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OMM Flashcards

1
Q

2 major RF for develop LBP in preg?

A
  • smoke

- heavy manual labor

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2
Q

boggy tissue w increased moisture –> acute or chronic SD?

A

acute

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3
Q

ropy tissue –> acute or chronic SD?

A

chronic

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4
Q

burning tenderness –> acute or chronic SD?

A

chronic

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5
Q

what is hysteresis

A

“stress-strain”: time bw elasticity & creep

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6
Q

what is creep

A

capacity of fascia & other tissues to lengthen when subjected to constant tension –> result in less resistance to 2nd load application

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7
Q

hysteresis represents loss of what in connective tissue system?

A

energy

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8
Q

according to concept of creep –> tissue that is under slow, long lasting stress will eventually lose what?

A

tissue –> slow, long lasting stress –> lose elastic qualities –> not “go back”

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9
Q

anatomic barrier –> limit of what type of motion?

A

passive

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10
Q

physiologic barrier –> limit of what type of motion?

A

active

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11
Q

what is elastic barrier

A

barrier bw anatomic & physiologic

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12
Q

what happens if go past anatomic barrier?

A

tissue damage

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13
Q

what happens if go past anatomic barrier?

A

tissue damage

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14
Q

what cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibers?

A

3, 7, 9, 10

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15
Q

plumb line for perfect posture –> line should go thru what 8 pts?

A
  • coronal suture
  • external auditory meatus
  • cervical vertebral bodies
  • shoulder jt
  • lumbar vertebral bodies
  • hip jt
  • knee jt
  • lat malleolus
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16
Q

normal walking cycle –> 2 phases? what % of time in each phase?

A
  • stance –> foot on ground (60%)

- swing –> foot swing forward (40%)

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17
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what kind of sacral mvmt?

A

left on L oblique axis

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18
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what direction lumbar spine SB? rot?

A

SB –> L

rot –> R

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19
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what happen to R innominate?

A

as leg raised –> mv from ant to post

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20
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what direction thoracic spine rot?

A

L

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21
Q

normal walking cycle –> when R foot lift & wt shift to L leg –> what direction thoracic spine rot?

A

L

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22
Q

HVLA –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct
  • passive
  • extrinsic
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23
Q

ME –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct
  • active
  • extrinsic, intrinsic
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24
Q

ST –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct
  • passive
  • extrinsic, intrinsic
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25
Q

S/CS –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • indirect
  • passive
  • extrinsic, intrinsic
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26
Q

cranial –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct, indirect
  • passive
  • extrinsic, intrinsic
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27
Q

myofascial –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct, indirect
  • passive
  • extrinsic, intrinsic
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28
Q

springing –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct
  • passive
  • extrinsic, intrinsic
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29
Q

articulatory –> utilizes what type of forces?

  • direct/indirect
  • active/passive
  • extrinsic/intrinsic
A
  • direct
  • passive
  • extrinsic, intrinsic
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30
Q

what is Dalrymple treatment?

A

lymphatic pump via feet

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31
Q

what is effleurage?

A

stroking mvmt –> mv fluids

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32
Q

what is petrisage?

A

deep knead/squeeze –> express swelling

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33
Q

what is tapotement?

A

strike belly of muscle –> increase tone, arterial perfusion

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34
Q

what is klapping?

A

strike skin w cupped hand –> loosen material

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35
Q

do soft tissue techniques correct jts?

A

no

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36
Q

muscle energy –> during what part of treatment is neuromusc apparatus reset?

A

relaxation phase (refractory state)

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37
Q

isometric –> what happens to muscle:

  • length
  • tension
A
  • length: no change

- tension: increase

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38
Q

isotonic –> what happens to muscle:

  • length
  • tension
A
  • length: shorter

- tension: no change

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39
Q

isolytic –> what happens to muscle:

  • length
  • tension
A
  • length: longer

- tension: increase

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40
Q

isometric:
- who “wins”?
- what is it used for?

A
  • nobody win

- correct SD

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41
Q

isotonic:
- who “wins”?
- what is it used for?

A
  • pt win

- strengthen physiologic weak muscle

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42
Q

isolytic:
- who “wins”?
- what is it used for?

A
  • physician win

- break up adhesions/scarring

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43
Q

approximation of origin/insertion w/out change muscle tension –> what type of muscle energy?

A

isotonic (concentric)

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44
Q

contracture of muscle w forced lengthening –> what type of muscle energy?

A

isolytic (eccentric)

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45
Q

goal of oculocephalogyric reflex

A

affect reflex muscle contraction using eye motion

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46
Q

oculocephalogyric reflex –> eye mvmts affect what musculature (2)?

A
  • cervical

- truncal

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47
Q

oculocephalogyric reflex –> should have pt look to what direction to relax R side?

A

L

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48
Q

Down synd –> why cervical HVLA is contraindicated?

A

laxity of transverse, alar lig of atlas

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49
Q

HVLA –> which are absolute contraindication? which are relative?

  • RA
  • Down synd
  • OA
  • osteoporosis
  • disc herniation
A

absolute:
- RA of cervical spine
- Down synd

relative:
- RA (not cervical spine)
- OA
- osteoporosis
- disc herniation

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50
Q

S/CS –> usu hold for 90sec –> what body region needs to be held for 120sec?

A

ribs

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51
Q

S/CS –> as a general rule –> when more midline, use more of what type of motion to trt? when farther from midline, need to also utilize what type of motion?

A

close to midline –> more flex/extend

far from midline –> also use SB/rot

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52
Q

ant cervical TP –> tx

A

flex –> SARA

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53
Q

where is ant L5 TP?

A

lat to pubic symphysis

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54
Q

ant C3 TP –> tx

A

extend –> SARA

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55
Q

piriformis TP –> tx

A

flex hip >90 –> abduct –> finetune w ext/int rot

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56
Q

myofascial release –> tx technique

A
  • position of ease

- hold til release

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57
Q

FPR –> tx technique

A
  • place in neutral
  • position of ease
  • compress
  • hold for 3-5sec
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58
Q

what grp of muscles are responsible for knee flex?

A

hamstrings

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59
Q

hamstrings –> include what muscles?

A

BITE ME:

  • biceps femoris
  • semitendinosus
  • semimembranosus
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60
Q

still technique –> tx technique

A
  • position of ease
  • exagg til tissue relax
  • compress
  • mv thru restriction
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61
Q

Chapman pt –> pathophys

A

diseased organ –> excess sympathetic tone –> focal area of hyperirritability, ischemia, tissue congest –> chapman pt

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62
Q

Chapman pt –> tx

A

decrease SNS tone –> net increase in PSNS tone

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63
Q

OMM exam –> find pt that very painful, not radiate –> what pt is this?

A

chapman pt

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64
Q

OMM exam –> find pt that very painful, pain radiate –> what pt is this?

A

trigger pt

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65
Q

ant chapman pt –> feels like?

A

small nodule –> smooth, firm, discrete, tender

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66
Q

post chapman pt –> feels like?

A

rubbery

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67
Q

ant chapman pt –> location (2)

A
  • w/in deep fascia

- on periosteum

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68
Q

post chapman pt –> location (2)

A
  • bw SP & TP

- near costo-transverse struct

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69
Q

otitis media –> chapman pt location?

A

superior clavicle

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70
Q

pharyngitis –> chapman pt location?

A

superior 1st rib –> just lat to manubrium

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71
Q

sinusitis –> chapman pt location?

A

superior 2nd rib

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72
Q

conjunctivitis –> chapman pt location?

A

lat humerus

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73
Q

heart dz –> chapman pt location?

A

bw rib 2-3 –> just lat to sternum

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74
Q

liver –> upper, mid, or lower GI?

A

upper

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75
Q

GB –> upper, mid, or lower GI?

A

upper

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76
Q

spleen –> upper, mid, or lower GI?

A

upper

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77
Q

pancreas –> upper, mid, or lower GI?

A

upper & mid

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78
Q

inf mesenteric ganglion –> location

A

umbilicus

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79
Q

celiac ganglion –> location

A

below xiphoid

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80
Q

trigger pt –> location

A

w/in taut band of skeletal muscle or in muscle fascia

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81
Q

what does trigger pt represent?

A

somatic manifestation of viscerosomatic/somatovisceral/somatosomatic reflex

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82
Q

press trigger pt –> what does it feel like?

A

hypersens –> charact referred pain, tender, autonomic phenomena

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83
Q

trigger pt –> pathophys

A

direct stimuli to muscle –> muscle strain, overwork, posture imbalance (initiate trigger pt) –> continuous sensory input –> –> spinal cord –> sensitize interneurons –> maintain trigger pt

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84
Q

trigger pt –> tx (7)

A
  • vapo-coolant spray
  • local anes inject
  • dry needle
  • reciprocal inh
  • ischemic compress
  • ME
  • myofascial release
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85
Q

what is key articulation for all cranial motion

A

sphenobasilar synchrondrosis: base of sphenoid meet base of occiput

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86
Q

cranial: flex –> what happens to sacral base

A

mv post/sup

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87
Q

cranial: extend –> what happens to sacral base

A

mv ant/inf

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88
Q

inhale –> what happens to cranial bones

A

FLowER:
midline bones –> flex
paired bones –> ext rot

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89
Q

inhale –> what happens to:

  • AP diameter
  • transverse
A

AP: shorten
transverse: increase

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90
Q

exhale –> what happens to cranial bones

A

midline bones: extend

paired bones: int rot

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91
Q

exhale –> what happens to:

  • AP diameter
  • transverse
A

AP: increase
transverse: decrease

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92
Q

dura –> aka?

A

reciprocal tension membrane

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93
Q

what are the 3 dural reflections

A
  • falx cerebri
  • falx cerebelli
  • tentorium cerebelli
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94
Q

dura –> firmly attaches where (4)

A
  • foramen magnum
  • C2
  • C3
  • S2 –> post/sup
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95
Q

what is responsible for cranial rhythmic impulse (CRI)?

A

1ary resp mechanism

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96
Q

what is 1ary resp mechanism (PRM)

A

5 compts that fx together to ctrl & reg:

  • pulm resp (2ary resp)
  • circulation
  • digestion
  • elimination
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97
Q

what is normal CRI

A

6-12cycles/min

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98
Q

what are 5 compts of PRM

A
  • inherent motility of CNS w resp
  • fluctuation of CSF
  • mobility of dura
  • mobility of cranial bones
  • mobility of sacrum
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99
Q

vault hold –> finger positions

A
  • index –> greater wing of sphenoid
  • 3rd finger –> front of ear –> temporal bone
  • 4th finger –> behind ear –> mastoid region of temporal
  • little finger –> lat angle of occiput
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100
Q

dysfx of what CN can cause tinnitis

A

CN VIII

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101
Q

tinnitis –> trt what cranial bones?

A

temporal

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102
Q

tinnitis –> high pitched –> indicates temporals are in what position?

A

int rot

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103
Q

tinnitis –> low pitched –> indicates temporals are in what position?

A

ext rot

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104
Q

HA on L side –> indicates what SD?

A

R torsion

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105
Q

HA –> wing of sphenoid is low on what side of HA?

A

same side

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106
Q

which are worse –> extension or flexion HA?

A

extension

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107
Q

anosmia –> trt what bone?

A

ethmoid

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108
Q

temporal dysfx –> can affect what CN? why?

A

CN 9, 10, 11 –> go thru jug foramen

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109
Q

what is core link

A

dural connection of occiput & sacrum

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110
Q

vagal SD –> can be d/t dysfx of what (3)

A
  • OA
  • AA
  • C2
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111
Q

newborn –> poor suckling –> may be d/t to what condition?

A

occipital condylar compression (CN 12)

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112
Q

newborn –> poor suckling –> tx

A

decompress occipital condyles

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113
Q

cranial: CV-IV (bulb decompress) –> goal?

A

stim body’s inherent therapeutic potency

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114
Q

cranial: CV-IV (bulb decompress) –> whom?

A

F past due date

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115
Q

cranial: CV-IV (bulb decompress) –> encourages what type of mvmt of cranial bones?

A

int rot/ext

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116
Q

cranial: VSD –> indications? (2)

A
  • rigid head

- sinusitis/allergic rhinitis/migraine/throbbing

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117
Q

cranial: VSD –> trts what 5 parts

A
  • occipital sinus (falx cerebelli)
  • transverse sinus (tentorium cerebelli)
  • straight sinus (Sutherland’s fulcrum)
  • sagittal sinus (falx cerebri)
  • metopic suture
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118
Q

cranial: V-spread (contre coup) –> goal?

A

release peripheral sutures

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119
Q

cranial: temporal rocking –> goal?

A

reduce/increase CRI

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120
Q

temporal –> ext rot –> what happens to mastoid process?

A

mv post/med

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121
Q

temporal –> int rot –> what happens to mastoid process?

A

mv ant/lat

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122
Q

what is Galbreath technique

A

facial sinus pressure –> stroke –> lymph drain

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123
Q

cranial: parietal lift –> indication

A

HA at vertex

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124
Q

cranial: frontal lift –> indication

A

frontal sinus HA

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125
Q

cranial: what are the midline bones (4)

A
  • sphenoid
  • occiput
  • vomer
  • ethmoid
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126
Q

what is the axis for rotation of temporal bone

A

petrous ridge

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127
Q

CCP: R leg length

A

shorter

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128
Q

CCP: resp motion

A

motion of abd wall down to umbilicus instead of to pubic symphysis

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129
Q

CCP: R iliac crest –> cephalad or caudad

A

caudad

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130
Q

CCP: R ASIS –> inf or sup? med or lat?

A

inf med

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131
Q

CCP: R pubic symphysis –> cephalad or caudad?

A

caudad

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132
Q

CCP: R innominate –> fascial drag –> cephalad or caudad?

A

caudad

133
Q

CCP: R innominate –> ant or post rot?

A

ant

134
Q

CCP: upper thorax –> rot clockwise or CCW?

A

clockwise

135
Q

CCP: lower thorax –> shift L or R?

A

L

136
Q

CCP: R costal margins –> resist compression or easy to compress?

A

easy

137
Q

CCP: R 1st rib –> ant or post?

A

post

138
Q

CCP: R 1st rib –> elevated or depressed?

A

depressed

139
Q

CCP: R infraclavicular –> concave or convex?

A

concave

140
Q

CCP: rib cartilage 2-6 on R –> deep or stickyouty?

A

deep

141
Q

CCP: R arm –> longer or shorter?

A

longer

142
Q

CCP: head –> turned L or R? SB L or R?

A

turned L –> SB R

143
Q

CCP: vertebra 2 –> rot L or R?

A

L

144
Q

CCP: R sacral sulcus –> deep or stickyouty?

A

deep

145
Q

CCP: R ILA –> ant/post? sup/inf?

A

ant sup

146
Q

CCP: sacral fascial drag –> cephalad or caudad?

A

cephalad

147
Q

CCP: sacral tender points present?

A

no

148
Q

CCP: sphinx test pos or neg?

A

neg

149
Q

CCP: sacral diagnosis

A

L on L forward sacral torsion

150
Q

muscles: hip flexor

A

RIP:

  • rectus femoris
  • iliacus
  • psoas major
151
Q

muscles: hip extensors

A

hamstrings –> BITE ME:

  • biceps femoris
  • semitendinosis
  • semimembranosus
152
Q

muscles: knee extensors

A

quadriceps femoris:

  • vastus lat
  • vast medialis
  • vastus intermedius
  • rectus femoris
153
Q

muscles: hip adductors

A

GAAP:

  • gracilis
  • adductor magnus
  • adductor longus
  • adductor brevis
  • pectineus
154
Q

muscles: hip abductors

A
  • gluteus medius/minimus

- tensor fascia lata

155
Q

muscles: ext rotators

A

piriformis

156
Q

iliacus TP –> tx

A

cross ankles –> rest on leg

157
Q

adductor TP –> tx

A

flex hip & knee –> adduct hip –> slight ext rot

158
Q

sup pubic shear –> tx utilizes what muscle grp?

A

hip adductors

159
Q

sup pubic shear –> ME tx

A

leg off table –> pt push knee toward opp shoulder

160
Q

inf pubic shear –> tx utilizes what muscle grp?

A

hip extensors

161
Q

inf pubic shear –> ME tx

A
  • leg on shoulder
  • cup ischial tuberosity –> push superiorly
  • monitor SI jt
162
Q

ant rot innominate –> ME tx

A
  • leg on shoulder

- monitor SI jt

163
Q

ant rot innominate –> tx utilizes what muscle grp?

A

hip extensors

164
Q

post rot innominate –> tx utilizes what muscle grp?

A

hip flexors

165
Q

post rot innominate –> ME tx

A

leg off table –> pt push knee toward same shoulder

166
Q

ant rot innominate –> HVLA tx

A

abduct leg –> lift 30deg off table

167
Q

post rot innominate –> HVLA tx

A

abduct leg

168
Q

upslipped innominate

A 
superior
IT + 2 of following: 
- iliac crest
- ASIS
- pubic tubercle
- PSIS
169
Q

R upslipped innominate –> ME tx

A
  • R leg –> slight abduct –> int rot –> pull leg

- L foot on thigh –> push on thigh

170
Q

location: S1 TP

A

sacral sulcus

171
Q

location: S2 TP

A

sacral base –> midline

172
Q

location: S3 TP

A

middle of sacrum

173
Q

location: S4 TP

A

sacral apex

174
Q

location: S5 TP

A

ILA

175
Q

sacrum –> caudad skin drag –> assoc w what SD (2)

A
  • backward sacral torsion

- sacral extension

176
Q

sacrum –> cephalad skin drag –> assoc w what SD (2)

A
  • forward sacral torsion

- sacral flexion

177
Q

ischial tuberosity spread –> can be used to trt what sacral SD?

A

forward sacral torsion

178
Q

lat sims technique –> used for what SD?

A

forward sacral torsion

179
Q

forward sacral torsion –> ME tx –> lumbar spine should flexed and rot in what direction relative to the torsion?

A

same direction

180
Q

sacral dx:

  • R deep sulcus
  • L inf/post ILA
  • neg sphinx
A

L on L FST

181
Q

sacral dx:

  • R deep sulcus
  • L inf/post ILA
  • pos sphinx
A

L on R BST

182
Q

sacral dx:

  • L deep sulcus
  • R inf/post ILA
  • neg sphinx
A

R on R FST

183
Q

sacral dx:

  • L deep sulcus
  • R inf/post ILA
  • pos sphinx
A

R on L BST

184
Q

sacral dx:

  • L deep sulcus
  • L inf/post ILA
  • neg sphinx
A

L unilat flexion

185
Q

sacral dx:

  • L deep sulcus
  • L inf/post ILA
  • pos sphinx
A

R unilat extension

186
Q

sacral dx:

  • R deep sulcus
  • R inf/post ILA
  • neg sphinx
A

R unitlat flexion

187
Q

sacral dx:

  • R deep sulcus
  • R inf/post ILA
  • pos sphinx
A

L unilat extension

188
Q

lat recumbent technique –> used for what SD?

A

backward sacral torsion

189
Q

location: quadratus lumborum TP

A

tip of rib 12

190
Q

location: ant thoracic 1-6 TP

A

midline sternum

191
Q

location: ant thoracic 12 TP

A

mid-axillary line –> inner iliac crest

192
Q

ant thoracic 12 TP –> tx

A

stand on same side –> legs on knee –> SB/rot toward

193
Q

post spinous process 1-12 TP –> tx

A

1-4 –> arms off table
5-9 –> hands under abd
10-12 –> hands under ASIS

194
Q

post transverse process 1-12 TP –> tx

A

same side arm –> up next to head

195
Q

locked up SD –> aka?

A
  • inhalation SD

- exhalation restriction

196
Q

locked up SD –> key rib?

A

inf

197
Q

locked down SD –> aka?

A
  • exhalation SD

- inhalation restriction

198
Q

locked down SD –> key rib?

A

sup

199
Q

ant rib TP –> location according to DMU? according to boards?

A

DMU:

  • rib 1-2 –> midclavicular
  • 3-6 –> mid-axillary

Boards: ant axillary line

200
Q

ant rib TP –> tx

A

opp arm on leg –> ipsilat arm off back of table –> SB/rot toward –> flex head

201
Q

post rib TP –> tx

A

same arm on leg –> other arm off back of table –> SB/rot away –> flex head

202
Q

locked up ribs –> assoc w what TP?

A

post rib TP

203
Q

locked down ribs –> assoc w what TP?

A

ant rib TP

204
Q

locked up rib 1-5 –> ME tx

A

flex

205
Q

locked up rib 6-10 –> ME tx

A

flex & SB

206
Q

locked up rib 11-12 –> ME tx –> utilizes what muscle?

A

quadratus lumborum

207
Q

locked down rib 1 –> ME tx –> utilizes what muscle?

A

ant & mid scalene

208
Q

locked down rib 1 –> ME tx

A

hand on head –> turn head 5-10deg away –> hold breath in –> push head into hand

209
Q

locked down rib 2 –> ME tx –> utilizes what muscle?

A

post scalene

210
Q

locked down rib 2 –> ME tx

A

hand on head –> turn head 20-30deg away –> hold breath in –> push head into hand

211
Q

locked down rib 3-5 –> ME tx –> utilizes what muscle?

A

pect minor

212
Q

locked down rib 3-5 –> ME tx

A

hand on ear –> my hand on elbow –> hold breath in –> push elbow toward opp ASIS

213
Q

locked down rib 6-9 –> ME tx –> utilizes what muscle?

A

serratus ant

214
Q

locked down rib 6-9 –> ME tx

A

arm up 90deg –> i hold elbow –> hold breath in –> push elbow into hand

215
Q

locked down rib 10-12 –> ME tx –> utilizes what muscle?

A

lat dorsi

216
Q

locked down rib 10-12 –> ME tx

A

arm up –> taco –> hold breath in –> push ASIS into hand

217
Q

C2 –> R articular pillar deeper in flexion –> better in ext –> diagnosis?

A

C2 ESrRr

218
Q

location: post C1 TP

A

lat to inion TP

219
Q

post C1 TP –> tx

A

ESARA

220
Q

location: post C2 TP

A

C2 –> sup lat spinous process

221
Q

post C2 TP

A

ESARA

222
Q

location: post C3 TP

A

C2 –> inf lat spinous process

223
Q

post C3 TP –> tx

A

FSARA

224
Q

location: post C4-8 TP

A

inf lat spinous process above level

225
Q

post C4-8 TP –> tx

A

ESARA

226
Q

location: ant C1 TP

A

post ramus of mandible

227
Q

ant C1 TP –> tx

A

rotate away

228
Q

location: ant C2-6 TP

A

ant transverse process

229
Q

ant C2-6 TP –> tx

A

FSARA

230
Q

location: levator scap TP

A

sup med scapula

231
Q

levator scap TP –> tx

A

hand on chin –> push elbow down

232
Q

location: trapezius TP

A

anywhere along upper part of trap

233
Q

trapezius TP –> tx

A

arm over monitoring hand –> SB/rot head toward

234
Q

location: omohyoid TP

A
  • suprascapular notch

- over rib

235
Q

omohyoid TP –> tx

A

arm over monitoring hand –> SB/rot head toward –> push hyoid toward

236
Q

DTR: biceps –> what nerve?

A

C5

237
Q

DTR: brachioradialis –> what nerve?

A

C6

238
Q

DTR: triceps –> what nerve?

A

C7

239
Q

DTR: patellar –> what nerve?

A

L4

240
Q

DTR: achilles –> what nerve?

A

S1

241
Q

motor test: C5

A
  • elbow flex

- shoulder abduct

242
Q

motor test: C6

A

wrist extend

243
Q

motor test: C7

A

elbow extend

244
Q

motor test: C8

A

finger flex

245
Q

motor test: T1

A

finger abduct

246
Q

motor test: L2

A

hip flex

247
Q

motor test: L3

A

knee extend

248
Q

motor test: L4

A

ankle dorsiflex

249
Q

motor test: L5

A

big toe extend

250
Q

motor test: S1

A

ankle plantarflex

251
Q

sensory test: UE

A 
C3: supraclavicular fossa
C4: AC jt
C5: lat antecubital fossa
C6: dorsal thumb
C7: dorsal middle finger
C8: dorsal little finger
T1: med antecubital fossa
252
Q

sensory test: LE

A 
L2: ant med thigh
L3: medial above knee
L4: medial malleolus
L5: dorsal middle toe
S1: lat calcaneus
S2: mid popliteal fossa
253
Q

Bragard’s sign

A

SLR –> lower leg til no ssx –> dorsiflex foot –> pain recur –> sciatic N irritation NOT sacroiliac, hamstring dysfx

254
Q

sciatic N –> nerve roots?

A

L4, L5, S1

255
Q

what is a positive Faber’s test? indicates?

A

pain:
- ant/lat pelvis –> hip dysfx
- post pelvis –> sacroiliac dysfx

256
Q

femoral N roots

A

L2, L3, L4

257
Q

what are the 3 physiologic (normal) end feels?

A
  • hard
  • elastic
  • tissue approximation
258
Q

what are the 2 pathologic (abnormal) end feels?

A
  • guarding (or empty)

- muscle spasm

259
Q

venous sinus drainage –> straight sinus –> finger positions:

  • pinky
  • thumb
A
  • pinky: inion

- thumb: bregma

260
Q

cranial: flex/extend
- axis
- direction
- named by

A
  • axis: 2 tranverse
  • direction: opp
  • named by: sphenobasilar angle
261
Q

cranial: torsion
- axis
- direction
- named by

A
  • axis: 1 AP
  • direction: opp
  • named by: sup greater wing of sphenoid
262
Q

cranial: SB
- axis
- direction
- named by

A
  • axis: 2 vertical
  • direction: opp
  • named by: side of convex
263
Q

cranial: rot
- axis
- direction
- named by

A
  • axis: 1 AP
  • direction: same
  • named by: side that drop inf
264
Q

cranial: verticle strain
- axis
- direction
- named by

A
  • axis: 2 transverse
  • direction: same
  • named by: base of sphenoid inf/sup
265
Q

cranial: lat strain
- axis
- direction
- named by

A
  • axis: 2 vertical
  • direction: same
  • named by: base of sphenoid L/R
266
Q

cranial: compression
- axis
- direction

A
  • axis: 1 AP

- direction: into each other

267
Q

sternoclavicular jt –> MC diagnoses

A
  • restricted abduct

- restricted flex

268
Q

cranial: torsion –> cause

A

direct blow from above/below

269
Q

cranial: SB/rot –> cause

A

lat force direct at level of SVS

270
Q

cranial: vertical strain –> cause

A

traumatic blow –> from above or below –> A/P to plane of SBS

271
Q

cranial: lat strain –> cause

A

traumatic blow –> side of head –> A/P to SBS

272
Q

cranial: compression –> cause

A

traumatic blow –> nose, back of head –> in line w SBS –> decrease CRI

273
Q

OA –> main motion

A

flex/ext

274
Q

AA –> main motion

A

rot

275
Q

lower cervical –> main motion

A

SB

276
Q

which vertebrae have bifid spinous process?

A

C2-6

277
Q

vertebral A –> pass thru which vertebrae? thru what struct of the vertebrae?

A

C1-6 –> transverse foramina

278
Q

what happens w unilat contract of SCM?

A

SB toward

rot away

279
Q

what is uncinate process

A

C3-C7 –> vertebral body –> sup side –> lat projection:

  • support lat side of cervical discs
  • protect cervical nerve roots from disc herniation
280
Q

what is uncovertebral jt (of Luschka)

A

articulation of sup uncinate process w supraadj vertebra

281
Q

what is MC cause of nerve root pressure

A

degen of jts of Luschka + hypertrophic arthritis of intervertebral (facet) jts

282
Q

CN 7 –> found bw what 2 vertebrae?

A

bw 6 & 7

283
Q

cervical disc hernia –> MC level? 2nd MC?

A

C5-6

C6-7

284
Q

zygapophyseal jt –> allows what motion?

A

coupled rot & SB –> same side

285
Q

Spurling test –> tests for?

A

cervical nerve root impingement

286
Q

Wallenberg test –> tests for?

A

vertebral A insuff

287
Q

what is Underburg’s test?

A

variation of Wallenberg test

288
Q

Lhermitte’s sign –> tests for?

A

lesions affecting dorsal column of C-spine or caudal medulla

289
Q

Lhermitte’s sign –> what is a positive test?

A

active neck flex –> electric sensation down spine

290
Q

what tests test for meningeal irritation (2)?

A
  • Brudzinski’s

- Kernig’s

291
Q

what tests test for meningeal irritation (2)?

A
  • Brudzinski’s

- Kernig’s

292
Q

which spinal region has least motion?

A

thoracic

293
Q

post long spinal lig –> prevents too much of what motion?

A

hyperflex

294
Q

name motions of thoracic spine from greatest to least

A

rot > BS > flex > ext

295
Q

what non-GI organs are innervated by inf mesenteric ganglion (3)

A
  • bladder
  • ovary
  • prostate
296
Q

what is mod scoliosis

A

cobb angle 20-45

297
Q

what is severe scoliosis

A

cobb angle >50

298
Q

mod scoliosis –> tx

A

+ brace w spinal orthotic

299
Q

mild scoliosis –> tx

A

conservative:
- PT
- Konstancin exercise
- OMT

300
Q

scoliosis –> when is resp fx compromised

A

thoracic curve >50

301
Q

scoliosis –> when is CV fx compromised

A

> 75

302
Q

what is MCC of anatomic leg length discrepancy

A

hip replace

303
Q

what is short leg synd

A

anatomic/fxal leg length discrepancy (LLD) –> result in:

  • sacral base unlevel
  • vertebral SB/rot
  • innominate rot
304
Q

what is functional LLD

A

1 leg appear shorter than other

305
Q

what is Heilig formula used for

A

how much heel lift should use for short leg

306
Q

what is most significant thing Heilig formula tells us

A

longer pt had short leg & compenstation has occured –> slower and less aggressive should return them to neutral

307
Q

what is max heel lift possible

A

1/2 inch

308
Q

how much heel lift for every degree of sacal base declination

A

1/8 inch

309
Q

what are true ribs

A

ribs w direct sternal attachment –> rib 1-7

310
Q

what are false ribs

A

ribs that connect to sternum thru cartilage or not at all –> rib 8-12

311
Q

what are typical ribs

A

ribs w 2 facets that articulate w TP & body of vertebra –> rib 3-9

312
Q

which ribs are atypical ribs

A

rib 1, 2, 11, 12

313
Q

which are pump handle ribs

A

1-5

314
Q

pump handle ribs –> increase which diameter of thorax

A

AP diameter

315
Q

bucket hand ribs –> increase which diameter of thorax

A

transverse diameter

316
Q

calipier ribs –> increase which diameter of thorax

A

transverse diameter

317
Q

which are bucket handle ribs

A

6-10

318
Q

which are caliper ribs

A

11-12

319
Q

rib 10-12 –> exhalation restriction –> trt w ME –> utilize what muscle?

A

quad lumborum

320
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 1 –> ME –> utilize what muscle?

A

ant, mid scalene

321
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 2 –> ME –> utilize what muscle?

A

post scalene

322
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 3-5 –> ME –> utilize what muscle?

A

pect minor

323
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 6-9 –> ME –> utilize what muscle?

A

serr ant

324
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 10-12 –> ME –> utilize what muscle?

A

lat dorsi

325
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 1 –> ME tx position

A

hand on forehead –> 5-10 deg away

326
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 2 –> ME tx position

A

hand on forehead –> 20-30 deg away

327
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 3-5 –> ME tx position

A

hand on neck –> physician hold elbow –> push elbow to opp ASIS

328
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 6-9 –> ME tx position

A

arm at 90 –> hold elbow –> push arm toward ceiling

329
Q

exhalation SD –> rib 10-12 –> ME tx position

A

hand on forehead –> hold elbow –> adduct arm

Step 2 (12 decks)

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