Oncogenesis and Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

What are the cell cycle stages

A

G0
G1 - cell grows to full size
S - DNA synthesis
G2 - rapid cell contents productions
M - cell division
Cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does G1 checkpoint check for

A

nutrients
growth factors
DNA damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does G2 checkpoint check for

A

cell size
DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does metaphase checkpoint check for

A

chromosome spindle attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why are cyclins degraded

A

avoid uncontrolled chain reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do CDKs become active

A

bound to cyclins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the action of cyclin/CDK

A

phosphorylate Rb
Rb changes in conformation
RB uncouples from E2F
E2F acts as a TF for S phase gene transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Types of genes which are mutated in cancer

A

proto-oncogenes
oncogenes
tumour suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are proto oncogenes

A

genes that possess normal gene products and stimulate normal cell development
e.g. GF (C-Myc and K-Ras)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do oncogenes form

A

gain of function mutation of protooncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are oncogenes

A

more active than normal or active at inappropriate times and stimulate unregulated cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a tumour suppressor gene

A

gene that’s normal function is to constrain cell proliferation and partial or complete inactivation lead to an increased likelihood of cancer development
e.g. p53 and Rb
loss of function can cause cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is p53 activated

A

DNA damage
cell cycle abnormalities
hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the function of normal p53

A

apoptosis
cell cycle arrest
DNA repair
cell cycle restart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

mutant p53

A

present in >50% of all cancers, inhibits self removal of the mutant cells, prolongs propagation and proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Two groups associated with tumorigenesis

A

gain of function - inappropriate activation of oncogenes
loss of function - inactivation of tumour suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are common properties of cancer cells

A

-resisting cell death
-sustaining proliferative signalling
-evading growth suppressors
-activating invasion and metastasis
-enabling replicative immortality
-inducing angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 6 steps of cancer diagnosis/progression defined at the molecular level

A
  1. self sufficiency of growth (overproducing GFs)
  2. do not respond to usual growth inhibitory signals e.g. cell cycle cycle checkpoints
  3. evasion of apoptotic mechanisms e.g. p53 mutations
  4. immortalisation e.g. loss of telomere shortening
  5. neoangiogenesis e.g. overproduction of VEGF for new vessels
  6. invasion and metastasis e.g. alterations in production of cellular adhesion molecules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the hallmarks of cancer

A

emerging: deregulating cellular energetics and avoiding immune destruction
enabling characteristics: genome instability and tumour promoting inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

point mutations

A

change in an individual base pair of a DNA sequence
e.g. p53 and k-Ras mutations

21
Q

What occurs in avain leukosis virus (ALV)

A

viral genome integrates into the host genome and uses its trong promoter and enhancer sequences to alter the expression of nearby genes (c-Myc), inducing tumours

22
Q

Example of translocation

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
translocation between chromosome 8 and 14
c-Myc under the control for the antibody heavy chain gene (CH)
high expression of c-myc and excessive cell division causing cancer

23
Q

How long does a multi-step process take

24
Q

Example of knudson 2 hit hypothesis

A

retinoblastoma - childhood cancer of the eye
hereditary (40% in both eyes) - one mutation is inherited (silent), second hit in retinal cells

sporadic (60% in one eye) - 2 hits in same eye in somatic tissue

25
vogelstein's model of colorectal carcinogenesis
Chromosome 5q APC mutation DNA hypomethylation Chr 12p K-Ras mutation Chr 18q DCC loss Chr 17p TP53 loss other alterations
26
Ras-Raf-MAPK pathway
1. GF binding 2. conformational change in shape 3. adapter protein phosphorylated 4. Ras activated 5. MEK phosphorylation 6. stimulates cell growth 7. MAPK activated
27
cancer initiators
chemical carcinogens viruses radiation BRCA mutation unknown factors
28
cancer promoters
inflammation hormones normal growth promoters
29
example of occupational cancers
asbestos increases the chances of mesothelioma
30
alcohol related cancers
-cancer of the mouth and oesophagus -head and neck cancer -bowel cancer -liver cancer -pancreatic cancer -breast cancer
31
where is cancer common due to UV exposure
australia NZ
32
Virus related cancers
Hep B - Liver Hep C - Liver HPV - Uterine cervix EBV - Burkitt's lymphoma/nasopharynx, Hogdkin's disease
33
microorganism related cancer
Helicobacter pylori - stomach Schistosoma haematobrium - urinary bladder
34
Iatrogenic agents
ionizing radiation - breast/lung/leukemia chemotherapy - bone marrow immunosupressive drugs exogenous hormones - breast
35
What is hyperplasia
excessive number of cells
36
what is metaplasia
normal cells of one differentiated type displaced by another type of differentiated cells
37
What is dysplasia
cytologically abnormal cells -variability in nucleus size and shape -increased nuclear staining -increased ratio of nuclear vs cytoplasmic size -increased mitotic activity -lack of cytoplasmic features
38
Benign or Malignant
1) degree of differentiation/anaplasia 2) rate of growth 3) local invasion 4) metastasis
39
degree of differentiation/anaplasia
Benign - well differentiated, few mitosis Malignant - well differentiated to undifferentiated (anaplasia)
40
more rapid growth =
less differentiated
41
rate of growth
Benign tumours - slow malignant tumours - quick
42
local invasion
benign tumours are rarely invasive and delineated by a fibrous capsule malignant tumours - infiltration of surrounding tissue and invasion to adjacent via breaching of basement membrane if pre-invasive (within basement membrane) - carcinoma in situ
43
Metastasis
benign tumours do not metastasise - compress adjacent tissue malignant tumours locally invade and travel to the blood/lymph to establish secondary tumours
44
grading of tumours
-differentiation -pleiomorphism mitotic index
45
staging of tumours
TNM
46
T
tumour T0 = breast free of tumour T1 = lesion <2cm T2 = lesion 2-5cm T3 = skin/chest wall involved by invasion
47
N
nodes N0 = no axillary nodes involved N1 = mobile nodes involved N2 = fixed nodes involved
48
M
metastasis M0= no metastases M1 = demonstrable metastases MX = suspected metastases