival rate overall.
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9
Q

BRAIN TUMORS

  • Clinical triad: Early morning vomiting/nausea, headache, and gait imbalance suggests increased intracranial pressure due to a posterior fossa brain tumor
  • Developmental delay and motor abnormalities
  • Infratentorial lesions
    • Cerebellar hemisphere tumors usually present initially with lateralizing signs, such as limb dysmetria, rather than increased ICP.
    • New head tilt or torticollis can also be seen when there is tumor in posterior fossa
    • Ddx for posterior fossa tumors in children 0-4yo include, listed by decreasing frequency:
      • Medulloblastoma - most common malignant primary brain tumor in childhood, peak incidence from 5-9 yo; 2nd most common posterior fossa tumor
      • Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma - most common brain tumor and posterior fossa tumor
      • Ependymoma
      • Atypical teratoid rhabdoid tumor
      • Brainstem gliomas
  • Supratentorial Lesion presentation (in brain structures above the cerebellum)
    • Commonly present with headaches, weakness, and seizures.
    • Tumors of the “silent area” of the cerebral cortex (the frontal and parietal lobes) rarely cause any symptoms
    • Parinaud syndrome is a triad of impaired upward gaze, dilated pupils with better reactivity to accommodation than to light, and retraction or conversion nystagmus with lid retraction. It is caused by compression or infiltration of the midbrain tectum, particularly with pineal tumors.
  • Dx:
    • MRI has replaced CT scan as the modality of choice for diagnosis of brain tumors. Biopsy is required for histologic confirmation and to determine therapy, which is usually done with tumor resection surgery
  • Tx: Surgical resection is the mainstay of therapy for most tumors of the CNS
A

BRAIN TUMORS

  • Clinical triad: Early morning vomiting/nausea, headache, and gait imbalance suggests increased intracranial pressure due to a posterior fossa brain tumor
  • Developmental delay and motor abnormalities
  • Infratentorial lesions
    • Cerebellar hemisphere tumors usually present initially with lateralizing signs, such as limb dysmetria, rather than increased ICP.
    • New head tilt or torticollis can also be seen when there is tumor in posterior fossa
    • Ddx for posterior fossa tumors in children 0-4yo include, listed by decreasing frequency:
      • Medulloblastoma - most common malignant primary brain tumor in childhood, peak incidence from 5-9 yo; 2nd most common posterior fossa tumor
      • Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma - most common brain tumor and posterior fossa tumor
      • Ependymoma
      • Atypical teratoid rhabdoid tumor
      • Brainstem gliomas
  • Supratentorial Lesion presentation (in brain structures above the cerebellum)
    • Commonly present with headaches, weakness, and seizures.
    • Tumors of the “silent area” of the cerebral cortex (the frontal and parietal lobes) rarely cause any symptoms
    • Parinaud syndrome is a triad of impaired upward gaze, dilated pupils with better reactivity to accommodation than to light, and retraction or conversion nystagmus with lid retraction. It is caused by compression or infiltration of the midbrain tectum, particularly with pineal tumors.
  • Dx:
    • MRI has replaced CT scan as the modality of choice for diagnosis of brain tumors. Biopsy is required for histologic confirmation and to determine therapy, which is usually done with tumor resection surgery
  • Tx: Surgical resection is the mainstay of therapy for most tumors of the CNS
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10
Q

Meningiomas

- Rare in children except in those with neurofibromatosis Type 2

A

Meningiomas

- Rare in children except in those with neurofibromatosis Type 2

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11
Q

The most common diagnoses for a prenatally identified adrenal mass include adrenal hemorrhage and perinatal neuroblastoma.

A

The most common diagnoses for a prenatally identified adrenal mass include adrenal hemorrhage and perinatal neuroblastoma.

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12
Q

Neuroblastoma (2nd most common, 650-700/year US)

  • Most common malignancy in _____ (that presents in the 1st month of life)
  • Most common malignant abdominal tumor of childhood.
  • Most common extracranial solid tumor in children
  • Tumor arises from neural crest cells, which are precursor cells of sympathetic chain and adrenal medulla
  • Pt:
    • Nontender abdominal mass (____ cross midline) typically retroperitoneal but can be neck mass
    • 1 year of life and crosses midline. Often the sick kid with a mass
    • Located in the high thoracic and cervical area can cause _______ (unilateral ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis)
    • ______ syndrome (dancing eyes-dancing feet syndrome) occurs in about 5% of newly diagnosed neuroblastoma pts.
      • As a presenting symptom, it warrants a workup for neuroblastoma.
    • Most neuroblastomas have metastasized before diagnosis.
      • ________ due to orbital metastases (must be distinguished from trauma/child abuse)
    • Paraneoplastic syndromes can occur but are not that common.
      • Look for intractable secretory diarrhea and abdominal distention due to secretion of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). The VIP syndrome occurs with ganglioneuroblastoma or ganglioneuroma and resolves with removal of the tumor.
    • 2/3 arise in abdomen (shows _______ on CT- DIFFERENT FROM WILMS) (adrenal gland or ganglia). Also can be found in posterior thorax
  • Dx:
    • Diagnosis requires biopsy with histologic evidence of neural origin of the tumor
    • An increased level of catecholamine metabolites in the_____ is often found at diagnosis.
  • Better prognosis: Child’s age at diagnosis - best prognosis is for ______
A

Neuroblastoma (2nd most common, 650-700/year US)

  • Most common malignancy in infancy (that presents in the 1st month of life)
  • Most common malignant abdominal tumor of childhood.
  • Most common extracranial solid tumor in children
  • Tumor arises from neural crest cells, which are precursor cells of sympathetic chain and adrenal medulla
  • Pt:
    • Nontender abdominal mass (able to cross midline) typically retroperitoneal but can be neck mass
    • 1 year of life and crosses midline. Often the sick kid with a mass
    • Located in the high thoracic and cervical area can cause Horner’s syndrome (unilateral ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis)
    • Opsoclonus-myoclonus-ataxia syndrome (dancing eyes-dancing feet syndrome) occurs in about 5% of newly diagnosed neuroblastoma pts.
      • As a presenting symptom, it warrants a workup for neuroblastoma.
    • Most neuroblastomas have metastasized before diagnosis.
      • Racoon eyes / Periorbital ecchymosis due to orbital metastases (must be distinguished from trauma/child abuse)
    • Paraneoplastic syndromes can occur but are not that common.
      • Look for intractable secretory diarrhea and abdominal distention due to secretion of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). The VIP syndrome occurs with ganglioneuroblastoma or ganglioneuroma and resolves with removal of the tumor.
    • 2/3 arise in abdomen (shows calcifications on CT- DIFFERENT FROM WILMS) (adrenal gland or ganglia). Also can be found in posterior thorax
  • Dx:
    • Diagnosis requires biopsy with histologic evidence of neural origin of the tumor
    • An increased level of catecholamine metabolites in the urine (HVA and VMA (homovanillic acid and vanillylmandelic acid) is often found at diagnosis.
  • Better prognosis: Child’s age at diagnosis - best prognosis is for <18 months
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13
Q

Wilm’s Tumor / Nephroblastoma
- Epidemiology: Most common renal malignancy in childhood, accounting for >95% of cases. Second common abdominal malignancy in children (after neuroblastoma)

  • Path: Thought to arise from metanephric blastema, embryonic precursor of renal parenchyma (primordial cells of the fetal kidney), as these cells are commonly found in Wilms’ tumor and rarely in normal kidneys.
  • Pt: The well kid with _____ and a mass
    • Most children are asymptomatic on initial presentation and are brought in to their pediatrician bc a parent notices an abdominal mass.
    • Asymptomatic, firm, smooth nontender unilateral abdominal mass that _____cross midline
    • HTN occurs in about 25% of pts and is due to renal ischemia from tumor impingement of the renal artery.
    • May have hematuria (microscopic or gross), low-grade fever, anorexia, weight loss.
  • Association with other anomalies/syndromes in up to 7% of patients: ___ (Wilms tumor, Aniridia, genitourinary anomalies, intellectual disability), ____, ____
    • Denys-Drash: Early-onset renal failure/nephropathy, male pseudohermaphroditism (male undervirilization, ambiguous genitalia), and Wilms tumor (>90% risk)
    • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (See “Beckwith-Wiedemann”): Organomegaly, large birth weight, macroglossia, omphalocele, hemihypertrophy, ear pits/creases, neonatal hypoglycemia.
      • Should screen for Wilms with abd ultrasound q3mo until 7-8yo.
  • Dx: Confirm by biopsy.
  • Tx:
    • Tumor excision of nephrectomy with chemotherapy +/- radiation therapy for advanced disease
    • For unilateral disease, nephrectomy with removal of the primary tumor is the mainstay of therapy.
    • In bilateral disease (Stage 5), a renal biopsy of each kidney determines the histologic stage and appropriate chemotherapy; and, typically, bilateral parenchymal-sparing resection is performed.
A

Wilm’s Tumor / Nephroblastoma
- Epidemiology: Most common renal malignancy in childhood, accounting for >95% of cases. Second common abdominal malignancy in children (after neuroblastoma)

  • Path: Thought to arise from metanephric blastema, embryonic precursor of renal parenchyma (primordial cells of the fetal kidney), as these cells are commonly found in Wilms’ tumor and rarely in normal kidneys.
  • Pt: The well kid with HTN and a mass
    • Most children are asymptomatic on initial presentation and are brought in to their pediatrician bc a parent notices an abdominal mass.
    • Asymptomatic, firm, smooth nontender unilateral abdominal mass that does not cross midline
    • HTN occurs in about 25% of pts and is due to renal ischemia from tumor impingement of the renal artery.
    • May have hematuria (microscopic or gross), low-grade fever, anorexia, weight loss.
  • Association with other anomalies/syndromes in up to 7% of patients: WAGR (Wilms tumor, Aniridia, genitourinary anomalies, intellectual disability), Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome, Denys-Drash syndrome
    • Denys-Drash: Early-onset renal failure/nephropathy, male pseudohermaphroditism (male undervirilization, ambiguous genitalia), and Wilms tumor (>90% risk)
    • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (See “Beckwith-Wiedemann”): Organomegaly, large birth weight, macroglossia, omphalocele, hemihypertrophy, ear pits/creases, neonatal hypoglycemia.
      • Should screen for Wilms with abd ultrasound q3mo until 7-8yo.
  • Dx: Confirm by biopsy.
  • Tx:
    • Tumor excision of nephrectomy with chemotherapy +/- radiation therapy for advanced disease
    • For unilateral disease, nephrectomy with removal of the primary tumor is the mainstay of therapy.
    • In bilateral disease (Stage 5), a renal biopsy of each kidney determines the histologic stage and appropriate chemotherapy; and, typically, bilateral parenchymal-sparing resection is performed.
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14
Q

SOFT TISSUE TUMORS
Rhabdomyosarcomas
- Most common soft tissue tumors of childhood.

  • Pt:
    • Most common presentation is a mass lesion. The head and neck are the most common sites
      • Orbital involvement will often present with non-tender mass that has progressively increased in size.
  • Tx:
    • Chemotherapy is indicated for all children with rhabdomyosarcoma. The standard regimen for low- and intermediate-risk disease is VAC: vincristine, actinomycin D, and high-dose cyclophosphamide.
A

SOFT TISSUE TUMORS
Rhabdomyosarcomas
- Most common soft tissue tumors of childhood.

  • Pt:
    • Most common presentation is a mass lesion. The head and neck are the most common sites
      • Orbital involvement will often present with non-tender mass that has progressively increased in size.
  • Tx:
    • Chemotherapy is indicated for all children with rhabdomyosarcoma. The standard regimen for low- and intermediate-risk disease is VAC: vincristine, actinomycin D, and high-dose cyclophosphamide.
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15
Q

RETINOBLASTOMA
- More common intraocular tumor of childhood.

  • Path: Requires 2 mutational “hits” for tumor development to occur.
    • Hereditary retinoblastoma occurs when there is a germline mutation of one of the RB1 alleles and a somatic event silencing the other.
      • Despite having pathophysiology resembling an _____disease (development of RB requires inactivation of both copies of RB1), most germline RB1 mutations have a penetrance of approx 90%, meaning that hereditary retinoblastoma behaves in a manner approx an ____ Mendelian disease.
        • When mother is carrier of abnormal RB1 allele, there is 50% chance that neonate inherited abnormal allele. As germline mutations are approx 90% penetrant, the chance of developing retinoblastoma = (chance of inheriting the abnormal allele) x penetrance = 0.5 x 0.9 = 0.45.
  • Pt:
    • Classically presents with a white, pupillary reflex (Leukoria).
    • However, in some children, strabismus is the initial presenting complaint.
  • Tx:
    • Aimed at cure, with preservation of vision is possible.
    • Unilateral disease can be tx with enucleation if there is no chance for successful vision.
    • Bilateral disease is initially tx with chemotherapy in an attempt to preserve vision.
  • Prognosis:
    • Children with germ line RB1 mutations are at very high risk for developing secondary malignancies such as osteosarcoma or soft tissue sarcomas or malignant melanoma
A

RETINOBLASTOMA
- More common intraocular tumor of childhood.

  • Path: Requires 2 mutational “hits” for tumor development to occur.
    • Hereditary retinoblastoma occurs when there is a germline mutation of one of the RB1 alleles and a somatic event silencing the other.
      • Despite having pathophysiology resembling an autosomal recessive disease (development of RB requires inactivation of both copies of RB1), most germline RB1 mutations have a penetrance of approx 90%, meaning that hereditary retinoblastoma behaves in a manner approx an autosomal dominant Mendelian disease.
        • When mother is carrier of abnormal RB1 allele, there is 50% chance that neonate inherited abnormal allele. As germline mutations are approx 90% penetrant, the chance of developing retinoblastoma = (chance of inheriting the abnormal allele) x penetrance = 0.5 x 0.9 = 0.45.
  • Pt:
    • Classically presents with a white, pupillary reflex (Leukoria).
    • However, in some children, strabismus is the initial presenting complaint.
  • Tx:
    • Aimed at cure, with preservation of vision is possible.
    • Unilateral disease can be tx with enucleation if there is no chance for successful vision.
    • Bilateral disease is initially tx with chemotherapy in an attempt to preserve vision.
  • Prognosis:
    • Children with germ line RB1 mutations are at very high risk for developing secondary malignancies such as osteosarcoma or soft tissue sarcomas or malignant melanoma
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16
Q

NASOPHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA

- More cases are seen in China and occur with ____ infection and prior radiation exposure.

A

NASOPHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA

- More cases are seen in China and occur with EBV infection and prior radiation exposure.

17
Q

GONADAL NEOPLASMS
Teratoma
- Can be benign or malignant
- Classically have components from all 3 embryonic layers (endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm), but generally, tumors at a site foreign to the anatomic site are considered teratomas with >1 embryonic layers.
- Look for teeth and hair and other “weird stuff” (abnormal tissues) on x-ray

Germinoma

  • Malignant germ cell tumor that can occur in the ovary (dysgerminoma) and the testes (seminoma) as well as extragonadally.
  • Even though they are malignant, germinomas are often tumor marker negative (AFP and b-hcg)

Embryonal Carcinoma

  • Made up of primitive malignant cells
  • Pre embryonal carcinomas do not typically produce AFP, but can cause an elevation in b-hCG.

Endodermal Sinus (Yolk Sac) Tumor

  • Most common malignant childhood germ cell tumor
  • ____ is very reliable tumor marker, whereas b-hCG is absent

Choriocarcinoma
- AFP is absent, but ____ is a very reliable tumor marker.

A

GONADAL NEOPLASMS
Teratoma
- Can be benign or malignant
- Classically have components from all 3 embryonic layers (endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm), but generally, tumors at a site foreign to the anatomic site are considered teratomas with >1 embryonic layers.
- Look for teeth and hair and other “weird stuff” (abnormal tissues) on x-ray

Germinoma

  • Malignant germ cell tumor that can occur in the ovary (dysgerminoma) and the testes (seminoma) as well as extragonadally.
  • Even though they are malignant, germinomas are often tumor marker negative (AFP and b-hcg)

Embryonal Carcinoma

  • Made up of primitive malignant cells
  • Pre embryonal carcinomas do not typically produce AFP, but can cause an elevation in b-hCG.

Endodermal Sinus (Yolk Sac) Tumor

  • Most common malignant childhood germ cell tumor
  • AFP is very reliable tumor marker, whereas b-hCG is absent

Choriocarcinoma
- AFP is absent, but b-hCG is a very reliable tumor marker.

18
Q

Pancreatic Tumors
- Insulinoma and gastrinoma are most commonly seen and occur with autosomal dominant MEN1 syndrome.

- Insulinoma presents with hypoglycemia with inappropriate insulin and C-peptide levels
- Gastrinoma presents with refractory gastric ulcers (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome)
A

Pancreatic Tumors
- Insulinoma and gastrinoma are most commonly seen and occur with autosomal dominant MEN1 syndrome.

- Insulinoma presents with hypoglycemia with inappropriate insulin and C-peptide levels
- Gastrinoma presents with refractory gastric ulcers (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome)
19
Q

Colonic Tumors
- FAP is an _____inheritance disorder with 100% risk of colon cancer. Colectomy is recommended.

  • Gardner syndrome (multiple intestinal polyps and tumors of the mandible and soft tissue/bone) and Turcot syndrome (primary brain tumor - medulloblastoma and multiple colorectal polyposis) include adenomatous polyps and therefore pose a risk of cancer as well
  • Lynch syndrome is hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer.
A

Colonic Tumors
- FAP is an AD disorder with 100% risk of colon cancer. Colectomy is recommended.

  • Gardner syndrome (multiple intestinal polyps and tumors of the mandible and soft tissue/bone) and Turcot syndrome (primary brain tumor - medulloblastoma and multiple colorectal polyposis) include adenomatous polyps and therefore pose a risk of cancer as well
  • Lynch syndrome is hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer.
20
Q

Lynch Syndrome / Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer Syndrome
- Adult-onset ____inheritance? hereditary cancer syndrome

  • Path: Germline pathogen mutation in MSH2, MSH6, MLH1, PMS2, or EPCAM.
  • Associated with increased risks for colon, endometrial, ovarian, stomach, small intestine, hepatobiliary tract, urinary tract, brain cancers, sebaceous neoplasms (subtype of skin cancer)
    • Most common cancers encountered are colon and uterine cancer
  • Tx:
    • AAP has advised against the predictive genetic testing of children for adult-onset genetic disorders until the child reaches adulthood at least 18yo, or rarely in adolescence if the child has mature decision-making capacity.
A

Lynch Syndrome / Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer Syndrome
- Adult-onset AD hereditary cancer syndrome

  • Path: Germline pathogen mutation in MSH2, MSH6, MLH1, PMS2, or EPCAM.
  • Associated with increased risks for colon, endometrial, ovarian, stomach, small intestine, hepatobiliary tract, urinary tract, brain cancers, sebaceous neoplasms (subtype of skin cancer)
    • Most common cancers encountered are colon and uterine cancer
  • Tx:
    • AAP has advised against the predictive genetic testing of children for adult-onset genetic disorders until the child reaches adulthood at least 18yo, or rarely in adolescence if the child has mature decision-making capacity.
21
Q

Liver Tumors

  • Nearly 70% of liver tumors are malignant, and hepatoblastomas make up the majority of these in children <3yo
  • All children with a hepatic tumor need to have AFP checked
  • Clues to diagnosis
    • Hemangioendothelioma - Child <6mo with multiple liver lesions and normal AFP
    • Hepatoblastoma - 2yo ex-premature infant with liver mass and significantly elevated AFP
    • Hepatocellular carcinoma - 8yo with solitary mass and elevated AFP
    • Adenoma - Adolescent female on oral contraceptives with hepatic mass
    • Hemangioendothelioma - Children <2yo with normal AFP
    • Metastatic disease in liver in children <2yo is most likely neuroblastoma; in older children, it can be lymphoma, sarcoma, or Wilms tumor
A

Liver Tumors

  • Nearly 70% of liver tumors are malignant, and hepatoblastomas make up the majority of these in children <3yo
  • All children with a hepatic tumor need to have AFP checked
  • Clues to diagnosis
    • Hemangioendothelioma - Child <6mo with multiple liver lesions and normal AFP
    • Hepatoblastoma - 2yo ex-premature infant with liver mass and significantly elevated AFP
    • Hepatocellular carcinoma - 8yo with solitary mass and elevated AFP
    • Adenoma - Adolescent female on oral contraceptives with hepatic mass
    • Hemangioendothelioma - Children <2yo with normal AFP
    • Metastatic disease in liver in children <2yo is most likely neuroblastoma; in older children, it can be lymphoma, sarcoma, or Wilms tumor
22
Q

Liver Tumors

  • Nearly 70% of liver tumors are malignant, and hepatoblastomas make up the majority of these in children <3yo
  • All children with a hepatic tumor need to have AFP checked
  • Clues to diagnosis
    • _______ - Child <6mo with multiple liver lesions and normal AFP
    • ______ - 2yo ex-premature infant with liver mass and significantly elevated AFP
    • ______ - 8yo with solitary mass and elevated AFP
    • ______ - Adolescent female on oral contraceptives with hepatic mass
    • ______ - Children <2yo with normal AFP
    • Metastatic disease in liver in children <2yo is most likely neuroblastoma; in older children, it can be lymphoma, sarcoma, or Wilms tumor
A

Liver Tumors

  • Nearly 70% of liver tumors are malignant, and hepatoblastomas make up the majority of these in children <3yo
  • All children with a hepatic tumor need to have AFP checked
  • Clues to diagnosis
    • Hemangioendothelioma - Child <6mo with multiple liver lesions and normal AFP
    • Hepatoblastoma - 2yo ex-premature infant with liver mass and significantly elevated AFP
    • Hepatocellular carcinoma - 8yo with solitary mass and elevated AFP
    • Adenoma - Adolescent female on oral contraceptives with hepatic mass
    • Hemangioendothelioma - Children <2yo with normal AFP
    • Metastatic disease in liver in children <2yo is most likely neuroblastoma; in older children, it can be lymphoma, sarcoma, or Wilms tumor
23
Q

Hemangioendothelioma
- Most common benign tumor of the liver in childhood. Occurs in children ____yo.

  • Tx:
    • If pt is without symptoms, no therapy is necessary bc these lesions eventually regress
    • Solitary lesions can be resected if necessary. If the lesion is unresectable or a consumption coagulopathy is present, treat with corticosteroids or propranolol. If there is no response, use vincristine.
A

Hemangioendothelioma
- Most common benign tumor of the liver in childhood. Occurs in children <2yo.

  • Tx:
    • If pt is without symptoms, no therapy is necessary bc these lesions eventually regress
    • Solitary lesions can be resected if necessary. If the lesion is unresectable or a consumption coagulopathy is present, treat with corticosteroids or propranolol. If there is no response, use vincristine.
24
Q

Hepatoblastoma
- Most common liver malignancy of early childhood. Most commonly occurs in ___yo.

  • RF: ____, _____, maternal high pre pregnancy weight, trisomy 18, families with FAP
    • There is an increased risk of hepatoblastoma in pts with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. The serum ______ is markedly elevated in these children and is useful for diagnosis and for monitoring after therapy (for recurrence).
  • Pt: Typically presents as an asymptomatic abdominal mass.
    • Hepatomegaly and usually _____.
    • Low serum AFP is very unfavorable prognostic factor.
  • Tx:
    • Resection is recommended up front if possible.
    • Tx with chemotherapy as well as additional surgery and liver transplant depend on risk group.
A

Hepatoblastoma
- Most common liver malignancy of early childhood. Most commonly occurs in <3yo.

  • RF: Prematurity, Beckwith-Wiedemann, maternal high pre pregnancy weight, trisomy 18, families with FAP
    • There is an increased risk of hepatoblastoma in pts with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. The serum alpha-fetoprotein level is markedly elevated in these children and is useful for diagnosis and for monitoring after therapy (for recurrence).
  • Pt: Typically presents as an asymptomatic abdominal mass.
    • Hepatomegaly and usually significantly elevated AFP.
    • Low serum AFP is very unfavorable prognostic factor.
  • Tx:
    • Resection is recommended up front if possible.
    • Tx with chemotherapy as well as additional surgery and liver transplant depend on risk group.
25
Q

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

  • 2nd most common primary liver malignancy and is the most common occurring in children ___yo (usually adolescent age).
  • RF: Hepatitis B or C infection
  • ½ of patients have _______, and ⅓ have cirrhosis.
  • Tx:
    • Surgical resection is the only curative option, but only ⅓ of these tumors are resectable.
A

Hepatocellular Carcinoma

  • 2nd most common primary liver malignancy and is the most common occurring in children >3yo (usually adolescent age).
  • RF: Hepatitis B or C infection
  • ½ of patients have elevated AFP, and ⅓ have cirrhosis.
  • Tx:
    • Surgical resection is the only curative option, but only ⅓ of these tumors are resectable.
26
Q

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

  • Most common of histiocytosis.
  • Pt:
    • _____ are early signs of LCH.
    • Most frequent presenting sign- _____
      • LCH should be considered when skin lesions in the ____ area and scalp persist despite frontline therapy.
    • Painful _____ lesions, most commonly skull on XR
    • Other sx: ____ (can involve the pituitary stalk, lead to increased thirst/urination), ____
  • On skin biopsy, LCH lesions show a large number of pathologic Langerhans cells, which are accompanied by lymphocytes, macrophages, granulocytes, eosinophils, and multinucleated giant cells.
  • Dx: Confirmed by finding ____ or ____ by immunohistochemistry.
    • ____ are seen on electron microscopy
  • Treatment: Depends on disease characteristics
    • Low risk (100% survival) – only skin lesions – may resolve on own, monitor
    • High risk (80% survival) - In multisystem disease or solitary bone disease in certain “risk” areas, systemic chemotherapy with corticosteroids and vinblastin is indicated.
A

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

  • Most common of histiocytosis.
  • Pt:
    • Gingival hypertrophy and oral ulcers are early signs of LCH.
    • Most frequent presenting sign- Skin rash eruptions in the diaper area or scalp
      • LCH should be considered when skin lesions in the diaper area and scalp persist despite frontline therapy.
    • Painful lytic bone lesions, most commonly skull on XR
    • Other sx: Diabetes insipidus (can involve the pituitary stalk, lead to increased thirst/urination), otitis media
  • On skin biopsy, LCH lesions show a large number of pathologic Langerhans cells, which are accompanied by lymphocytes, macrophages, granulocytes, eosinophils, and multinucleated giant cells.
  • Dx: Confirmed by finding CD1a or CD207 (langerin) by immunohistochemistry.
    • Birbeck granules are seen on electron microscopy
  • Treatment: Depends on disease characteristics
    • Low risk (100% survival) – only skin lesions – may resolve on own, monitor
    • High risk (80% survival) - In multisystem disease or solitary bone disease in certain “risk” areas, systemic chemotherapy with corticosteroids and vinblastin is indicated.
27
Q

Hemophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis
- Path: Due to immune dysregulation.

  • Pt: Ill child + ____ (>⅔ hgb, platelet, neutrophils) + hepatosplenomegaly
    • Suspect in ill children with cytopenias and _____
  • Lab evaluation: Pancytopenia, hyper_____, hyper______ (increased triglycerides), and hypofibrinogenemia (decreased fibrinogen), hemophagocytosis, decreased NK cell activity
  • Diagnosis requires at least 5 of the following criteria
    • 1) Fever
    • 2) Splenomegaly
    • 3) Peripheral blood cytopenia of >2 lineages
    • 4) Hyper______ and/or hypofibrinogenemia
    • 5) Hemophagocytosis without evidence of malignancy in bone marrow, spleen, or lymph nodes
    • 6) Elevated serum _____
    • 7) Low or absent _____ cell activity
    • 8) Elevated soluble ______
  • Tx:
    • 1st line therapy includes dexamethasone and etoposide.
    • Intrathecal methotrexate is given for CNS disease.
    • Bone marrow transplant is indicated for children with primary HLH and children with secondary HLH who are refractory to chemotherapy or relapse.
A

Hemophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis
- Path: Due to immune dysregulation.

  • Pt: Ill child + cytopenia (>⅔ hgb, platelet, neutrophils) + hepatosplenomegaly
    • Suspect in ill children with cytopenias and hepatosplenomegaly
  • Lab evaluation: Pancytopenia, hyperferritinemia, hypertriglyceridemia (increased triglycerides), and hypofibrinogenemia (decreased fibrinogen), hemophagocytosis, decreased NK cell activity
  • Diagnosis requires at least 5 of the following criteria
    • 1) Fever
    • 2) Splenomegaly
    • 3) Peripheral blood cytopenia of >2 lineages
    • 4) Hypertriglyceridemia and/or hypofibrinogenemia
    • 5) Hemophagocytosis without evidence of malignancy in bone marrow, spleen, or lymph nodes
    • 6) Elevated serum ferritin
    • 7) Low or absent natural killer (NK) cell activity
    • 8) Elevated soluble IL-2 receptor (soluble CD25)
  • Tx:
    • 1st line therapy includes dexamethasone and etoposide.
    • Intrathecal methotrexate is given for CNS disease.
    • Bone marrow transplant is indicated for children with primary HLH and children with secondary HLH who are refractory to chemotherapy or relapse.
28
Q

Children with fever must be emergently evaluated for bacterial sepsis and other invasive infection.

  • Initial therapy with an antipseudomonal B-lactam (eg cefepime or ceftazidime), piperacillin-tazobactam, or carbapenem is used. Vancomycin is used when additional gram-positive coverage is needed.
  • Children are at risk for Pneumocystis pneumonia and are prescribed TMP/SMX prophylactically.
A

Children with fever must be emergently evaluated for bacterial sepsis and other invasive infection.

  • Initial therapy with an antipseudomonal B-lactam (eg cefepime or ceftazidime), piperacillin-tazobactam, or carbapenem is used. Vancomycin is used when additional gram-positive coverage is needed.
  • Children are at risk for Pneumocystis pneumonia and are prescribed TMP/SMX prophylactically.
29
Q

Fever with neutropenia

  • Rectal temperatures should be avoided due to risk of intestinal mucosal injury and resulting bleeding infection. The preferred method of thermometry in neutropenic patients is PO,
  • Any fever in a pt with neutropenia should be assumed to be presenting signs of bacteremia until proven otherwise.
  • Tx:
    • The occurrence of even a single fever event in a child with neutropenia is a medical emergency and that child should be considered to have bacteremia until proven otherwise.
    • They should rapidly have their central venous device accessed, have blood cultures sent, and receive broad-spectrum parenteral antibiotics through their central venous device. Initial abx coverage should include common gram-positive and gram-negative organisms, including Pseudomonas. Cefepime is a 4th generation cephalosporin that provides appropriate antibacterial coverage for children with febrile neutropenia.
    • Failure to respond to broad-spectrum antibiotics in a febrile neutropenic pt should alert the clinician to consider coverage for ______ infections, particularly in high-risk patients who continue to have fevers for >___ hours after initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy.
      • High-risk pts include those with AML, those with relapsed acute leukemia, and those who have undergone allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplant.
      • The 2010 IDSA guidelines do not recommend empiric antifungal therapy for low-risk pts.
      • If an occult fungal infection is suspected, the following should also be considered: bloodwork for antifungal serology (galactomannan is preferred in children), CT of the chest and sinuses, and biopsy of any suspicious lesions.
      • Preferred antifungal agents in these patients include lipid formulations of _______ or caspofungin.
A

Fever with neutropenia

  • Rectal temperatures should be avoided due to risk of intestinal mucosal injury and resulting bleeding infection. The preferred method of thermometry in neutropenic patients is PO,
  • Any fever in a pt with neutropenia should be assumed to be presenting signs of bacteremia until proven otherwise.
  • Tx:
    • The occurrence of even a single fever event in a child with neutropenia is a medical emergency and that child should be considered to have bacteremia until proven otherwise.
    • They should rapidly have their central venous device accessed, have blood cultures sent, and receive broad-spectrum parenteral antibiotics through their central venous device. Initial abx coverage should include common gram-positive and gram-negative organisms, including Pseudomonas. Cefepime is a 4th generation cephalosporin that provides appropriate antibacterial coverage for children with febrile neutropenia.
    • Failure to respond to broad-spectrum antibiotics in a febrile neutropenic pt should alert the clinician to consider coverage for fungal infections, particularly in high-risk patients who continue to have fevers for >96 hours after initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy.
      • High-risk pts include those with AML, those with relapsed acute leukemia, and those who have undergone allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplant.
      • The 2010 IDSA guidelines do not recommend empiric antifungal therapy for low-risk pts.
      • If an occult fungal infection is suspected, the following should also be considered: bloodwork for antifungal serology (galactomannan is preferred in children), CT of the chest and sinuses, and biopsy of any suspicious lesions.
      • Preferred antifungal agents in these patients include lipid formulations of amphotericin B (eg liposomal amphotericin B) or caspofungin.
30
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome

  • Medical emergency and describes the metabolic complications of rapid cell lysis noted with initiation of chemotherapy or with high cellular turnover from certain tumors (eg AML with hyperleukocytosis, Burkitt lymphoma, T-cell ALL).
    • ____ is especially high risk for TLS
    • ___&raquo_space; ____
  • Pt:
    • ___kalemia, ___phosphatemia, ___uricemia,____calcemia.
    • Renal insufficiency
  • Prevention:
    • Includes hyperhydration with fluids that don’t contain potassium.
    • Allopurinol, which prevents formation of uric acid, is 1st line medication for the prevention of tumor lysis syndrome.
  • Tx: Aggressive hydration IVF without K, EKG, _____ (breaks down uric acid; ask about G6PD as can cause hemolytic anemia) and/or ____, phosphate binders
A

Tumor lysis syndrome

  • Medical emergency and describes the metabolic complications of rapid cell lysis noted with initiation of chemotherapy or with high cellular turnover from certain tumors (eg AML with hyperleukocytosis, Burkitt lymphoma, T-cell ALL).
    • Burkitt’s lymphoma is especially high risk for TLS
    • ALL&raquo_space; AML
  • Pt:
    • Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, hypocalcemia.
    • Renal insufficiency
  • Prevention:
    • Includes hyperhydration with fluids that don’t contain potassium.
    • Allopurinol, which prevents formation of uric acid, is 1st line medication for the prevention of tumor lysis syndrome.
  • Tx: Aggressive hydration IVF without K, EKG, rasburicase (breaks down uric acid; ask about G6PD as can cause hemolytic anemia) and/or allopurinol, phosphate binders
31
Q

TRANSPLANTS
Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)

  • Occurs as a result of immunosuppression and is usually associated with EBV.
  • Abnormal labs: Anemia, thrombocytopenia, increased LDH level, hypercalcemia, hyperuricemia
  • Dx: Tissue biopsy
A

TRANSPLANTS
Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)

  • Occurs as a result of immunosuppression and is usually associated with EBV.
  • Abnormal labs: Anemia, thrombocytopenia, increased LDH level, hypercalcemia, hyperuricemia
  • Dx: Tissue biopsy
32
Q

Malignancy Treatment Outcomes

  • Nutritional deficiencies are one of the major problems in patients with all types of malignancies
    • Standard practice is to prescribe _____% of daily required intake of estimated energy and protein needs.

Chemotherapy

  • Cancer treatments can lead to infertility in both males and females.
  • Intrathecal chemotherapy is often performed during brain development and can cause neurocognitive changes. Should have a formal neurocognitive assessment.

Radiation therapy

  • The acute effects of therapy (within the first 3 months after therapy begins) are usually related to the area of the body being irradiated. These effects include pneumonitis, dermatitis, mucositis, esophagitis, and cerebral edema.
  • The late effects of therapy are numerous and can include abnormalities in pulmonary function, hearing loss, changes in endocrine function/hormonal dysfunction, reproductive function, second cancers occurring in the affected field, cardiac function, and neurocognitive loss.
  • Survivors of childhood cancer, especially those who receive cranial radiation therapy, are at increased risk of developing metabolic syndrome (overweight, HTN, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia).
A

Malignancy Treatment Outcomes

  • Nutritional deficiencies are one of the major problems in patients with all types of malignancies
    • Standard practice is to prescribe 100-130% of daily required intake of estimated energy and protein needs.

Chemotherapy

  • Cancer treatments can lead to infertility in both males and females.
  • Intrathecal chemotherapy is often performed during brain development and can cause neurocognitive changes. Should have a formal neurocognitive assessment.

Radiation therapy

  • The acute effects of therapy (within the first 3 months after therapy begins) are usually related to the area of the body being irradiated. These effects include pneumonitis, dermatitis, mucositis, esophagitis, and cerebral edema.
  • The late effects of therapy are numerous and can include abnormalities in pulmonary function, hearing loss, changes in endocrine function/hormonal dysfunction, reproductive function, second cancers occurring in the affected field, cardiac function, and neurocognitive loss.
  • Survivors of childhood cancer, especially those who receive cranial radiation therapy, are at increased risk of developing metabolic syndrome (overweight, HTN, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia).
33
Q

Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)

  • Occurs as a result of immunosuppression and is usually associated with _____.
  • Abnormal labs: Anemia, thrombocytopenia, increased ____ level, hypercalcemia, hyperuricemia
  • Dx: Tissue biopsy
A

Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)

  • Occurs as a result of immunosuppression and is usually associated with EBV.
  • Abnormal labs: Anemia, thrombocytopenia, increased LDH level, hypercalcemia, hyperuricemia
  • Dx: Tissue biopsy
34
Q

Kidney Transplant
- The rejection rates of living-donor kidney transplantation are lower as compared to deceased-donor transplant.

  • As a result of these differences, survival rates of living-donor kidney transplantation grafts are higher as compared to deceased-donor graft survival rates.
  • Immunosuppressive medications are continued as long as the kidney graft is functioning
  • In addition to antiHTNive medication, lifestyle changes are recommended to decrease cardiovascular risk factors and improve long-term kidney graft survival.
  • FSGS, MPGN, and atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome can have recurrence in the transplanted kidney and affect long-term graft survival. Recurrence of primary renal disease needs to be monitored.
A

Kidney Transplant
- The rejection rates of living-donor kidney transplantation are lower as compared to deceased-donor transplant.

  • As a result of these differences, survival rates of living-donor kidney transplantation grafts are higher as compared to deceased-donor graft survival rates.
  • Immunosuppressive medications are continued as long as the kidney graft is functioning
  • In addition to antiHTNive medication, lifestyle changes are recommended to decrease cardiovascular risk factors and improve long-term kidney graft survival.
  • FSGS, MPGN, and atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome can have recurrence in the transplanted kidney and affect long-term graft survival. Recurrence of primary renal disease needs to be monitored.
35
Q

Calcineurin inhibitors are commonly used after transplant

  • An important adverse effect of these medications is _____ dysfunction.
  • Can cause _____
  • A. Cyclosporine causes renal toxicity.
    • Tremors, hirsutism, nephro-/hepato-/CNS toxicity, and HTN.
      • ____ causes the most problems.
    • Like phenytoin, _____ the gum (know this side effect!).
  • B. Tacrolimus
    • Same mode of action and a similar profile as cyclosporine, but it is also ____.
    • Tacrolimus is considered less nephrotoxic than cyclosporin and is now prescribed more commonly than cyclosporine as an antirejection drug.
      • An important adverse effect of these medications is renal dysfunction. These medications cause glomerular vascular constriction, interstitial fibrosis, and arterial hyalinosis. Routine testing to monitor renal function is warranted in all patients who receive calcineurin inhibitors
      • Unfortunately, they have several important side effects, including hypertension
      • Raises risk of prolongation of ___ interval
    • More commonly used in children due to lessened hirsutism, lessened gum hypertrophy, and possibly less nephrotoxicity.
A

Calcineurin inhibitors are commonly used after transplant

  • An important adverse effect of these medications is renal dysfunction.
  • Can cause hypertension
  • A. Cyclosporine causes renal toxicity.
    • Tremors, hirsutism, nephro-/hepato-/CNS toxicity, and HTN.
      • Nephrotoxicity causes the most problems.
    • Like phenytoin, hypertrophies the gum (know this side effect!).
  • B. Tacrolimus
    • Same mode of action and a similar profile as cyclosporine, but it is also diabetogenic.
    • Tacrolimus is considered less nephrotoxic than cyclosporin and is now prescribed more commonly than cyclosporine as an antirejection drug.
      • An important adverse effect of these medications is renal dysfunction. These medications cause glomerular vascular constriction, interstitial fibrosis, and arterial hyalinosis. Routine testing to monitor renal function is warranted in all patients who receive calcineurin inhibitors
      • Unfortunately, they have several important side effects, including hypertension
      • Raises risk of prolongation of Q-T interval
    • More commonly used in children due to lessened hirsutism, lessened gum hypertrophy, and possibly less nephrotoxicity.
36
Q

Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)

  • Usually manifests before 2yo
  • RFs: Neurofibromatosis Type 1, Noonan syndrome
  • Pt:
    • Markedly enlarged spleen, modest leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, and elevated fetal hemoglobin.
  • Tx: Allogeneic BMT, with or without pretransplant splenectomy, is the TOC.
A

Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)

  • Usually manifests before 2yo
  • RFs: Neurofibromatosis Type 1, Noonan syndrome
  • Pt:
    • Markedly enlarged spleen, modest leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, and elevated fetal hemoglobin.
  • Tx: Allogeneic BMT, with or without pretransplant splenectomy, is the TOC.