Metabolic Flashcards

1
Q

Inheritance of inborn error of metabolism (IEM)

  • Most IEMs have _____ inheritance
  • Next most common are those that are X-linked
  • Only a few are autosomal dominant (AD) disorders
  • Many of the described diseases are caused by mutations in the mitochondrial genome.
A

Inheritance of inborn error of metabolism (IEM)

  • Most IEMs have autosomal recessive inheritance
  • Next most common are those that are X-linked
  • Only a few are autosomal dominant (AD) disorders
  • Many of the described diseases are caused by mutations in the mitochondrial genome.
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2
Q

Inborn error of metabolism (IEM)

  • IEM intoxications are caused by upstream or accessory pathway buildup of toxic chemicals:
    • 1) Disorders of amino acid metabolism
    • 2) Urea cycle disorders
    • 3) Organic acidemias
    • 4) Sugar intolerance
  • Pt:
    • Brief symptom-free period after birth, followed by rapid decompensation, leading to lethargy, seizures, coma, and potentially death within the first week after birth
    • _______ is a serious red flag
    • Clinical presentations of IEM intoxications can be characterized as:
      • Acute encephalopathy
        • Suspect IEM intoxication if acute encephalopathy occurs without warning in previously normal neonates or young infants and progresses rapidly.
          • Most are NORMAL AT BIRTH, following uneventful pregnancies.
        • Symptoms: Unexplained seizures, coma, lethargy, hypertonia, hypotonia
          • Because of the acute onset, focal neurologic deficits are usually NOT present
        • Key strategy in acute phase:
          • 1) Stop catabolism by providing adequate calories and
          • 2) Dilute toxins and promote excretion with generous hydration
      • Chronic encephalopathy
        • Pt: Slowly progressive manner as toxic metabolites build up. The symptoms are not immediately life-threatening; however, this usually changes over time as more and more damage occurs.
      • Acid-base disturbances
        • Due to either accumulation of fixed anions or loss of bicarbonate (almost always due to renal tubular dysfunction)
A

Inborn error of metabolism (IEM)

  • IEM intoxications are caused by upstream or accessory pathway buildup of toxic chemicals:
    • 1) Disorders of amino acid metabolism
    • 2) Urea cycle disorders
    • 3) Organic acidemias
    • 4) Sugar intolerance
  • Pt:
    • Brief symptom-free period after birth, followed by rapid decompensation, leading to lethargy, seizures, coma, and potentially death within the first week after birth
    • Developmental regression is a serious red flag
    • Clinical presentations of IEM intoxications can be characterized as:
      • Acute encephalopathy
        • Suspect IEM intoxication if acute encephalopathy occurs without warning in previously normal neonates or young infants and progresses rapidly.
          • Most are NORMAL AT BIRTH, following uneventful pregnancies.
        • Symptoms: Unexplained seizures, coma, lethargy, hypertonia, hypotonia
          • Because of the acute onset, focal neurologic deficits are usually NOT present
        • Key strategy in acute phase:
          • 1) Stop catabolism by providing adequate calories and
          • 2) Dilute toxins and promote excretion with generous hydration
      • Chronic encephalopathy
        • Pt: Slowly progressive manner as toxic metabolites build up. The symptoms are not immediately life-threatening; however, this usually changes over time as more and more damage occurs.
      • Acid-base disturbances
        • Due to either accumulation of fixed anions or loss of bicarbonate (almost always due to renal tubular dysfunction)
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3
Q

When differentiating between patients, the first step is to obtain an ammonia level, blood gas, and BMP.
- If the pt has a high anion gap present, the pt has _____ (elevated ___ and elevated ____)

  • If the anion gap is normal, look at the ____ level.
    • If the ammonia is normal, the pt has ___ or one of the ___.
    • If ammonia is high, they have ___ disorder (_____ is a clue).
A

When differentiating between patients, the first step is to obtain an ammonia level, blood gas, and BMP.
- If the pt has a high anion gap present, the pt has organic acidemia (elevated ammonia and elevated urine organic acids)

  • If the anion gap is normal, look at the ammonia level.
    • If the ammonia is normal, the pt has galactosemia or one of the aminoacidurias.
    • If ammonia is high, they have urea cycle disorder (respiratory alkalosis is a clue).
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4
Q

ORGANIC ACIDEMIA (aka organic acidurias)

  • Group of rare inherited disorders caused by a defect in specific enzymes that process proteins
  • For the most part are _____inheritance? disorders.
  • Kidneys clear most organic acids, so it is easiest to examine the _____ for these disorders - which is why these disorders are also called organic acidurias.
  • Dx: The diagnosis is strongly suggested by elevated serum ____ level and increased excretion of organic acids in the ____.
  • If patient has a high anion gap present, the pt has one of the organic acidemias.
A

ORGANIC ACIDEMIA (aka organic acidurias)

  • Group of rare inherited disorders caused by a defect in specific enzymes that process proteins
  • For the most part are AR disorders.
  • Kidneys clear most organic acids, so it is easiest to examine the URINE for these disorders - which is why these disorders are also called organic acidurias.
  • Dx: The diagnosis is strongly suggested by elevated serum ammonia level and increased excretion of organic acids in the urine.
  • If patient has a high anion gap present, the pt has one of the organic acidemias.
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5
Q

Glutaric acidemia Type 1
- Path: ____inheritance? enzyme defect of riboflavin-dependent ____ in the catabolic pathway of lysine, hydroxylysine, tryptophan.

  • Pt:
    • _____ at birth but generally have normal development until they have a febrile illness or metabolic stressor, at which time they suddenly develop hypotonia and dystonia.
    • Rarely presents in newborn period. Affected children have metabolic decompensation with ketoacidosis, hyperammonemia, hypoglycemia, and encephalopathy during the 1st year or later, often accompanied by infection and fever. Typically have microencephalic macrocephaly (earliest sign of GA1).
  • This is the 1 metabolic disease that can cause ___ and ____, which can be mistaken for ____.
  • CT/MRI shows frontal and cortical atrophy at birth
  • Dx: ____ organic acids test shows increased excretion of ___ and ___ acids.
  • Tx:
    • ______, riboflavin (cofactor of GCDH), and a special diet.
    • Rapid implementation of IVFs containing glucose
A

Glutaric acidemia Type 1
- Path: AR enzyme defect of riboflavin-dependent glutaryl-CoA dehydrogenase (GCDH) in the catabolic pathway of lysine, hydroxylysine, tryptophan.

  • Pt:
    • Macrocephaly at birth but generally have normal development until they have a febrile illness or metabolic stressor, at which time they suddenly develop hypotonia and dystonia.
    • Rarely presents in newborn period. Affected children have metabolic decompensation with ketoacidosis, hyperammonemia, hypoglycemia, and encephalopathy during the 1st year or later, often accompanied by infection and fever. Typically have microencephalic macrocephaly (earliest sign of GA1).
  • This is the 1 metabolic disease that can cause subdural hematomas and retinal hemorrhages, which can be mistaken for child abuse.
  • CT/MRI shows frontal and cortical atrophy at birth
  • Dx: Urine organic acids test shows increased excretion of glutaric and 3-hydroxyglutaric acids.
  • Tx:
    • L-carnitine, riboflavin (cofactor of GCDH), and a special diet.
    • Rapid implementation of IVFs containing glucose
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6
Q

Propionic acidemia

  • ___inheritance?
  • Path: Deficiency in _____
    • A mnemonic to remember these amino acids is ____ - which is what kids with PA do when they get sick
  • Pt:
    • Early neonatal period, present as severe ketoacidosis with or without hyperammonemia.
    • A milder presentation is ketoacidosis precipitated by infection or vomiting.
  • Labs
    • Metabolic ketoacidosis with a high anion gap
    • Hyperammonemia
    • Ketonuria
    • Cytopenias
    • Hypoglycemia
  • Newborn screen: Elevated _____
  • Dx: Urine organic acids with large amounts of ___ and ____.
    • Testing of urine organic acids is recommended in children who are either symptomatic or identified on NBS. An elevated 3-hydroxypropionate level and the presence of methylcitrate.
  • Tx:
    • Restricting ____ in the diet (usually <1g/kg/day) and giving formula devoid of isoleucine, valine, methionine, and threonine.
    • ____ is usually required for supplementation to increase excretion of propionyl-CoA
A

Propionic acidemia

  • AR
  • Path: Deficiency in propionyl-CoA carboxylase
    • A mnemonic to remember these amino acids is VoMIT - which is what kids with PA do when they get sick
  • Pt:
    • Early neonatal period, present as severe ketoacidosis with or without hyperammonemia.
    • A milder presentation is ketoacidosis precipitated by infection or vomiting.
  • Labs
    • Metabolic ketoacidosis with a high anion gap
    • Hyperammonemia
    • Ketonuria
    • Cytopenias
    • Hypoglycemia
  • Newborn screen: Elevated C3 acylcarnitine / propionylcarnitine
  • Dx: Urine organic acids with large amounts of 3-hydroxypropionic and methylcitric acids.
    • Testing of urine organic acids is recommended in children who are either symptomatic or identified on NBS. An elevated 3-hydroxypropionate level and the presence of methylcitrate.
  • Tx:
    • Restricting protein in the diet (usually <1g/kg/day) and giving formula devoid of isoleucine, valine, methionine, and threonine.
    • Carnitine is usually required for supplementation to increase excretion of propionyl-CoA
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7
Q

Methylmalonic acidemias
- Path: These either affect ____activity or interfere with the formation of ____

  • Pt:
    • Present early usually in first 2 weeks of life with hyperammonemia, ketoacidosis, and thrombocytopenia - or later with chronic ketotic hyperglycinemia, vomiting, and FTT.
    • A late-onset complication is renal failure of uncertain origin, and cardiomyopathy can also occur.
  • Dx: Organic acid analysis of urine, which shows increased methylmalonic acid and abnormal ketone bodies.
    • ______ is also present if the pt has the enzyme deficit in the pathway that blocks the synthesis of methyl-B12, resulting in increased methylmalonic acid and increased levels of homocysteine.
  • Tx:
    • Restricting dietary ____.
    • ____ is useful
    • If the pt has both methylmalonic aciduria and homocystinuria, treat with ____ (which provides another methyl donor for the conversion of homocysteine to methionine) and IM ____
A

Methylmalonic acidemias
- Path: These either affect methylmalonyl-CoA mutase activity or interfere with the formation of cobalamin (vitamin B12).

  • Pt:
    • Present early usually in first 2 weeks of life with hyperammonemia, ketoacidosis, and thrombocytopenia - or later with chronic ketotic hyperglycinemia, vomiting, and FTT.
    • A late-onset complication is renal failure of uncertain origin, and cardiomyopathy can also occur.
  • Dx: Organic acid analysis of urine, which shows increased methylmalonic acid and abnormal ketone bodies.
    • Homocystinuria is also present if the pt has the enzyme deficit in the pathway that blocks the synthesis of methyl-B12, resulting in increased methylmalonic acid and increased levels of homocysteine.
  • Tx:
    • Restricting dietary protein.
    • Carnitine is useful
    • If the pt has both methylmalonic aciduria and homocystinuria, treat with betaine (which provides another methyl donor for the conversion of homocysteine to methionine) and IM vitamin B12.
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8
Q
Isovaleric Acidemia (IVA)
- \_\_\_inheritance?
  • Path: Defect in the 3rd step of _____ metabolism. Enzyme defect is in _____.
  • Pt:
    • Suspect with newborn with the_____, esp if the infant has encephalopathy
    • Can present in newborn period with acute episode of severe HAGMA and moderate ketosis with vomiting
  • Dx: Urine organic acids.
  • Tx:
    • Acute setting is aimed at acidosis, which responds to IV glucose and bicarbonate.
    • Center long-term tx of restricting ____ intake and prescribing ____ and/or glycine to increase conversion of isovaleryl-CoA to isovalerylglycine, which is excreted easily.
A
Isovaleric Acidemia (IVA)
- AR disorder
  • Path: Defect in the 3rd step of leucine metabolism. Enzyme defect is in isovaleryl-CoA dehydrogenase.
  • Pt:
    • Suspect with newborn with the odor of sweaty feet, esp if the infant has encephalopathy
    • Can present in newborn period with acute episode of severe HAGMA and moderate ketosis with vomiting
  • Dx: Urine organic acids.
  • Tx:
    • Acute setting is aimed at acidosis, which responds to IV glucose and bicarbonate.
    • Center long-term tx of restricting leucine intake and prescribing carnitine and/or glycine to increase conversion of isovaleryl-CoA to isovalerylglycine, which is excreted easily.
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9
Q

3-Methylcrotonyl-CoA Carboxylase Deficiency

  • ____inheritance? disorder
  • Path: Defect in the 4th step of ____ metabolism. The biotin-containing enzyme, 3_____, is missing
  • Dx: Urine organic acid analysis, which shows increased excretion of ____ and _____
  • Tx:
    • Acute tx: IV ___, fluids, and electrolytes
    • Long-term therapy: Oral ____ to correct carnitine deficiency
A

3-Methylcrotonyl-CoA Carboxylase Deficiency

  • AR disorder
  • Path: Defect in the 4th step of leucine metabolism. The biotin-containing enzyme, 3-methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase, is missing
  • Dx: Urine organic acid analysis, which shows increased excretion of 3-methylcrotonylglycine and 3-hydroxyisovaleric acid
  • Tx:
    • Acute tx: IV glucose, fluids, and electrolytes
    • Long-term therapy: Oral carnitine to correct carnitine deficiency
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10
Q

Multiple Carboxylase Deficiency

  • 2 disorders associated with ____ deficiency or inability to incorporate biotin:
    • Biotinidase deficiency
    • Holocarboxylase synthetase deficiency
  • Pt: Classic triad of carboxylase deficiency: ____, ___, and ____.
  • Dx: Analyzing urine organic acid and finding increased _____ and ____ with lactic acids.
  • Tx: Free ___ 5-20mg/day
A

Multiple Carboxylase Deficiency

  • 2 disorders associated with biotin deficiency or inability to incorporate biotin:
    • Biotinidase deficiency
    • Holocarboxylase synthetase deficiency
  • Pt: Classic triad of carboxylase deficiency: Encephalopathy, alopecia, and skin rash.
  • Dx: Analyzing urine organic acid and finding increased 3-methylcrotonylglycine and 3-hydroxyisovaleric acid with lactic acids.
  • Tx: Free biotin 5-20mg/day
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11
Q

Phenylketonuria/ Phenylalanine Hydroxylase (PAH) Deficiency
- ____inheritance?

  • Most common cause: Mutation in ____, which helps convert ____ to ____, leading to elevated levels of amino acid ____, low ___ levels
  • Pt:
    • Most common presentation: ______ body odor (due to phenylacetic acid in the urine), eczematous rash, vomiting, irritability. ______ involving skin, hair (fair haired and fair skinned), eye, brain nuclei
    • For those who remain untreated, severe _____ regression
  • Dx:
    • Most discovered through Newborn screening
    • Additional testing is warranted to confirm suspected diagnosis of PKU, which should include Serum Quantitative amino acid analysis (increased plasma amino acid phenylalanine levels, typically >1000umol/L) (without increased tyrosine)
  • Tx:
    • Treatment involves implementation as soon as possible after birth.
      • Indefinite dietary restriction of _____ (<500mg/day) and low-protein and supplemental intake of _____
      • During infancy, breastmilk is encouraged along with low-protein diet with _____-free medical formula.
      • Regular blood work for phenylalanine levels must be conducted indefinitely, regardless if normalize
  • Inadequate management at any point in life can lead to irreversible intellectual development / cognitive impairment.
  • Maternal PKU During pregnancy
    • Infants do not actually have PKU, but they can have growth deficiency, microcephaly, intellectual disability, and congenital heart defects (similar to fetal alcohol syndrome)
    • Woman with PKU should maintain phenylalanine-restricted diet for several months prior to conception and continuing through the pregnancy, with preferred phenylalanine levels 120-360 umol/L (2-6mg/dL)
      • If woman with PKU is planning to become pregnant, it is rec to maintain PHE levels <6mg/dl at least 3mo before attempting to conceive
      • A woman with phenylketonuria that is poorly controlled (levels consistently >____umol/L) during pregnancy will be at highest risk for having a child with ________
A

Phenylketonuria/ Phenylalanine Hydroxylase (PAH) Deficiency
- AR

  • Most common cause: Mutation in phenylalanine hydroxylase, which helps convert phenylalanine to tyrosine, leading to elevated levels of amino acid phenylalanine (Phe), low tyrosine levels
  • Pt:
    • Most common presentation: Musty “mousy” “wolflike” body odor (due to phenylacetic acid in the urine), eczematous rash, vomiting, irritability. Hypopigmentation involving skin, hair (fair haired and fair skinned), eye, brain nuclei
    • For those who remain untreated, severe intellectual disability/developmental regression
  • Dx:
    • Most discovered through Newborn screening
    • Additional testing is warranted to confirm suspected diagnosis of PKU, which should include Serum Quantitative amino acid analysis (increased plasma amino acid phenylalanine levels, typically >1000umol/L) (without increased tyrosine)
  • Tx:
    • Treatment involves implementation as soon as possible after birth.
      • Indefinite dietary restriction of phenylalanine (<500mg/day) and low-protein and supplemental intake of tyrosine
      • During infancy, breastmilk is encouraged along with low-protein diet with phenylalanine(Phe)-free medical formula.
      • Regular blood work for phenylalanine levels must be conducted indefinitely, regardless if normalize
  • Inadequate management at any point in life can lead to irreversible intellectual development / cognitive impairment.
  • Maternal PKU During pregnancy
    • Infants do not actually have PKU, but they can have growth deficiency, microcephaly, intellectual disability, and congenital heart defects (similar to fetal alcohol syndrome)
    • Woman with PKU should maintain phenylalanine-restricted diet for several months prior to conception and continuing through the pregnancy, with preferred phenylalanine levels 120-360 umol/L (2-6mg/dL)
      • If woman with PKU is planning to become pregnant, it is rec to maintain PHE levels <6mg/dl at least 3mo before attempting to conceive
      • A woman with phenylketonuria that is poorly controlled (levels consistently >360umol/L) during pregnancy will be at highest risk for having a child with intellectual disability
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12
Q

Hyperphenylalaninemia
- Are without classic PKU but have elevated levels of Phe in the blood.

  • Path:
    • Most have a milder deficiency of the PAH enzyme and can tolerate higher amounts of Phe
    • A subset of pts has a defect in the synthesis or recycling of biopterin.
      • Pt: Neurologic symptoms that progress despite dietary tx that maintain normal Phe levels.
  • Pt: Severe _____ disease with marked hypotonia, spasticity, and posturing.
  • Tx: ____ restriction and supplementation of ______ and biogenic amine precursor (ie 5-hydroxytryptophan and dopa)
A

Hyperphenylalaninemia
- Are without classic PKU but have elevated levels of Phe in the blood.

  • Path:
    • Most have a milder deficiency of the PAH enzyme and can tolerate higher amounts of Phe
    • A subset of pts has a defect in the synthesis or recycling of biopterin.
      • Pt: Neurologic symptoms that progress despite dietary tx that maintain normal Phe levels.
  • Pt: Severe neurologic disease with marked hypotonia, spasticity, and posturing.
  • Tx: Phe restriction and supplementation of biopterin and biogenic amine precursor (ie 5-hydroxytryptophan and dopa)
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13
Q

Tyrosinemia
- Group of disorders in which blood tyrosine levels are elevated.

- Transient tyrosinemia - Most common form, particularly in premature infants.

- Hereditary tyrosinemia type 1 (Hepatorenal tyrosinemia)
    - \_\_\_\_inheritance?
    - Path: Due to deficiency of \_\_\_\_\_\_. Severe symptoms result from accumulation of succinylacetone 
    - Common in French-Canadian population
    - Pt:
        - FTT, hepatomegaly with\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  that progress to hepatoblastomas, and liver failure are the most common presentations. These infants are NOT \_\_\_\_\_. They have \_\_\_\_ resembling Fanconi syndrome as well as XR findings of rickets. 
    - Dx: Elevated plasma \_\_\_\_ levels, but the definitive diagnostic finding is \_\_\_\_ in the urine.
    - Tx:
        - Pts must be on a diet low in \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_. 
        - \_\_\_\_\_ (NTBC), which blocks tyrosine metabolism before the fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase enzyme, which prevents the accumulation of toxic metabolites (ie succinylacetone).

- Tyrosinemia Type 2 (Richner-Hanhart syndrome; oculocutaneous tyrosinemia)
    - AR
    - Pt:
        - Corneal ulcers or dendritic keratitis, along with red papular or keratotic lesions on their palms and soles. 
            - \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_ lesions are from deposition of tyrosine itself. 
        - Do not have liver toxicity seen in Type I disease since they do not build up succinylacetone. 
    - Tx: Diet low in tyrosine, but even this is not always curative.

- Tyrosinemia Type 3
    - AR
    - Pt: Can have intellectual disability
    - Tx: Respond well to a diet low in tyrosine.
A

Tyrosinemia
- Group of disorders in which blood tyrosine levels are elevated.

- Transient tyrosinemia - Most common form, particularly in premature infants.

- Hereditary tyrosinemia type 1 (Hepatorenal tyrosinemia)
    - AR
    - Path: Due to deficiency of fumarylacetoacetate hydroxylase. Severe symptoms result from accumulation of succinylacetone 
    - Common in French-Canadian population
    - Pt:
        - FTT, hepatomegaly with hepatic adenomas that progress to hepatoblastomas, and liver failure are the most common presentations. These infants are NOT intellectual disabled. They have renal tubular acidosis resembling Fanconi syndrome as well as XR findings of rickets. 
    - Dx: Elevated plasma tyrosine levels, but the definitive diagnostic finding is succinylacetone in the urine.
    - Tx:
        - Pts must be on a diet low in tyrosine and Phe. 
        - Nitisinone (NTBC), which blocks tyrosine metabolism before the fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase enzyme, which prevents the accumulation of toxic metabolites (ie succinylacetone).

- Tyrosinemia Type 2 (Richner-Hanhart syndrome; oculocutaneous tyrosinemia)
    - AR
    - Pt:
        - Corneal ulcers or dendritic keratitis, along with red papular or keratotic lesions on their palms and soles. 
            - Eye and skin lesions are from deposition of tyrosine itself. 
        - Do not have liver toxicity seen in Type I disease since they do not build up succinylacetone. 
    - Tx: Diet low in tyrosine, but even this is not always curative.

- Tyrosinemia Type 3
    - AR
    - Pt: Can have intellectual disability
    - Tx: Respond well to a diet low in tyrosine.
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14
Q

Alkaptonuria
- Path: Deficiency in _____, which is the 3rd step in _____ metabolism. Causes an accumulation of homogentisic acid; however, blood levels of tyrosine are ______!

  • Pt:
    • By the time in the 30s, adults start to have pigment deposition in the ears and sclerae (ochronosis). Later, ______ can occur, which is the major medical complication of the disorder.
    • Excretion of_____ urine is the classic finding.
A

Alkaptonuria
- Path: Deficiency in homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase, which is the 3rd step in tyrosine metabolism. Causes an accumulation of homogentisic acid; however, blood levels of tyrosine are not elevated!

  • Pt:
    • By the time in the 30s, adults start to have pigment deposition in the ears and sclerae (ochronosis). Later, ochronosis arthritis can occur, which is the major medical complication of the disorder.
    • Excretion of dark-colored urine is the classic finding.
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15
Q

Maple syrup urine disease - branched chain bc high valine, leucine, isoleucine
- AR

  • Path: Deficiency in branched-chain _____ complex. Defect in the oxidative decarboxylation of keto-acids (ketoacids smell sweet), which are formed by catabolism of the branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs).
  • Pt:
    • Classic MSUD: _____ disease early in infancy, and the urine (or hair or skin) smells like _____. Infants are well at birth but start having symptoms 3-5 days with rapid progression to death in 2-4 weeks without treatment. Babies have feeding difficulties, irregular respirations, or loss of the Moro reflex.
  • Labs:
    • Elevated branched-chain amino acid BCAAs (___, ___, ___) in the plasma and urine
    • Finding _____, an abnormal amino acid, is diagnostic for MSUD
  • Tx: Dietary restriction of ___, __, and ___.
A

Maple syrup urine disease - branched chain bc high valine, leucine, isoleucine
- AR

  • Path: Deficiency in branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex. Defect in the oxidative decarboxylation of keto-acids (ketoacids smell sweet), which are formed by catabolism of the branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs).
  • Pt:
    • Classic MSUD: CNS disease early in infancy, and the urine (or hair or skin) smells like maple syrup. Infants are well at birth but start having symptoms 3-5 days with rapid progression to death in 2-4 weeks without treatment. Babies have feeding difficulties, irregular respirations, or loss of the Moro reflex.
  • Labs:
    • Elevated branched-chain amino acid BCAAs (isoleucine, leucine, valine) in the plasma and urine
    • Finding alloisoleucine, an abnormal amino acid, is diagnostic for MSUD
  • Tx: Dietary restriction of leucine, isoleucine, and valine.
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16
Q

Homocystinuria (Cystathionine B-synthase (CBS) deficiency) - thromboses, marfanoid features, intellectual disability
- ____inheritance? disorder

  • All diseases cause elevated levels of _____.
  • Pts with ______ deficiency have _____ habitus (tall, long thin limbs, joint hyperlaxity, chest deformities), developmental delay, lens dislocation, and an increased risk of thromboembolism in both arteries and veins.
    • Suspect homocystinuria in a child with subluxation/dislocation of the ocular lens. Lenticular subluxation is usually _____ and medial.
    • Looks like Marfans but HC has stroke or MI and DOWNWARD subluxation of lens
    • Only homocystinuria: ___, ___, ___
    • Intellectual disability is _____ common. (DOWN = low IQ)
    • Joints are limited in mobility (not hypermobile as in Marfan syndrome)
  • Vascular events are the primary cause of morbidity and mortality in CBS deficiency
  • Dx:
    • Initial testing for dx: Amino acid screening of plasma and urine to check for excess homocysteine or methionine levels.
      • Increased total plasma ___ level, in conjunction with an elevated ____ level on serum amino acid analysis
    • Confirmatory testing with detection of biallelic pathogenic mutations demonstrates a decreased level of activity of _____ in fibroblasts.
  • Tx:
    • Large doses of ______ cause a decrease in the total plasma homocysteine levels (in the vitamin-responsive form).
    • Affected individuals also require a diet low in ______ (which gets broken down into homocysteine).
A

Homocystinuria (Cystathionine B-synthase (CBS) deficiency) - thromboses, marfanoid features, intellectual disability
- AR disorder

  • All diseases cause elevated levels of homocysteine.
  • Pts with cystathionine B-synthase deficiency have marfanoid habitus (tall, long thin limbs, joint hyperlaxity, chest deformities), developmental delay, lens dislocation, and an increased risk of thromboembolism in both arteries and veins.
    • Suspect homocystinuria in a child with subluxation/dislocation of the ocular lens. Lenticular subluxation is usually DOWNWARD and medial.
    • Looks like Marfans but HC has stroke or MI and DOWNWARD subluxation of lens
    • Only homocystinuria: fair hair and eyes, developmental delay, cerebrovascular accidentals
    • Intellectual disability is fairly common. (DOWN = low IQ)
    • Joints are limited in mobility (not hypermobile as in Marfan syndrome)
  • Vascular events are the primary cause of morbidity and mortality in CBS deficiency
  • Dx:
    • Initial testing for dx: Amino acid screening of plasma and urine to check for excess homocysteine or methionine levels.
      • Increased total plasma homocysteine level, in conjunction with an elevated methionine level on serum amino acid analysis
    • Confirmatory testing with detection of biallelic pathogenic mutations demonstrates a decreased level of activity of cystathionine B-synthase in fibroblasts.
  • Tx:
    • Large doses of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) cause a decrease in the total plasma homocysteine levels (in the vitamin-responsive form).
    • Affected individuals also require a diet low in methionine (which gets broken down into homocysteine).
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17
Q

Glycine and Oxalate Abnormalities - Nonketotic Hyperglycemia
- ____inheritance? inborn error of metabolism in which large amounts of glycine build up

  • Pt: Classic form - Intractable _____ in the neonatal period requiring intubation or as hiccups in utero
  • Dx: Increased ratio of CSF ___ to serum __.
  • Tx: _____ seems to reduce CSF glycine levels and decrease seizures.
A

Glycine and Oxalate Abnormalities - Nonketotic Hyperglycemia
- AR inborn error of metabolism in which large amounts of glycine build up

  • Pt: Classic form - Intractable seizures in the neonatal period requiring intubation or as hiccups in utero
  • Dx: Increased ratio of CSF glycine to serum glycine.
  • Tx: Sodium benzoate seems to reduce CSF glycine levels and decrease seizures.
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18
Q

UREA CYCLE DISORDERS = high ammonia + normal anion gap + resp alkalosis

  • a) N-acetylglutamate synthetase (NAGS) deficiency
  • b) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1 (CPS1) deficiency - Severe disorder
  • c) Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency: High levels of urinary orotic acid - most common; X-linked; Severe disorder
  • d) Argininosuccinate synthetase (AS) deficiency (Citrullinemia)
  • e) Argininosuccinate lyase (AL) deficiency - accumulation of argininosuccinic acid with argininosuccinic aciduria
  • f) Arginase deficiency (Argininemia)
  • All of the urea cycle disorders have ____ inheritance, except for ____ deficiency, which is _____ inheritance (and is also the most common!)
  • Path:
    • Deficiencies of 1 of 4 enzymes within urea cycle which is responsible for the breakdown of nitrogen.
    • Bad effects of not breaking down NH4 are increases in ammonia (NH3) and glycine, both of which easily pass the blood-brain barrier and have a very toxic effect on the brain.
  • Pt:
    • Within 48-72 hours, neonates will develop ____ alkalosis, ____ammonemia, and cerebral edema, which presents initially with fatigue and poor feeding but can progress to seizures, hypothermia, posturing, and coma
  • With either CPS1 or OTC deficiency, plasma ammonia levels can be >1000umol/L (normal <35umol/L). In addition to elevated ammonia levels, a key diagnostic clue is that these infants usually have a ______, not a metabolic acidosis, as would be expected with sepsis or other metabolic disorders.
  • Dx:
    • Once clinically suspect, order ammonia level, quantitative plasma amino acid analysis, and urinary organic acids to establish the specific defect in urea synthesis.
      • Glutamine, alanine, and asparagine are elevated - bc they are storage forms for nitrogen, which cannot be excreted.
      • Citrulline is absent or very low in proximal disorders such as OTC and CPS1 defects - bc citrulline is the direct product of these reactions.
      • Orotic acid is a byproduct of the OTC-catalyzed reaction and is a very sensitive indicator of OTC deficiency. It helps differentiate between OTC and CPS1 deficiency (low-undetectable levels)
      • Plasma arginine concentration is low in all urea cycle defects except for argininemia (ie arginase deficiency). Without replacement, affected individuals have hair fragility and rash.
  • Tx: Acute treatment centers on volume replacement with D10W, restricting dietary protein, minimizing catabolism and enhancing anabolism, replacing deficient amino acids, and pushing alternative pathways to eliminate nitrogen waste.
    • Medical emergency needs immediate recognition and tx to avoid irreversible brain damage
      • Immediate administration of IV ________ is indicated, as this will promote nitrogen excretion via alternative pathways.
      • Pushing alternative pathways is done with IV solution of sodium benzoate-sodium phenylacetate.
      • Any neonate with severe hyperammonemia requires emergent _____.
    • Long-term management:
      • High-caloric, _____ restriction
A

UREA CYCLE DISORDERS = high ammonia + normal anion gap + resp alkalosis

  • a) N-acetylglutamate synthetase (NAGS) deficiency
  • b) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1 (CPS1) deficiency - Severe disorder
  • c) Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency: High levels of urinary orotic acid - most common; X-linked; Severe disorder
  • d) Argininosuccinate synthetase (AS) deficiency (Citrullinemia)
  • e) Argininosuccinate lyase (AL) deficiency - accumulation of argininosuccinic acid with argininosuccinic aciduria
  • f) Arginase deficiency (Argininemia)
  • All of the urea cycle disorders have AR inheritance, except for OTC deficiency, which is X-linked inheritance (and is also the most common!)
  • Path:
    • Deficiencies of 1 of 4 enzymes within urea cycle which is responsible for the breakdown of nitrogen.
    • Bad effects of not breaking down NH4 are increases in ammonia (NH3) and glycine, both of which easily pass the blood-brain barrier and have a very toxic effect on the brain.
  • Pt:
    • Within 48-72 hours, neonates will develop respiratory alkalosis, hyperammonemia, and cerebral edema, which presents initially with fatigue and poor feeding but can progress to seizures, hypothermia, posturing, and coma
  • With either CPS1 or OTC deficiency, plasma ammonia levels can be >1000umol/L (normal <35umol/L). In addition to elevated ammonia levels, a key diagnostic clue is that these infants usually have a respiratory alkalosis, not a metabolic acidosis, as would be expected with sepsis or other metabolic disorders.
  • Dx:
    • Once clinically suspect, order ammonia level, quantitative plasma amino acid analysis, and urinary organic acids to establish the specific defect in urea synthesis.
      • Glutamine, alanine, and asparagine are elevated - bc they are storage forms for nitrogen, which cannot be excreted.
      • Citrulline is absent or very low in proximal disorders such as OTC and CPS1 defects - bc citrulline is the direct product of these reactions.
      • Orotic acid is a byproduct of the OTC-catalyzed reaction and is a very sensitive indicator of OTC deficiency. It helps differentiate between OTC and CPS1 deficiency (low-undetectable levels)
      • Plasma arginine concentration is low in all urea cycle defects except for argininemia (ie arginase deficiency). Without replacement, affected individuals have hair fragility and rash.
  • Tx: Acute treatment centers on volume replacement with D10W, restricting dietary protein, minimizing catabolism and enhancing anabolism, replacing deficient amino acids, and pushing alternative pathways to eliminate nitrogen waste.
    • Medical emergency needs immediate recognition and tx to avoid irreversible brain damage
      • Immediate administration of IV arginine hydrochloride is indicated, as this will promote nitrogen excretion via alternative pathways.
      • Pushing alternative pathways is done with IV solution of sodium benzoate-sodium phenylacetate.
      • Any neonate with severe hyperammonemia requires emergent hemodialysis.
    • Long-term management:
      • High-caloric, Protein restriction
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19
Q

Galactosemia / Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyltransferase (GALT) Deficiency
- ____inheritance??

  • Path: Deficiency of enzyme ____, causing ____ to be metabolized poorly or not at all. Galactose and its molecules then build up in cells and tissues, esp the liver, kidneys, and brain.
  • Pt:
    • Combination of:
      • Jaundice
      • Hepatosplenomegaly
      • C______. May resolve if lactose-free formula is initiated shortly after birth
      • Irritability
      • Hypoglycemia
      • Cirrhosis
      • Intellectual disability
      • Vomiting
      • Seizures
      • Lethargy
      • Poor weight gain
      • Vitreous hemorrhage
      • Ascites
    • ____ failure, feeding problems, FTT/poor weight gain, bilateral ____, ____glycemia, bleeding, jaundice, and _____ sepsis.
  • Abnormal lab tests: Liver dysfunction (hyperbilirubinemia, abnormal liver function test results, coagulopathy), metabolic acidosis, galactosuria (indicated by presence of reducing substances in the urine), and hemolytic anemia
  • Suspect disorder in pts with galactosemia symptoms or when you discover a reducing substance in urine while the pt is drinking breast milk, cow’s milk, or formula containing lactose.
  • Dx:
    • Nearly 100% infants are detected by newborn screening.
    • Definitive diagnosis requires deficient activity of ___ in RBCs or other tissues while also showing an increased concentration of ____.
      • Detection of elevated erythrocyte_____ concentration, reduced erythrocyte galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (GALT) enzyme activity, and biallelic gene mutations in the GALT gene
  • Tx
    • _____ formula and discontinue breastfeeding. Imperative within the first ____ days after birth to abate the symptoms and reduce the risk of long-term complications
      • All ______ foods should be removed from the diet, which includes breastfeeding and formula.
      • Symptoms will quickly resolve with lactose-restricted diet in the first 2 weeks after birth.
        • Elimination of lactose and galactose from the diet reverses growth failure and renal/hepatic problems. Even cataracts regress
A

Galactosemia / Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyltransferase (GALT) Deficiency
- AR

  • Path: Deficiency of enzyme GALT, causing galactose to be metabolized poorly or not at all. Galactose and its molecules then build up in cells and tissues, esp the liver, kidneys, and brain.
  • Pt:
    • Combination of:
      • Jaundice
      • Hepatosplenomegaly
      • Cataracts- Cataracts, a lens opacity. May resolve if lactose-free formula is initiated shortly after birth
      • Irritability
      • Hypoglycemia
      • Cirrhosis
      • Intellectual disability
      • Vomiting
      • Seizures
      • Lethargy
      • Poor weight gain
      • Vitreous hemorrhage
      • Ascites
    • Liver failure, feeding problems, FTT/poor weight gain, bilateral cataracts, hypoglycemia, bleeding, jaundice, and E coli sepsis.
  • Abnormal lab tests: Liver dysfunction (hyperbilirubinemia, abnormal liver function test results, coagulopathy), metabolic acidosis, galactosuria (indicated by presence of reducing substances in the urine), and hemolytic anemia
  • Suspect disorder in pts with galactosemia symptoms or when you discover a reducing substance in urine while the pt is drinking breast milk, cow’s milk, or formula containing lactose.
  • Dx:
    • Nearly 100% infants are detected by newborn screening.
    • Definitive diagnosis requires deficient activity of GALT in RBCs or other tissues while also showing an increased concentration of galactose-1-phosphate.
      • Detection of elevated erythrocyte galactose-1-phosphate concentration, reduced erythrocyte galactose-1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (GALT) enzyme activity, and biallelic gene mutations in the GALT gene
  • Tx
    • Lactose-free formula, soy-based formula and discontinue breastfeeding. Imperative within the first 10 days after birth to abate the symptoms and reduce the risk of long-term complications
      • All galactose-containing foods should be removed from the diet, which includes breastfeeding and formula.
      • Symptoms will quickly resolve with lactose-restricted diet in the first 2 weeks after birth.
        • Elimination of lactose and galactose from the diet reverses growth failure and renal/hepatic problems. Even cataracts regress
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20
Q

Galactokinase Deficiency

- Asymptomatic except for ___

A

Galactokinase Deficiency

- Asymptomatic except for cataracts

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21
Q

Uridine Diphosphate Galactose 4-Epimerase (UDP-Galactose 4-Epimerase) Deficiency

  • Generalized form: Clinically resembles galactosemia, with the additional symptoms of ____ and ____. The GALT activity is ____, unlike in classic galactosemia.
  • Tx with dietary restriction of ___ is effective.
A

Uridine Diphosphate Galactose 4-Epimerase (UDP-Galactose 4-Epimerase) Deficiency

  • Generalized form: Clinically resembles galactosemia, with the additional symptoms of hypotonia and nerve deafness. The GALT activity is normal, unlike in classic galactosemia.
  • Tx with dietary restriction of galactose is effective.
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22
Q

Fructokinase Deficiency / Benign Fructosuria

  • Benign. NO clinical manifestations.
  • Incidental finding when discover fructose during a urine screen for reducing substances.
A

Fructokinase Deficiency / Benign Fructosuria

  • Benign. NO clinical manifestations.
  • Incidental finding when discover fructose during a urine screen for reducing substances.
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23
Q

Hereditary Fructose Intolerance (_____ Deficiency)

  • Enzyme deficiency leads to accumulation of _____
  • Pt:
    • Jaundice, hepatomegaly, vomiting, lethargy, seizures, irritability.
    • Hypoglycemia, liver disease/liver failure, and poor growth
  • Suspect if you find fructose as a ______ during a symptomatic episode.
  • If fructose intake continues, severe hypoglycemia occurs, followed by liver and kidney failure and death. Sugar ingestion causes ______!
  • Dx: Definitive depends on assaying fructose 1,6-bisphosphate aldolase B activity in the liver.
  • Tx: Complete dietary elimination of all sources of fructose and its progenitors, sucrose and sorbitol.
A

Hereditary Fructose Intolerance (Aldolase B Deficiency)
- Enzyme deficiency leads to accumulation of fructose 1-phosphate

  • Pt:
    • Jaundice, hepatomegaly, vomiting, lethargy, seizures, irritability.
    • Hypoglycemia, liver disease/liver failure, and poor growth
  • Suspect if you find fructose as a urinary reducing substance during a symptomatic episode.
  • If fructose intake continues, severe hypoglycemia occurs, followed by liver and kidney failure and death. Sugar ingestion causes hypoglycemia!
  • Dx: Definitive depends on assaying fructose 1,6-bisphosphate aldolase B activity in the liver.
  • Tx: Complete dietary elimination of all sources of fructose and its progenitors, sucrose and sorbitol.
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24
Q
Fatty acid (beta-) oxidation defects
- Hypo\_\_\_\_ hypo\_\_\_

Glycogen storage diseases

  • Hepatomegaly
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Lactic acidosis
  • FTT
A
Fatty acid (beta-) oxidation defects
- Hypo\_\_\_\_ hypo\_\_\_

Glycogen storage diseases

  • Hepatomegaly
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Lactic acidosis
  • FTT
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25
Q

FATTY ACID OXIDATION DISORDERS - WITHOUT KETOSIS

  • Nearly all _____inheritance? disorders
  • Common presentation
    • Hypoketotic hypoglycemia with prolonged fasting
    • Hepatomegaly
    • Hypotonia
    • AMS
    • Seizures and sudden death if severe
    • Labs may show metabolic acidosis.
  • Labs: Analysis of plasma acylcarnitine
  • Dx: Definitive requires measurement of specific enzyme activity or mutation analysis.
  • Tx:
    • IV D10 1/2NS or D10NS and possibly ____.
A

FATTY ACID OXIDATION DISORDERS - WITHOUT KETOSIS

  • Nearly all AR disorders
  • Common presentation
    • Hypoketotic hypoglycemia with prolonged fasting
    • Hepatomegaly
    • Hypotonia
    • AMS
    • Seizures and sudden death if severe
    • Labs may show metabolic acidosis.
  • Labs: Analysis of plasma acylcarnitine
  • Dx: Definitive requires measurement of specific enzyme activity or mutation analysis.
  • Tx:
    • IV D10 1/2NS or D10NS and possibly L-carnitine.
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26
Q

Primary Carnitine Deficiency (Carnitine Uptake Defect)
- ____inheritance? defect in the plasma membrane of the cell.

  • Path: Defect in carnitine transport protein in the kidneys. Result in low levels of free carnitine in the serum.
  • Pt:
    • In early infancy or later childhood with cardiomyopathy or recurrent episodes of encephalopathy and hypoketotic hypoglycemia.
  • Labs:
    • This can result in ____ ____ in affected patients. (this may differentiate this disorder from others with similar presentation, such as reye’s syndrome, in which ketoacids are present)
    • Elevated ammonia levels in blood
  • Dx: Very low levels of ___ in tissues. In serum, it may be undetectable or <1umol/L.
  • Tx: Oral ___, which results in dramatic improvement.
A

Primary Carnitine Deficiency (Carnitine Uptake Defect)
- AR defect in the plasma membrane of the cell.

  • Path: Defect in carnitine transport protein in the kidneys. Result in low levels of free carnitine in the serum.
  • Pt:
    • In early infancy or later childhood with cardiomyopathy or recurrent episodes of encephalopathy and hypoketotic hypoglycemia.
  • Labs:
    • This can result in hypoketotic hypoglycemia in affected patients. (this may differentiate this disorder from others with similar presentation, such as reye’s syndrome, in which ketoacids are present)
    • Elevated ammonia levels in blood
  • Dx: Very low levels of carnitine in tissues. In serum, it may be undetectable or <1umol/L.
  • Tx: Oral L-carnitine, which results in dramatic improvement.
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27
Q

Defect of Fatty Acid Entry into Mitochondria
- ____inheritance? disorders occur and cause defects in enzymes- Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I and II (CPT I and CPT II) and by carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase (CT)

  • Pt:
    • Present in infancy with fasting-induced hypoglycemia, liver failure, and cardiomyopathy. However, they can all have later phenotypes as well.
  • Dx:
    • For CPT I, serum carnitine levels are normal or elevated (key: no other disorder elevates carnitine - elevated carnitine is otherwise seen only in excessive supplementation), and the serum acylcarnitine profile is normal.
    • In CPT II and CT deficiency, serum carnitine levels are very LOW with elevated C16 esters (an abnormal acylcarnitine profile).
  • Tx:
    • Acute cases with IV glucose and aggressive hydration.
    • Give ____ if serum carnitine levels are low.
A

Defect of Fatty Acid Entry into Mitochondria
- AR disorders occur and cause defects in enzymes- Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I and II (CPT I and CPT II) and by carnitine-acylcarnitine translocase (CT)

  • Pt:
    • Present in infancy with fasting-induced hypoglycemia, liver failure, and cardiomyopathy. However, they can all have later phenotypes as well.
  • Dx:
    • For CPT I, serum carnitine levels are normal or elevated (key: no other disorder elevates carnitine - elevated carnitine is otherwise seen only in excessive supplementation), and the serum acylcarnitine profile is normal.
    • In CPT II and CT deficiency, serum carnitine levels are very LOW with elevated C16 esters (an abnormal acylcarnitine profile).
  • Tx:
    • Acute cases with IV glucose and aggressive hydration.
    • Give carnitine if serum carnitine levels are low.
28
Q

Medium-Chain Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase (MCAD) Deficiency
- Most common beta-oxidation defect. ____inheritance? fatty acid oxidation disorder.

  • Pt:
    • Hypoketotic hypoglycemia, vomiting, and fasting-induced lethargy triggered by a minor illness
    • Seizures and coma are typical.
  • Get ___ profile: Elevated ___ and ___ esters.
  • Management:
    • As preventive maintenance, avoid fasting when healthy
    • Acute tx is IV ____ and bicarbonate.
    • Restrict MCTs from diet
    • If carnitine is low, oral replacement can be helpful, but evidence of benefit is lacking.
A

Medium-Chain Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase (MCAD) Deficiency
- Most common beta-oxidation defect. AR fatty acid oxidation disorder.

  • Pt:
    • Hypoketotic hypoglycemia, vomiting, and fasting-induced lethargy triggered by a minor illness
    • Seizures and coma are typical.
  • Get acylcarnitine profile: Elevated C8 and C10 esters. Elevations in C6, C8, and C10 (C6-C10) acylcarnitines
  • Management:
    • As preventive maintenance, avoid fasting when healthy
    • Acute tx is IV glucose and bicarbonate.
    • Restrict MCTs from diet
    • If carnitine is low, oral replacement can be helpful, but evidence of benefit is lacking.
29
Q

Long-Chain Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase (LCHAD) Deficiency

  • ____inheritance?
  • Pt:
    • In infancy with fasting-induced hypoketotic hypoglycemia although some will have cardiomyopathy or, later in adulthood, exercise-induced rhabdomyolysis.
    • Frequently develop cholestatic liver disease and have retinopathy with hypopigmentation or focal pigment aggregations later in life. (Note: These are not seen in MCAD or VLCAD deficiency)
    • Sometimes a clue in the hx is the pregnancy. Was it complicated with acute fatty liver or HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver function tests, and low platelets) syndrome?
  • Pt: Severe early onset presentation of hypoketotic hypoglycemia, cardiomyopathy, hepatomegaly, hypotonia
  • Dx: Metabolic testing including ___ panel reveals elevations of C____) during acute illness
  • Tx:
    • High-dose IV ____
    • Frequent meals, Avoid fasting, Hydration
A

Long-Chain Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase (LCHAD) Deficiency

  • AR
  • Pt:
    • In infancy with fasting-induced hypoketotic hypoglycemia although some will have cardiomyopathy or, later in adulthood, exercise-induced rhabdomyolysis.
    • Frequently develop cholestatic liver disease and have retinopathy with hypopigmentation or focal pigment aggregations later in life. (Note: These are not seen in MCAD or VLCAD deficiency)
    • Sometimes a clue in the hx is the pregnancy. Was it complicated with acute fatty liver or HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver function tests, and low platelets) syndrome?
  • Pt: Severe early onset presentation of hypoketotic hypoglycemia, cardiomyopathy, hepatomegaly, hypotonia
  • Dx: Metabolic testing including acylcarnitine panel reveals elevations of C12, C14, C16, C18 (C16:1, C14:2, C14:1, C18:1) during acute illness
  • Tx:
    • High-dose IV glucose
    • Frequent meals, Avoid fasting, Hydration
30
Q

Very-Long-Chain Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase (VLCAD) Deficiency

  • _____inheritance?
  • Pt: 3 scenarios
    • 1) Severe early-onset cardiac failure that can progress to multiorgan failure.
    • 2) Hepatic or hypoketotic hypoglycemia form
    • 3) Later onset manifesting with episode myopathy and intermittent rhabdomyolysis typically provoked by muscle cramps, pain, or exercise.
  • Lab findings include hypoketotic hypoglycemia, hepatic dysfunction, elevated CK, and increased ____ on urine organic acid analysis.
  • Screening: Disorder is typically detected via newborn screening with elevated C14:1 of >1mmol/L
  • Dx: Elevations of saturated and unsaturated C___ esters.
  • Tx;
    • Frequent meals with a high-carbohydrate diet with supplementation of MCT oil.
    • If an acute episode occurs, give IV glucose and fluids.
A

Very-Long-Chain Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase (VLCAD) Deficiency

  • AR
  • Pt: 3 scenarios
    • 1) Severe early-onset cardiac failure that can progress to multiorgan failure.
    • 2) Hepatic or hypoketotic hypoglycemia form
    • 3) Later onset manifesting with episode myopathy and intermittent rhabdomyolysis typically provoked by muscle cramps, pain, or exercise.
  • Lab findings include hypoketotic hypoglycemia, hepatic dysfunction, elevated CK, and increased dicarboxylic acids on urine organic acid analysis.
  • Screening: Disorder is typically detected via newborn screening with elevated C14:1 of >1mmol/L
  • Dx: Elevations of saturated and unsaturated C14-C18 esters.
  • Tx;
    • Frequent meals with a high-carbohydrate diet with supplementation of MCT oil.
    • If an acute episode occurs, give IV glucose and fluids.
31
Q

Glutaric Acidemia Type 2 (Multiple Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase Deficiency)
- ____inheritance? defects in electron-transfer flavoprotein (ETF) and ETF-ubiquinone oxidoreductase

  • Pt: Neonate presents with severe hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperammonemia, and ____ (as with isovaleric acidemia).
  • Dx: Finding glutarylcarnitine, isovalerylcarnitine, and straight chain C4, C8, C10, and C12 esters.
  • Tx:
    • Relies on avoidance of fasting and sometimes requires continuous intragastric feeds.
    • ____ is useful.
A

Glutaric Acidemia Type 2 (Multiple Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase Deficiency)
- AR defects in electron-transfer flavoprotein (ETF) and ETF-ubiquinone oxidoreductase

  • Pt: Neonate presents with severe hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperammonemia, and odor of sweat feet (as with isovaleric acidemia).
  • Dx: Finding glutarylcarnitine, isovalerylcarnitine, and straight chain C4, C8, C10, and C12 esters.
  • Tx:
    • Relies on avoidance of fasting and sometimes requires continuous intragastric feeds.
    • Carnitine is useful.
32
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease Type I (Von Gierke)
- AR

  • GSDIa - defect in the glucose-6-phosphatase enzyme
  • GSDIb - defect in the translocase
  • Path: Failure to convert ____ to ____ in the liver. Caused by decreased G-6-phosphatase (GSDIa, gene G6PC) in the liver, kidney, and intestinal mucosa or glucose-6-translocase deficiency (GSDIb, gene SLC37A4). The affected individual has excess storage of glycogen in the tissues and suffers from severe and rapid fasting hypoglycemia.
  • Pt:
    • Present at ____ months with FTT, recurrent episodes of _____ (2/2 inability of liver to release glucose from glycogen) resulting in lactic acidosis and Kussmaul breathing, hypoglycemic seizures, +/-Hepatomegaly, renomegaly - at a time when ____ and parents are trying to get them to sleep through the night.
    • Kids have ____ facies with ____ (secondary to fat deposition), thin extremities, distended abdomen (due to hepatomegaly), short stature.
    • In the long term, the liver is the most commonly affected organ
    • ___ acidosis, ___lipidemic, ___ruricemia, hypoglycemia
  • Dx:
    • Looking for hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, and hyperlipidemia (increased VLDL, LDL, and apolipoproteins B, C, and E).
    • Definitive with gene-based mutation analysis
  • Tx:
    • Avoid _____, frequent feeding with either continuous feeds or frequent feedings of large amounts of complex carbohydrates, and nocturnal _____ infusions
    • Children <6mo cannot have cornstarch as treatment for hypoglycemia secondary to GSD
A

Glycogen Storage Disease Type I (Von Gierke)
- AR

  • GSDIa - defect in the glucose-6-phosphatase enzyme
  • GSDIb - defect in the translocase
  • Path: Failure to convert glucose-6-phosphate to glucose in the liver. Caused by decreased G-6-phosphatase (GSDIa, gene G6PC) in the liver, kidney, and intestinal mucosa or glucose-6-translocase deficiency (GSDIb, gene SLC37A4). The affected individual has excess storage of glycogen in the tissues and suffers from severe and rapid fasting hypoglycemia.
  • Pt:
    • Present at 3-4 months with FTT, recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia (2/2 inability of liver to release glucose from glycogen) resulting in lactic acidosis and Kussmaul breathing, hypoglycemic seizures, +/-Hepatomegaly, renomegaly - at a time when babies start to eat less often and parents are trying to get them to sleep through the night.
    • Kids have Doll-like facies with chubby cheeks (secondary to fat deposition), thin extremities, distended abdomen (due to hepatomegaly), short stature.
    • In the long term, the liver is the most commonly affected organ
    • Lactic acidosis, hyperlipidemic, hyperuricemia, hypoglycemia
  • Dx:
    • Looking for hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, and hyperlipidemia (increased VLDL, LDL, and apolipoproteins B, C, and E).
    • Definitive with gene-based mutation analysis
  • Tx:
    • Avoid fasting, frequent feeding with either continuous feeds or frequent feedings of large amounts of complex carbohydrates, and nocturnal cornstarch infusions
    • Children <6mo cannot have cornstarch as treatment for hypoglycemia secondary to GSD
33
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease 2 (Pompe Disease)
- ____inheritance? condition

  • The ONLY glycogen storage disease that is also a _______ storage disorder that has excess glycogen storage.
    • Different from other GSDs in that the glycogen accumulates in the lysosomes and not in the cytoplasm.
  • Path: Deficiency in lysosomal acid ________ enzyme (aka acid maltase), which is essential for breaking down glycogen to glucose in lysosomal vacuoles.
  • Pt:
    • Infantile-onset form: Most severe
      • Cardiomegaly, hypotonia, and death before 1yo
      • Muscle weakness, hypotonia, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, FTT, and heart failure due to ______
    • Juvenile/Late-childhood form:
      • Slowly progressive skeletomuscular manifestations occur WITHOUT cardiac involvement.
  • Dx:
    • Look for elevated ___, AST, and ___, esp in the infantile form.
    • Muscle biopsy shows vacuoles full of ____ on staining.
    • Confirmatory testing involves demonstration of reduced or absent acid _____ in muscle or skin fibroblasts.
  • Tx: _____
A

Glycogen Storage Disease 2 (Pompe Disease)
- AR condition

  • The ONLY glycogen storage disease that is also a lysosomal storage disorder that has excess glycogen storage.
    • Different from other GSDs in that the glycogen accumulates in the lysosomes and not in the cytoplasm.
  • Path: Deficiency in lysosomal acid alpha-1,4-glucosidase enzyme (aka acid maltase), which is essential for breaking down glycogen to glucose in lysosomal vacuoles.
  • Pt:
    • Infantile-onset form: Most severe
      • Cardiomegaly, hypotonia, and death before 1yo
      • Muscle weakness, hypotonia, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, FTT, and heart failure due to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    • Juvenile/Late-childhood form:
      • Slowly progressive skeletomuscular manifestations occur WITHOUT cardiac involvement.
  • Dx:
    • Look for elevated CPK, AST, and LDH, esp in the infantile form.
    • Muscle biopsy shows vacuoles full of glycogen on staining.
    • Confirmatory testing involves demonstration of reduced or absent acid alpha-glucosidase activity in muscle or skin fibroblasts.
  • Tx: Enzyme replacement therapy (ERT)
34
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 3 (Cori Disease)

  • AR
  • Path: Due to deficiency of ______ enzyme, which (along with phosphorylase) is responsible for complete degradation of glycogen
  • Types
    • Type 3a GSD (85% pts): Presents with both liver and muscle abnormalities
    • Type 3b GSD (15% pts): Involves only the liver
  • Difficult to distinguish between Type 3 and Type 1
    • Usually the kidneys are NOT enlarged in Type 3.
    • Fasting ketosis is prominent in Type 3.
    • Unlike Type 1, the liver in Type 3 is fibrotic
  • Tx:
    • Frequent _____ meals are generally effective in preventing hypoglycemia. Pts do not need to restrict fructose and galactose (as do those with Type 1).
A

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 3 (Cori Disease)

  • AR
  • Path: Due to deficiency of glycogen-debranching enzyme, which (along with phosphorylase) is responsible for complete degradation of glycogen
  • Types
    • Type 3a GSD (85% pts): Presents with both liver and muscle abnormalities
    • Type 3b GSD (15% pts): Involves only the liver
  • Difficult to distinguish between Type 3 and Type 1
    • Usually the kidneys are NOT enlarged in Type 3.
    • Fasting ketosis is prominent in Type 3.
    • Unlike Type 1, the liver in Type 3 is fibrotic
  • Tx:
    • Frequent carbohydrate meals are generally effective in preventing hypoglycemia. Pts do not need to restrict fructose and galactose (as do those with Type 1).
35
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 4 (Andersen Disease)
- AR disorder

  • Path: Deficiency of glycogen branching enzyme causes accumulation of an abnormal glycogen
  • Pt: Most common is cirrhosis of the liver with hepatomegaly and FTT in the first 18 months of life.
  • Tx: Supportive. No specific therapy.
A

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 4 (Andersen Disease)
- AR disorder

  • Path: Deficiency of glycogen branching enzyme causes accumulation of an abnormal glycogen
  • Pt: Most common is cirrhosis of the liver with hepatomegaly and FTT in the first 18 months of life.
  • Tx: Supportive. No specific therapy.
36
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 5 - McArdle Disease - muscle cramps

  • ____inherited? disorder
  • Path: Due to deficiency of _______ and results in glycogen accumulation in the muscle
  • Pt: Exercise-induced _______ and exercise intolerance.
    • 50% report _______ urine after exercise, which is from myoglobinuria due to rhabdomyolysis.
  • _____ is elevated at rest and increases after exercise.
  • Dx:
    • Diagnosis suggested: NO increase occurs in blood lactate level, but instead an increased ______ level is found when the pt exercises. This suggests a defect in the conversion of glycogen or glucose to lactate.
    • Enzymatic assays on muscle tissue or DNA analysis for the ______ gene provide definitive diagnosis.
  • Tx: Geared toward avoiding _____ to prevent rhabdomyolysis.
A

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 5 - McArdle Disease - muscle cramps

  • AR disorder
  • Path: Due to deficiency of muscle phosphorylase and results in glycogen accumulation in the muscle
  • Pt: Exercise-induced muscle cramps and exercise intolerance.
    • 50% report burgundy-colored urine after exercise, which is from myoglobinuria due to rhabdomyolysis.
  • CPK is elevated at rest and increases after exercise.
  • Dx:
    • Diagnosis suggested: NO increase occurs in blood lactate level, but instead an increased ammonia level is found when the pt exercises. This suggests a defect in the conversion of glycogen or glucose to lactate.
    • Enzymatic assays on muscle tissue or DNA analysis for the myophosphorylase gene provide definitive diagnosis.
  • Tx: Geared toward avoiding strenuous exercise to prevent rhabdomyolysis.
37
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 6 (Hers Disease)
- Also known as liver glycogen phosphorylase deficiency.

  • Path: Leads to excessive liver glycogen
  • Pt: Benign course. Those affected have hepatomegaly and growth retardation in childhood, but these resolve before or at puberty.
  • Tx: No specific therapy required.
A

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 6 (Hers Disease)
- Also known as liver glycogen phosphorylase deficiency.

  • Path: Leads to excessive liver glycogen
  • Pt: Benign course. Those affected have hepatomegaly and growth retardation in childhood, but these resolve before or at puberty.
  • Tx: No specific therapy required.
38
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 7 (Tarui Disease)

  • AR disorder
  • Path: Deficiency of muscle phosphofructokinase
  • Pt:
    • Early onset of fatigue and pain with exercise (similar to Type 5)
    • Differs from Type 5 in the following ways:
      • Usually present in childhood
      • Hemolysis occurs
      • Increased uric acid levels that are worsened by exercise
      • An amylopectin-like glycogen is deposited in muscle fibers
      • Exercise intolerance is much worse after a carbohydrate-loaded meal
A

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 7 (Tarui Disease)

  • AR disorder
  • Path: Deficiency of muscle phosphofructokinase
  • Pt:
    • Early onset of fatigue and pain with exercise (similar to Type 5)
    • Differs from Type 5 in the following ways:
      • Usually present in childhood
      • Hemolysis occurs
      • Increased uric acid levels that are worsened by exercise
      • An amylopectin-like glycogen is deposited in muscle fibers
      • Exercise intolerance is much worse after a carbohydrate-loaded meal
39
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 9

  • Also known as liver phosphorylase kinase deficiency
  • 1) X-linked liver phosphorylase kinase deficiency:
    • Pt: Within the first 5 years of life with hepatomegaly and growth retardation, but these conditions resolve by adulthood.
  • 2) Autosomal liver and muscle phosphorylase kinase deficiency
  • 3) Autosomal liver phosphorylase kinase deficiency
  • 4) Muscle-specific phosphorylase kinase deficiency
A

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 9

  • Also known as liver phosphorylase kinase deficiency
  • 1) X-linked liver phosphorylase kinase deficiency:
    • Pt: Within the first 5 years of life with hepatomegaly and growth retardation, but these conditions resolve by adulthood.
  • 2) Autosomal liver and muscle phosphorylase kinase deficiency
  • 3) Autosomal liver phosphorylase kinase deficiency
  • 4) Muscle-specific phosphorylase kinase deficiency
40
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 11 (Fanconi-Bickel Syndrome)
- Look for parents who are consanguineous.

  • Pts have proximal renal tubular dysfunction and accumulation of glycogen in the liver and kidney.
  • Pt: <1yo with FTT, rickets, and a large, protuberant abdomen due to hepatomegaly.
A

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 11 (Fanconi-Bickel Syndrome)
- Look for parents who are consanguineous.

  • Pts have proximal renal tubular dysfunction and accumulation of glycogen in the liver and kidney.
  • Pt: <1yo with FTT, rickets, and a large, protuberant abdomen due to hepatomegaly.
41
Q

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 0
- Also known as glycogen synthase deficiency. Not actually a GSD bc the enzyme deficiency leads to a decrease in glycogen stores.

  • AR condition
  • Tx: Symptomatic, involving frequent feedings rich in protein and a nighttime snack of uncooked cornstarch to prevent hypoglycemic.
A

Glycogen Storage Disease Type 0
- Also known as glycogen synthase deficiency. Not actually a GSD bc the enzyme deficiency leads to a decrease in glycogen stores.

  • AR condition
  • Tx: Symptomatic, involving frequent feedings rich in protein and a nighttime snack of uncooked cornstarch to prevent hypoglycemic.
42
Q

MITOCHONDRIAL DNA MUTATIONS

- Tx: No good evidence for treatment.

A

MITOCHONDRIAL DNA MUTATIONS

- Tx: No good evidence for treatment.

43
Q

(MERRF) Disease
- 3 typical traits seen in this disorder: 1) ____ 2) ____ 3) ____

  • Dx: Muscle biopsy shows _____. Skeletal muscle biopsy
A

Myoclonic Epilepsy and Ragged-Red Fiber (MERRF) Disease
- 3 typical traits seen in this disorder: 1) Epilepsy 2) Cerebellar ataxia 3) Ragged-red fiber myopathy

  • Dx: Muscle biopsy shows ragged red fibers. Skeletal muscle biopsy
44
Q

(MELAS)

- Can appear at any age, but most cases present before 45 yo and are known as “stroke of the young”

A

Mitochondrial Encephalopathy, Lactic Acidosis, and Stroke-Like Episodes (MELAS)
- Can appear at any age, but most cases present before 45 yo and are known as “stroke of the young”

45
Q
Leigh Syndrome (aka subacute necrotizing encephalopathy)
- AR
  • Pt:
    • Severe neurologic findings (mental and movement), respiratory dysfunction, and ataxia with bilateral hyperintense signals on T2-weighted MRI of the basal ganglia, cerebellum, or brainstem.
    • Basal ganglia defects, hypotonia, and optic atrophy in infancy or early childhood
A
Leigh Syndrome (aka subacute necrotizing encephalopathy)
- AR
  • Pt:
    • Severe neurologic findings (mental and movement), respiratory dysfunction, and ataxia with bilateral hyperintense signals on T2-weighted MRI of the basal ganglia, cerebellum, or brainstem.
    • Basal ganglia defects, hypotonia, and optic atrophy in infancy or early childhood
46
Q

Kearns-Sayre and Chronic Progressive External Ophthalmoplegia (CPEO) Syndromes

  • Triad: ____, _____, _____
    • Triad is very specific for the presence of an mtDNA mutation.
  • Kearns-Sayre syndrome
    • Presents with ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, myopathy, and cardiac conduction defects
    • In addition to the triad, multisystem disease is common, particularly including: Cardiomyopathies, diabetes mellitus, cerebellar ataxia, deafness
    • Some present in infancy with variant Pearson syndrome: Pancytopenia, pancreatitis
A

Kearns-Sayre and Chronic Progressive External Ophthalmoplegia (CPEO) Syndromes

  • Triad: Ptosis, ophthalmoplegia, ragged-red fiber myopathy
    • Triad is very specific for the presence of an mtDNA mutation.
  • Kearns-Sayre syndrome
    • Presents with ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, myopathy, and cardiac conduction defects
    • In addition to the triad, multisystem disease is common, particularly including: Cardiomyopathies, diabetes mellitus, cerebellar ataxia, deafness
    • Some present in infancy with variant Pearson syndrome: Pancytopenia, pancreatitis
47
Q

Pearson syndrome
- Pt: Anemia, neutropenia, pancreatic dysfunction, and myopathy in infants.

  • Pts who survive beyond infancy (most die in infancy) go on to develop Kearns-Sayre syndrome
A

Pearson syndrome
- Pt: Anemia, neutropenia, pancreatic dysfunction, and myopathy in infants.

  • Pts who survive beyond infancy (most die in infancy) go on to develop Kearns-Sayre syndrome
48
Q

MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSIS

  • Pt: 1 of 3 forms:
    • 1) Dysmorphic/coarse features: MPS 1H, MPS 2, MPS 6
    • 2) Learning difficulties, behavior problems, and dementia: MPS 3
    • 3) Severe bone dysplasia: MPS 4
  • Screen urine first for glycosaminoglycans, but inaccurate/false negative results are common.
  • Dx: Radiographs demonstrating dysostosis multiplex (skeletal abnormalities) are diagnostic.
  • Tx: ERT is available for some of these disorders.
A

MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSIS

  • Pt: 1 of 3 forms:
    • 1) Dysmorphic/coarse features: MPS 1H, MPS 2, MPS 6
    • 2) Learning difficulties, behavior problems, and dementia: MPS 3
    • 3) Severe bone dysplasia: MPS 4
  • Screen urine first for glycosaminoglycans, but inaccurate/false negative results are common.
  • Dx: Radiographs demonstrating dysostosis multiplex (skeletal abnormalities) are diagnostic.
  • Tx: ERT is available for some of these disorders.
49
Q

Mucopolysaccharidoses Type 1 (Hurler Syndrome)

  • AR
  • Path: Defect in gene coding for________
  • Pt
    • Infants will appear normal at birth but over time will develop _____ of the facial features
    • Other manifestations include severe cognitive decline, macrocephaly with or without communication hydrocephalus, and corneal ______
    • At high risk for atlantoaxial subluxation.
    • ______ involvement
  • Dx:
    • Definitive dx through identification of biallelic pathogenic mutations in IDUA or demonstration of deficient alpha-L-iduronidase lysosomal enzyme activity
  • Tx:
    • _________ with laronidase
    • Hematopoietic stem cell transplant is successful in children <18 mo to prevent intellectual deterioration
  • Prognosis: Related to the cardiac involvement
A

Mucopolysaccharidoses Type 1 (Hurler Syndrome)

  • AR
  • Path: Defect in gene coding for alpha-L-iduronidase
  • Pt
    • Infants will appear normal at birth but over time will develop coarsening of the facial features
    • Other manifestations include severe cognitive decline, macrocephaly with or without communication hydrocephalus, and corneal clouding
    • At high risk for atlantoaxial subluxation.
    • Cardiac involvement
  • Dx:
    • Definitive dx through identification of biallelic pathogenic mutations in IDUA or demonstration of deficient alpha-L-iduronidase lysosomal enzyme activity
  • Tx:
    • Enzyme replacement therapy with laronidase
    • Hematopoietic stem cell transplant is successful in children <18 mo to prevent intellectual deterioration
  • Prognosis: Related to the cardiac involvement
50
Q

Mucopolysaccharidosis Type 2 (Hunter Syndrome)
- _____inheritance? condition. Only males display the trait

  • Path: Defect in the gene that encodes for ______ on the X chromosome.
  • Pt:
    • Findings
      • Learning difficulties (with challenging behavior, ADHD, or seizures)
      • Middle ear disease - hearing impairment
      • Hernias
      • _____ facial appearance
      • Diarrhea
      • Joint stiffness
      • Hepatosplenomegaly
    • A ______ around the scapulae and the extensor surfaces is pathognomonic (but rare in children).
    • Corneal clouding ______ (have to be able to see well to hunt)
    • _____ is rare in younger pts, but uncomplicated valvular lesions are relatively common.
    • Those with milder forms of Hunter syndrome have near-normal or normal life span
  • Tx: ______
A

Mucopolysaccharidosis Type 2 (Hunter Syndrome)
- X-LINKED RECESSIVE condition. Only males display the trait

  • Path: Defect in the gene that encodes for iduronate-2-sulfatase on the X chromosome.
  • Pt:
    • Findings
      • Learning difficulties (with challenging behavior, ADHD, or seizures)
      • Middle ear disease - hearing impairment
      • Hernias
      • Coarse facial appearance
      • Diarrhea
      • Joint stiffness
      • Hepatosplenomegaly
    • A nodular rash around the scapulae and the extensor surfaces is pathognomonic (but rare in children).
    • Corneal clouding does NOT occur (have to be able to see well to hunt)
    • Cardiomyopathy is rare in younger pts, but uncomplicated valvular lesions are relatively common.
    • Those with milder forms of Hunter syndrome have near-normal or normal life span
  • Tx: ERT
51
Q

Mucopolysaccharidosis Type 3 (Sanfilippo Syndrome)

Path: Deficiency in 1 of 4 lysosomal enzymes involved in degradation of the glycosaminoglycan, ______

Clinical course:
Stage 1 (1-4yo): Development delay after developing normally 

Stage 2 (3-4yo):
Developmental regression, severe behavioral problems, progressive mental deterioration. No concept of danger to themselves and must be watched continuously.
Facial dysmorphology becomes more obvious, with coarsening of facial features, synophrys (hair between eyebrows), thick lips, macrocephaly

Stage 3-4:
Swallowing difficulties and spasticity emerge, and they ultimately become G tube-dependent and unable to walk.

Tx: No effective therapy is available at this time.

A

Mucopolysaccharidosis Type 3 (Sanfilippo Syndrome)

Path: Deficiency in 1 of 4 lysosomal enzymes involved in degradation of the glycosaminoglycan, heparan sulfate

Clinical course:
Stage 1 (1-4yo): Development delay after developing normally 

Stage 2 (3-4yo):
Developmental regression, severe behavioral problems, progressive mental deterioration. No concept of danger to themselves and must be watched continuously.
Facial dysmorphology becomes more obvious, with coarsening of facial features, synophrys (hair between eyebrows), thick lips, macrocephaly

Stage 3-4:
Swallowing difficulties and spasticity emerge, and they ultimately become G tube-dependent and unable to walk.

Tx: No effective therapy is available at this time.

52
Q

Mucopolysaccharidosis Type 4 (Morquio Syndrome)

Path: Deficiency of galactose-6-sulfatase, resulting in defective degradation of _____

Pt:
Short-trunk dwarfism, fine corneal deposits, and skeletal (spondylepiphyseal) dysplasia distinct from other types of MPS, along with normal intelligence.
Odontoid dysplasia is universal and can be life-threatening.
Most bone deformities cannot be corrected, and most pts eventually require motorized wheelchairs.

A

Mucopolysaccharidosis Type 4 (Morquio Syndrome)

Path: Deficiency of galactose-6-sulfatase, resulting in defective degradation of keratan sulfate

Pt:
Short-trunk dwarfism, fine corneal deposits, and skeletal (spondylepiphyseal) dysplasia distinct from other types of MPS, along with normal intelligence.
Odontoid dysplasia is universal and can be life-threatening.
Most bone deformities cannot be corrected, and most pts eventually require motorized wheelchairs.

53
Q

Mucolipidosis Type 1 (Cherry-Red Spot Myoclonus Syndrome)

Most common presents between these 2 extremes, with a mild Hurler-like phenotype and a cherry-red spot.

A

Mucolipidosis Type 1 (Cherry-Red Spot Myoclonus Syndrome)

Most common presents between these 2 extremes, with a mild Hurler-like phenotype and a cherry-red spot.

54
Q

Mucolipidosis Type 2 (I-Cell Disease)

Pt:
Severe clinical and radiologic abnormalities - and looks like Hurler syndrome in terms of physical findings.
______ are the clue to look for (so, Hurler syndrome-like characteristics with hyperplastic gums)
Unlike with the other disorders in this group, the head circumference is usually small.

A

Mucolipidosis Type 2 (I-Cell Disease)

Pt:
Severe clinical and radiologic abnormalities - and looks like Hurler syndrome in terms of physical findings.
Hyperplastic gums are the clue to look for (so, Hurler syndrome-like characteristics with hyperplastic gums)
Unlike with the other disorders in this group, the head circumference is usually small.

55
Q

Mucolipidosis Type 3 (Pseudo-Hurler Polydystrophy)

Main problem is orthopedic, with severe joint stiffness.

A

Mucolipidosis Type 3 (Pseudo-Hurler Polydystrophy)

Main problem is orthopedic, with severe joint stiffness.

56
Q

SPHINGOLIPIDOSES
Defects in the lysosomal breakdown of sphingolipids.

All disorders are AR except for _____ disease (X-linked)

ERT is available for Gaucher’s and Fabry’s

Table
CNS Diseases
-CNS only - Tay-Sachs
-CNS with hepatosplenomegaly - Gaucher Types 2 and 3, NPD Types A and C
-CNS with vascular and pulmonary involvement - NPD Type A

Non-CNS Diseases

  • Predominantly hepatosplenomegaly - Gaucher Type 1, NPD Type B
  • Peripheral nervous system +/- skin lesions and cardiac, renal, vascular, or pulmonary involvement - Fabry disease
A

SPHINGOLIPIDOSES
Defects in the lysosomal breakdown of sphingolipids.

All disorders are AR except for Fabry disease (X-linked)

ERT is available for Gaucher’s and Fabry’s

Table
CNS Diseases
-CNS only - Tay-Sachs
-CNS with hepatosplenomegaly - Gaucher Types 2 and 3, NPD Types A and C
-CNS with vascular and pulmonary involvement - NPD Type A

Non-CNS Diseases

  • Predominantly hepatosplenomegaly - Gaucher Type 1, NPD Type B
  • Peripheral nervous system +/- skin lesions and cardiac, renal, vascular, or pulmonary involvement - Fabry disease
57
Q

Gaucher Disease
___inheritance?
Path: Deficiency in lysosomal ______, resulting in accumulation of glucocerebroside. 97% of mutations in Ashkenazi Jews
Type 1 is the most common and does not have CNS involvement
Type 2 has the earliest onset with neurologic symptoms as well as bleeding tendency
Type 3 has neurologic symptoms that are later in onset and more chronic than in Type 2
Type 4 is the most severe type; neonate dies within days to weeks

Type 1: Clinical and radiographic bone disease (bone pain, pathologic fractures, subchondral joint collapse, osteopenia, focal sclerotic or lytic lesions, osteonecrosis), hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and lung disease (in the absence of neurological findings)
Most common lysosomal storage disease
Pt:
_______ is the most common presentation and usually found on a routine exam. Abdominal protuberance is common
Hypersplenism predisposes to significant _____, which can result in severe bleeding.
Younger children may complain of “growing pains” in the LEs, esp at night, and there may be bone infiltration with Gaucher cells (ie large macrophages laden with cerebrosides).
Dx:
Bone marrow studies show Gaucher storage cells.
Consider diagnosis by finding a deficiency of beta-glucosidase in leukocytes or cultured skin fibroblasts
Tx: Best tx is ______. Splenectomy is contraindicated bc it causes increased storage in the lysosomes in the bone, resulting in worsened bone disease.

Type 2 (Acute Neuronopathy): Onset prior to 2 years of age, rapidly progressive course that is generally fatal by 4yo
Path: This causes increased accumulation of glucocerebroside both in the reticuloendothelial system AND the brain.
Pt:
Infants are usually normal initially; however, by 2-4 months of age, they start having feeding difficulties and FTT.
They develop strabismus, difficulty swallowing, and opisthotonic posturing.
Unlike the later-presenting forms of Gaucher disease, skeletal involvement is minimal.
Characteristic lab result is an increased plasma tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase.
Bone marrow aspiration shows classic Gaucher storage cells
Dx: Confirm by finding a deficiency of beta-glucosidase in the leukocytes or cultured fibroblasts
Tx: Supportive. Bone marrow transplant and enzyme replacement therapy have NOT been found to be useful in the treatment

Type 3 (Subacute Neuronopathy): Neurologic findings occur before 2yo, but the disease course has slower progression with a patient lifespan into the 2nd-4th decade.
2 main presentations:
1) Type 3a: More prominent neurologic findings with little visceral involvement
Look for isolated, supranuclear, horizontal-gaze palsy. You’ll see blinking, superimposed upward looping of the eyes, and head thrusting.
2) Type 3b: Prominent, severe visceral involvement
Degree of hepatosplenomegaly is impressive and rapidly progressive compared to Type 1
Hepatocellular dysfunction is prominent with FTT, ascites, nosebleeds, and easy bruising.
Progression in the viscera is so rapid that neurologic manifestations are usually masked or never develop
Main finding of neurologic significance can be oculomotor apraxia: Eye movements are not well executed.
Bone marrow shows Gaucher cells
Dx: Confirm by looking for deficiency of beta-glucosidase in leukocytes or cultured skin fibroblasts.
Tx: Bone marrow transplant

Type 4:
Severe Gaucher disease with thick collodion-like skin.

A

Gaucher Disease
AR
Path: Deficiency in lysosomal glucocerebrosidase, resulting in accumulation of glucocerebroside. 97% of mutations in Ashkenazi Jews
Type 1 is the most common and does not have CNS involvement
Type 2 has the earliest onset with neurologic symptoms as well as bleeding tendency
Type 3 has neurologic symptoms that are later in onset and more chronic than in Type 2
Type 4 is the most severe type; neonate dies within days to weeks

Type 1: Clinical and radiographic bone disease (bone pain, pathologic fractures, subchondral joint collapse, osteopenia, focal sclerotic or lytic lesions, osteonecrosis), hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and lung disease (in the absence of neurological findings)
Most common lysosomal storage disease
Pt:
Splenomegaly is the most common presentation and usually found on a routine exam. Abdominal protuberance is common
Hypersplenism predisposes to significant thrombocytopenia, which can result in severe bleeding.
Younger children may complain of “growing pains” in the LEs, esp at night, and there may be bone infiltration with Gaucher cells (ie large macrophages laden with cerebrosides).
Dx:
Bone marrow studies show Gaucher storage cells.
Consider diagnosis by finding a deficiency of beta-glucosidase in leukocytes or cultured skin fibroblasts
Tx: Best tx is ERT. Splenectomy is contraindicated bc it causes increased storage in the lysosomes in the bone, resulting in worsened bone disease.

Type 2 (Acute Neuronopathy): Onset prior to 2 years of age, rapidly progressive course that is generally fatal by 4yo
Path: This causes increased accumulation of glucocerebroside both in the reticuloendothelial system AND the brain.
Pt:
Infants are usually normal initially; however, by 2-4 months of age, they start having feeding difficulties and FTT.
They develop strabismus, difficulty swallowing, and opisthotonic posturing.
Unlike the later-presenting forms of Gaucher disease, skeletal involvement is minimal.
Characteristic lab result is an increased plasma tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase.
Bone marrow aspiration shows classic Gaucher storage cells
Dx: Confirm by finding a deficiency of beta-glucosidase in the leukocytes or cultured fibroblasts
Tx: Supportive. Bone marrow transplant and enzyme replacement therapy have NOT been found to be useful in the treatment

Type 3 (Subacute Neuronopathy): Neurologic findings occur before 2yo, but the disease course has slower progression with a patient lifespan into the 2nd-4th decade.
2 main presentations:
1) Type 3a: More prominent neurologic findings with little visceral involvement
Look for isolated, supranuclear, horizontal-gaze palsy. You’ll see blinking, superimposed upward looping of the eyes, and head thrusting.
2) Type 3b: Prominent, severe visceral involvement
Degree of hepatosplenomegaly is impressive and rapidly progressive compared to Type 1
Hepatocellular dysfunction is prominent with FTT, ascites, nosebleeds, and easy bruising.
Progression in the viscera is so rapid that neurologic manifestations are usually masked or never develop
Main finding of neurologic significance can be oculomotor apraxia: Eye movements are not well executed.
Bone marrow shows Gaucher cells
Dx: Confirm by looking for deficiency of beta-glucosidase in leukocytes or cultured skin fibroblasts.
Tx: Bone marrow transplant

Type 4:
Severe Gaucher disease with thick collodion-like skin.

58
Q

Niemann-Pick Disease
___inheritance? disease. _____ deficiency

Type A
Pt:
Neurologic problems occur at 5-10 mo of age with hypotonia, progressive loss of motor skills, and reduction in spontaneous movements
50% of those affected have macular cherry-red spots, but usually those do not appear until after the occurrence of advanced neurologic disorder.
Respiratory failure is a common cause of death, usually by 2-3 years of age
Dx: Finding low levels of sphingomyelinase in leukocytes or cultured fibroblasts
Tx: Supportive

Type B
Path: Is the same as NPD Type A but has more residual enzyme activity; therefore, it is less severe than Type A - with later onset, longer survival, but little-to-no CNS involvement
Pt: Looks and presents like Type 1 Gaucher disease, with isolated hepatosplenomegaly
Bone marrow studies show the _____, as seen in NPD Type A; however, in Type B, the marrow also contains sea-blue histiocytes
Tx: Supportive

Type C (most common)
NOT a lysosomal enzyme disorder but instead is likely due to accumulation of cholesterol esters within and through the lysosome.
Path: Cholesterol accumulates within the lysosomes of the reticuloendothelial system.
Pt:
Most cases occur 3-5 yo with signs of ataxia and hepatosplenomegaly
In older children, the 6-12 year range, presentations usually includes poor school performance, and impaired fine motor skills.
Vertical gaze palsy, cataplexy (sudden loss of motor movement after an emotional scare), and narcolepsy
On exam:
Most common finding is ________ palsy (downward, upward, or both). Voluntary vertical eye movement is lost but reflex “dolls’ eye” movement is preserved.
Dx: Intralysosomal accumulation of unesterified cholesterol in cultured fibroblasts
Tx: Supportive

A

Niemann-Pick Disease
AR disease. Sphingomyelinase deficiency

Type A
Pt:
Neurologic problems occur at 5-10 mo of age with hypotonia, progressive loss of motor skills, and reduction in spontaneous movements
50% of those affected have macular cherry-red spots, but usually those do not appear until after the occurrence of advanced neurologic disorder.
Respiratory failure is a common cause of death, usually by 2-3 years of age
Dx: Finding low levels of sphingomyelinase in leukocytes or cultured fibroblasts
Tx: Supportive

Type B
Path: Is the same as NPD Type A but has more residual enzyme activity; therefore, it is less severe than Type A - with later onset, longer survival, but little-to-no CNS involvement
Pt: Looks and presents like Type 1 Gaucher disease, with isolated hepatosplenomegaly
Bone marrow studies show the foamy storage histocytes, as seen in NPD Type A; however, in Type B, the marrow also contains sea-blue histiocytes
Tx: Supportive

Type C (most common)
NOT a lysosomal enzyme disorder but instead is likely due to accumulation of cholesterol esters within and through the lysosome.
Path: Cholesterol accumulates within the lysosomes of the reticuloendothelial system.
Pt:
Most cases occur 3-5 yo with signs of ataxia and hepatosplenomegaly
In older children, the 6-12 year range, presentations usually includes poor school performance, and impaired fine motor skills.
Vertical gaze palsy, cataplexy (sudden loss of motor movement after an emotional scare), and narcolepsy
On exam:
Most common finding is supranuclear, vertical-gaze palsy (downward, upward, or both). Voluntary vertical eye movement is lost but reflex “dolls’ eye” movement is preserved.
Dx: Intralysosomal accumulation of unesterified cholesterol in cultured fibroblasts
Tx: Supportive

59
Q

Fabry Disease

_______ inherited deficiency of _____
Only sphingolipidosis transmitted in XLR. However, some heterozygous girls develop similar pain crises.

Pt: Abnormalities in kidney, heart, and nervous system
Boys present at puberty with complaints of severe, episodic _________.
Heat exposure, esp during physical exertion, initiates the pain crises, and the pt does not sweat or sweats very little (_______).
Usually by the mid-to-late teenage years, the affected boys develop _______
Renal disease, coronary artery disease, and stroke occur in early adulthood
Renal involvement manifests as progressive proteinuria with birefringent “Maltese crosses” in the urinary sediment
Cerebrovascular complications include hemiparesis, vertigo, diplopia, nystagmus, headache, ataxia, and memory loss.

Dx:
Urine shows casts and ______ (birefringent lipid globules).
Confirm by finding deficiency of lysosomal alpha-galactosidase in plasma, leukocytes, or cultured skin fibroblasts.

Tx:
Painful peripheral neuropathy appears to respond to carbamazepine or gabapentin. IV infusion of purified alpha-galactosidase seems to also relieve pain.
____ is clinically available and approved by the FDA

A

Fabry Disease

X-linked recessive inherited deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A
Only sphingolipidosis transmitted in XLR. However, some heterozygous girls develop similar pain crises.

Pt: Abnormalities in kidney, heart, and nervous system
Boys present at puberty with complaints of severe, episodic neuropathic pain in the hands and feet.
Heat exposure, esp during physical exertion, initiates the pain crises, and the pt does not sweat or sweats very little (hypohidrosis).
Usually by the mid-to-late teenage years, the affected boys develop angiokeratomata
Renal disease, coronary artery disease, and stroke occur in early adulthood
Renal involvement manifests as progressive proteinuria with birefringent “Maltese crosses” in the urinary sediment
Cerebrovascular complications include hemiparesis, vertigo, diplopia, nystagmus, headache, ataxia, and memory loss.

Dx:
Urine shows casts and Maltese crosses (birefringent lipid globules).
Confirm by finding deficiency of lysosomal alpha-galactosidase in plasma, leukocytes, or cultured skin fibroblasts.

Tx:
Painful peripheral neuropathy appears to respond to carbamazepine or gabapentin. IV infusion of purified alpha-galactosidase seems to also relieve pain.
ERT is clinically available and approved by the FDA

60
Q

Tay Sachs Disease - B-hexosaminidase A deficiency
AR

Path: ______ deficiency due to mutations in the HEXA gene. Lysosomal storage disorder with an increasing systemic storage of glycosphingolipid, _____

Pt:
______ disorder with loss of motor skills, increased weakness, decreased alertness, and increased startle response between 3-6 mo, after an initial period of normal development
Physical exam include _______of the fovea centralis of the macula of the retina, normal sized liver and spleen, hyperreflexia, ankle clonus, and diffuse muscular hypotonia.

2 forms:
1) Infantile form
The 1st symptom, usually at 3-6 mo, is frequently an enhanced startle reflex to noise or light and quick extension of the arms and legs with clonic movements. Unlike the Moro reflex, this does not diminish with repeated stimuli.
Axial hypotonia, extremity hypertonia, and hyperreflexia are common.
In >90% of infants, a macular cherry-red spot occurs bilaterally.
By 2-3 yo, the child has decerebrate rigidity and is blind
Frequently, the child dies by 4-5 yo.

2) Juvenile/adult form
Occurs in Ashkenazi Jews and has an indolent presentation.
1st sign may be an intention tremor (usually by 10 yo)
School problems can occur early on with dysarthria
By adolescence proximal muscle weakness occurs with fasciculations and atrophy

Dx:
Demonstration of low-absent level of_____ enzymatic activity with normal-high levels of B-hexosaminidase B isoenzyme in leukocyte enzyme testing

.
Tx: No cure. Management is mainly supportive involving adequate nutrition and hydration, treating infections, and controlling seizures.

A

Tay Sachs Disease - B-hexosaminidase A deficiency
AR

Path: Hexosaminidase A deficiency due to mutations in the HEXA gene. Lysosomal storage disorder with an increasing systemic storage of glycosphingolipid, GM2 ganglioside

Pt:
Neurodegenerative disorder with loss of motor skills, increased weakness, decreased alertness, and increased startle response between 3-6 mo, after an initial period of normal development
Physical exam include cherry-red spot of the fovea centralis of the macula of the retina, normal sized liver and spleen, hyperreflexia, ankle clonus, and diffuse muscular hypotonia.

2 forms:
1) Infantile form
The 1st symptom, usually at 3-6 mo, is frequently an enhanced startle reflex to noise or light and quick extension of the arms and legs with clonic movements. Unlike the Moro reflex, this does not diminish with repeated stimuli.
Axial hypotonia, extremity hypertonia, and hyperreflexia are common.
In >90% of infants, a macular cherry-red spot occurs bilaterally.
By 2-3 yo, the child has decerebrate rigidity and is blind
Frequently, the child dies by 4-5 yo.

2) Juvenile/adult form
Occurs in Ashkenazi Jews and has an indolent presentation.
1st sign may be an intention tremor (usually by 10 yo)
School problems can occur early on with dysarthria
By adolescence proximal muscle weakness occurs with fasciculations and atrophy

Dx:
Demonstration of low-absent level of B-hexosaminidase A enzymatic activity with normal-high levels of B-hexosaminidase B isoenzyme in leukocyte enzyme testing

.
Tx: No cure. Management is mainly supportive involving adequate nutrition and hydration, treating infections, and controlling seizures.

61
Q

Peroxisomal enzymes oxidize very-long- and long-chain fatty acids whereas the mitochondrial enzymes oxidize the long-, medium-, and short-chain fatty acids.

A

Peroxisomal enzymes oxidize very-long- and long-chain fatty acids whereas the mitochondrial enzymes oxidize the long-, medium-, and short-chain fatty acids.

62
Q

Zellweger Syndrome Spectrum (also known as _____ syndrome) (includes Infantile Refsum disease and Neonatal Adrenoleukodystrophy)

___inheritance?

Pt:
Infants have characteristic facies with high forehead, epicanthal folds, broad-based nasal bridge, anteverted nares, and micrognathia
Other prominent findings: Large anterior fontanelle, cataracts, pigmented retinopathy, hearing loss, and vision loss.
Hypotonia, poor feeding, distinctive facies, seizures, and renal and liver disease
Most die before 1yo.

Dx: Confirm with elevated serum levels of very-long-chain fatty acids, phytanic acid, and pipecolic acid

Tx: Symptomatic

A

Zellweger Syndrome Spectrum (also known as cerebrohepatorenal syndrome) (includes Infantile Refsum disease and Neonatal Adrenoleukodystrophy)

AR

Pt:
Infants have characteristic facies with high forehead, epicanthal folds, broad-based nasal bridge, anteverted nares, and micrognathia
Other prominent findings: Large anterior fontanelle, cataracts, pigmented retinopathy, hearing loss, and vision loss.
Hypotonia, poor feeding, distinctive facies, seizures, and renal and liver disease
Most die before 1yo.

Dx: Confirm with elevated serum levels of very-long-chain fatty acids, phytanic acid, and pipecolic acid

Tx: Symptomatic

63
Q

X-Linked Adrenoleukodystrophy (X-ALD)

Characterized by very high levels of very long-chain fatty acids in tissues and body fluids due to their lack of breakdown in peroxisomes.

Pt: Most common presentation is that of degenerative neurologic disorder
Almost all these boys have _____
Consider this in any male with adrenal insufficiency.

Dx: Elevated plasma very-long-chain fatty acid levels, particularly C26:0.

MRI of the brain demonstrates a classic bilateral posterior-predominant inflammatory demyelination affecting the parieto-occipital lobes

______, if performed early, can arrest disease progression

A

X-Linked Adrenoleukodystrophy (X-ALD)

Characterized by very high levels of very long-chain fatty acids in tissues and body fluids due to their lack of breakdown in peroxisomes.

Pt: Most common presentation is that of degenerative neurologic disorder
Almost all these boys have adrenal insufficiency.
Consider this in any male with adrenal insufficiency.

Dx: Elevated plasma very-long-chain fatty acid levels, particularly C26:0.

MRI of the brain demonstrates a classic bilateral posterior-predominant inflammatory demyelination affecting the parieto-occipital lobes

Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation, if performed early, can arrest disease progression

64
Q
Adenylate Deaminase Deficiency
\_\_\_inheritance?
Pt:
Muscle weakness and cramping following vigorous exercise
Many are asymptomatic

Serum ___ may be increased, but there is NO myoglobinuria

A
Adenylate Deaminase Deficiency
AR
Pt:
Muscle weakness and cramping following vigorous exercise
Many are asymptomatic

Serum CK may be increased, but there is NO myoglobinuria

65
Q

Lesch-Nyhan Disease
_____inheritance? disorder.

Path: Caused by deficiency of ____, an enzyme in purine metabolism which preserves hypoxanthine and guanine and then converts them to nucleotides

Pt:
Males are normal at birth but by 3-6 months have FTT, hypotonia, developmental delay, emesis, and irritability.
Most pts exhibit abnormal posturing by 18 months of age.
In the first several years, unusual motor movements manifest, including dystonia, choreoathetosis, and opisthotonos.
By 2-3 years of age, behavioral disturbances and ___decline emerge.
_______, the most disturbing manifestations, develops.
____ and ____occur bc of the huge increase in uric acid production.

Index of suspicion is raised when developmental delay is seen concurrently with hyperuricemia or nephrolithiasis.

Work-up: Urinary urate-to-creatinine ratio will be >____ in a child <10yo who has Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Dx confirmation: Analysis of ____ activity, which should be

A

Lesch-Nyhan Disease
X-linked recessive disorder.

Path: Caused by deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphorylribosyltransferase (HGPRT), an enzyme in purine metabolism which preserves hypoxanthine and guanine and then converts them to nucleotides

Pt:
Males are normal at birth but by 3-6 months have FTT, hypotonia, developmental delay, emesis, and irritability.
Most pts exhibit abnormal posturing by 18 months of age.
In the first several years, unusual motor movements manifest, including dystonia, choreoathetosis, and opisthotonos.
By 2-3 years of age, behavioral disturbances and cognitive decline emerge.
Self-mutilation, the most disturbing manifestations, develops.
Renal stones and gout occur bc of the huge increase in uric acid production.

Index of suspicion is raised when developmental delay is seen concurrently with hyperuricemia or nephrolithiasis.

Work-up: Urinary urate-to-creatinine ratio will be >2.0 in a child <10yo who has Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Dx confirmation: Analysis of HGPRT enzyme activity, which should be <1.5% for diagnosis to show HGPRT deficiency in RBCs and cultured skin fibroblasts.

Tx:
Allopurinol to decrease uric levels for the urate nephropathy, gouty arthritis, tophi, and nephrolithiasis. However, this tx has no impact on the behavioral and neurologic symptoms of the disorder.

66
Q

Menkes Disease (Kinky Hair Disease)
Very rare_____inheritance? disease (therefore, only present in males).
Path: Due to mutation in the Menkes gene (____), which causes impaired uptake of ____.

Pt:
Males usually present in the neonatal period with premature delivery, temperature instability, hypothermia, hypotonia, and hypoglycemia.
____ hair disease bc of the characteristic look of the hair
Under the microscope, the hair has pili torti
By 2-3 mo of age, infants have progressive _____ deterioration along with seizures and loss of milestones
This is one of the few genetic diseases that can have ___ and ____ not due to child abuse.

Low serum ___ and ___
Cannot rely on copper and ceruloplasmin levels bc they are normally low in infants.

Dx: Partial deficiency of dopamine-beta-hydroxylase is a hallmark of Menkes disease.

A

Menkes Disease (Kinky Hair Disease)
Very rare X-linked recessive disease (therefore, only present in males).
Path: Due to mutation in the Menkes gene (ATP7A), which causes impaired uptake of copper.

Pt:
Males usually present in the neonatal period with premature delivery, temperature instability, hypothermia, hypotonia, and hypoglycemia.
Kinky hair disease bc of the characteristic look of the hair
Under the microscope, the hair has pili torti
By 2-3 mo of age, infants have progressive neurologic deterioration along with seizures and loss of milestones
This is one of the few genetic diseases that can have subdural hematomas and retinal hemorrhages not due to child abuse.

Low serum copper and ceruloplasmin
Cannot rely on copper and ceruloplasmin levels bc they are normally low in infants.

Dx: Partial deficiency of dopamine-beta-hydroxylase is a hallmark of Menkes disease.