OM-B 2022

Question 1

1) Shal all the wind limits (Airbus and Wizz Air) be considered, as including wind gusts/maximum wind speed ?

Answer 1

(1.1)

Question 2

2) Operations on a Narrow Runway covered by “Compacted Snow” is not allowed. Which RWYCC limit applies in any other circumstances to calculate Xwind Limits ?

Answer 2

(1.3.1)

Question 3

3) What is the definition of a Narrow Runway ?

Answer 3

(1.3.1)

Question 4

4) What is the condition for both CPT and FO to be able to operate on a Narrow Runway?

Answer 4

(1.3.3)

Question 5

5) Describe the company limitations for ground manoeuvring:
- while taxing on a runway
- on straight taxiways
- where a taxiway passes through a ramp area
- on normal taxiway turns
- for tight 90º turns or 180º turnarounds

Answer 5

(1.3.4)

Question 6

6) Is the low speed end of the landing roll considered to be part of the rollout or the taxi ?

Answer 6

(1.3.4)

Question 7

7) Turns to RETs/HST are designed for such a radius that they can be used up to what speed?

Answer 7

(1.3.4)

Question 8

8) Describe the company IAS limitations.

Answer 8

(1.3.5)

Question 9

9) During Descent, 250kt should be maintained below 5000FT AAL or ?

Answer 9

(1.3.5)

Question 10

10) What does T FLEX MIN = to ?

Answer 10

(1.4)

Question 11

11) What is the maximum distance from an Adequate Airport ?

Answer 11

(1.5)

Question 12

12) Distance to an Adequate Airport is 380NM does this include WX suitability ? (1.5)

Answer 12

(1.5)

Question 13

13) According to FCTM what is the standard drift down one engine inoperative speed to be used ?

Answer 13

(1.5)

Question 14

14) During checklist reading should both pilots be responsible to verify that the item has been
completed correctly?

Answer 14

(2.2)

Question 15

15) What are the 3 checklist that are completed silently by PM?

Answer 15

(2.2)

Question 16

16) From when until when are headsets not required to be used?

Answer 16

(2.4)

Question 17

17) Can the PM make system selection without the call of the PF, and in this case what should he do after ?

Answer 17

(2.4)

Question 18

18) Usually the commander should make the first call to SCA after RVSM check, if that is not the case within how many minutes should the SCA contact the cockpit ?

Answer 18

(2.6.2)

Question 19

19) What should the Commander tell the SCA during the first call after RVSM check ?

Answer 19

(2.6.2)

Question 20

20) From when until when should the flight deck door be closed ?

Answer 20

(2.6.3)

Question 21

21) Can position crew members fly in the flight deck at Commander’s discretion ?

Answer 21

(2.6.3)

Question 22

22) After FL100 and what degree of PITCH shall the Commander decide to switch SEAT BELT SIGN OFF ?

Answer 22

(2.6.4)

Question 23

23) What is the call to be made on the PA in case there is an urgent need to brief the SCA, unless EMER CALL button was pushed ?

Answer 23

(2.6.5)

Question 24

24) During the final stages of a prepared on unprepared emergency landing, what calls should be made on the PA at 1500ft AGL, 500ft AGL and by who ?

Answer 24

(2.6.5)

Question 25

25) Following a unprepared or prepared emergency landing or an emergency on the ground (ex.RTO) after parking brake is set, which call should be made by the flight deck and who makes the call ?

Answer 25

(2.6.5)

Question 26

26) Following a unprepared or prepared emergency landing or a RTO what are the possible TWO calls that can be made from the Flight Deck on the PA once ECAM or Paper Checklist are completed ?

Answer 26

(2.6.5)

Question 27

27) Should you rely on the Auto Callout during any approach for the call outs “ONE HUNDRED ABOVE” and “MINIMUM” ?

Answer 27

(2.7)

Question 28

28) Explain the Altimeter Calls when setting STD or QNH ?

Answer 28

(2.7.1)

Question 29

29) When should the call RATE be made ?

Answer 29

(2.7.2)

Question 30

30) What call should be made 1000ft before reaching FCU ALT/FL?

Answer 30

(2.7.2)

Question 31

31) Is that True that you should never attempt to select V/S or PUSH LEVEL OFF when ATL* mode is engaged during climbing or descent ?

Answer 31

(2.7.2)

Question 32

32) When should you call RAD ALT ?

Answer 32

(2.7.4)

Question 33

33) Auto Callout is based on Radio Altimeter, on what reference are stabilisation criteria based on ?

Answer 33

(2.7.4)

Question 34

34) During an NPA with Minimum between 400ft and 600ft when would it be suggested to make the 500’ Call (Cleared to Land or Negative Clearance) ?

Answer 34

(2.7.4)

Question 35

35) When should the PM make the call PAPI and what should be the PF answer ?

Answer 35

(2.7.5)

Question 36

36) For how long should you keep the side stick take over push button if you want to claim control of the plane ?

Answer 36

(2.7.6)

Question 37

37) Describe the Stabilisation Criteria for a Normal and Circling Approach ?

Answer 37

(2.8.1-2)

Question 38

38) Short transition fluctuations of VAPP are acceptable beyond stabilisation criteria below 1000ft, caused by turbulence, sudden wind change or slow A/THR response, after such situation, what altitude should the approach be fully stable by ?

Answer 38

(2.8.1)

Question 39

39) Is a 360º turn or an orbit allowed for the purpose of meeting stabilisation criteria’s ?

Answer 39

(2.8.1)

Question 40

40) ATC may require a 360º turn or an orbit for traffic sequencing, what are the two cases by which such manoeuvre is allowed ?

Answer 40

(2.8.1)

Question 41

41) Describe when is a Missed Approach/Go Around Mandatory ?

Answer 41

(2.8.3)

Question 42

42) Is take off with FD off when FD are serviceable permitted ?

Answer 42

(2.9.1)

Question 43

43) When requested OFF should FD be deselected simultaneously ?

Answer 43

(2.9.1)

Question 44

44) Except for AP U/S what should hand flying be limited to ?

Answer 44

(2.9.1)

Question 45

45) Define RAW DATA as per Airbus definition ?

Answer 45

(2.9.1)

Question 46

46) Which altitude/FL should be set on the FCU when flying a STEP SID or STAR (with constraints) ?

Answer 46

(2.9.2)

Question 47

47) Is a company requirement to use A/THR when …?

Answer 47

(2.9.3)

Question 48

48) Which speed must be used when flying with Manual Thrust ?

Answer 48

(2.9.3)

Question 49

49) Describe the position of the feet when landing with strong crosswinds(>20kts) or landing on slippery or contaminated runways to aid directional control with the use of auto-brake ?

Answer 49

(2.9.5)

Question 50

50) Down to what altitude can AP stay connected to during a CAT I Approach ?

Answer 50

(2.9.6)

Question 51

51) From when until when should tray tables be stowed?

Answer 51

(2.10)(2.12.14)

Question 52

52) In which way should you handle PB switches ?

Answer 52

(2.10)

Question 53

53) In which way should you perform the flight control check ?

Answer 53

(2.10)

Question 54

54) Which Cost Index (CI) should used for Diversion (all cases) ?

Answer 54

(2.10.1)

Question 55

55) In case of Terrain in the vicinity while operating in/out of an airport, what is the set up of TERR on ND and WX on ND for PF and PM ?

Answer 55

(2.10.2)

Question 56

56) In what case is it allowed to turn the WX on ND OFF ?

Answer 56

(2.10.3)

Question 57

57) Do VOLMET or weather via ACARS replace ATIS ?

Answer 57

(2.10.4)

Question 58

58) For altitude reporting for flights in RVSM from which side the altitude data must be taken from ?

Answer 58

(2.10.5)

Question 59

59) What is the recommended set up of the TCAS during climb, cruise and descent ?

Answer 59

(2.10.5)

Question 60

60) After passing which FL should all the radio frequencies be recorded on the OFP ?

Answer 60

(2.10.6)

Question 61

61) What is the standard call for a Radio Check over 121.5 ?

Answer 61

(2.10.6)

Question 62

62) In case of Loss of Communication, should you note down the last frequency and first frequency where communication was lost and then reestablished ?

Answer 62

(2.10.6)

Question 63

63) What is the procedure in case Departure clearance is given during taxi (differently from receiving clearance pre-departure) ?

Answer 63

(2.10.6)

Question 64

64) What should you do in case clearance to line up, enter/cross runway or take off clearance is received when the other pilot is not listening ?

Answer 64

(2.10.6)

Question 65

65) What does the COM CHECK imply ?

Answer 65

(2.10.6)

Question 66

66) Are you allowed to use the INT/RAD spring loaded switch instead of the “push to talk” trigger on the side stick ?

Answer 66

(2.10.6)

Question 67

67) Is it permitted to tune VHF 1 with RMP 2 ?

Answer 67

(2.10.6)

Question 68

68) Up to how many miles before TOD should calls to Handling Agent be attempted ?

Answer 68

(2.10.6)

Question 69

69) Explain the Pack Flow Policy.

Answer 69

(2.10.7)

Question 70

70) Explain the Cost Index Policy.

Answer 70

(2.10.8)

Question 71

71) Is there any rule regarding minimum LDA for take-off alternate airport ?

Answer 71

(2.11.1.)

Question 72

72) For which Frequency Coverage does Wizz Air hold the approval when flying in NAT HLA ?

Answer 72

(2.11.2)

Question 73

73) For how long can RNP10 be maintained in case of GPS PRIMARY LOST and No Ground Base Radio Navaid update is possible ?

Answer 73

(2.11.2)

Question 74

74) What is the allowed and suggested amount to be taken extra, if while analysing the OFP you realise that some changes are possible in regard to fuel consumption due to a longer then expected SID/ STAR?

Answer 74

(2.11.3)

Question 75

75) In case Tankering is suggested on the OFP, who will make the final decision if to carry such extra amount or not ?

Answer 75

(2.11.5)

Question 76

76) Which critical parts of the Cockpit Preparation should never be interrupted ?

Answer 76

(2.12.1)

Question 77

77) When the aircraft is cold, until when should no switching or power be connected to the electrical system ? (One thing from CPT side, one thing from PM side (could be either CPT or FO))

Answer 77

(2.12.1)

Question 78

78) How long after switching on the GPU (EXT PWR: from AVAIL green to ON blue) should you wait to start the APU when entering an unpowered aircraft ?

Answer 78

(2.12.1)

Question 79

79) When OAT is above 0º, delay the APU START and APU BLEED ON as long as…?

Answer 79

(2.12.1)

Question 80

80) What is the only case when APU and GPU in parallel is permitted (otherwise usually not
recommended) ?

Answer 80

(2.12.1)

Question 81

81) When OAT is below 0º why should you start APU + APU BLEED as soon as possible ?

Answer 81

(2.12.1)

Question 82

82) In what position is the CAPT/CAPT & PURS switch for EVAC set on ?

Answer 82

(2.12.1)

Question 83

83) What is the official procedure to check the Cooling Time by FADEC on the EWD ?

Answer 83

(2.12.1)

Question 84

84) If Cooling Time is less than…..sec the Cooling Time is not displayed ?

Answer 84

(2.12.2)

Question 85

85) In case of very long Cooling Time what procedure shows good airmanship ?

Answer 85

(2.12.2)

Question 86

86) What is the minimum distance an aircraft should remain from a suitable diversion airport while flying in NAT HLA ? (=1 hour single engine diversion)

Answer 86

(2.12.2)

Question 87

87) Which FL should be inserted in the FL/TMP field on the FMS INIT LOAD in case of a planned intermediate “step” CRZ FL (from OFP) ?

Answer 87

(2.12.2)

Question 88

88) Why wind data should not be inserted in the PERF APPR page during FMGS Initialisation ?

Answer 88

(2.12.2)

Question 89

89) Against what possible mistakes does the insertion of the destination QRH (during cockpit preparation )provide a safety net to ?

Answer 89

(2.12.2)

Question 90

90) Which altitude should be inserted in the FCU while waiting to receive an official clearance ?

Answer 90

(2.12.2)

Question 91

91) Why is the use of PBDs to built a pseudo EOSID not recommended ?

Answer 91

(2.12.2)

Question 92

92) When reaching INIT-B, during cockpit preparation which ZFW and CG (standard) should be inserted ?

Answer 92

(2.12.)

Question 93

93) What is the Default Flap Setting for Take Off in Wizz Air ?

Answer 93

(2.12.3)

Question 94

94) What is considered a Standard Take-Off ?

Answer 94

(2.12.4)

Question 95

95) What should be “called” when briefing a SID or STAR ?

Answer 95

(2.12.4)

Question 96

96) What is the degree tolerance between FMGS track and Chart when briefing a SID or STAR ?

Answer 96

(2.1.2.4)

Question 97

97) A full emergency briefings should only be performed for the first sector, nevertheless which points should be highlighted during a short Emergency Briefing on following sectors ?

Answer 97

(2.12.4)

Question 98

98) Resight the Emergency Briefing ?

Answer 98

(2.12.4)

Question 99

99) What is the only case placing hands on thrust levers below 400ft AGL during an EO TO is allowed ?

Answer 99

(2.12.4)

Question 100

100) What is the tolerance Track and Distance when flying in NAT HLA ?

Answer 100

(2.12.4)

Question 101

101) What is Planned uplift Kg made by ? ( ? - ? = )

Answer 101

(2.12.5)

Question 102

102) Which items should be cross checked on a Load and Trim Sheet ?

Answer 102

(2.12.5)

Question 103

103) What does the Before Push Back Fuel Check involve ?

Answer 103

(2.12.5)

Question 104

104) Should all the slides be armed before requesting Start Up ?

Answer 104

(2.12.6)

Question 105

105) Until when the second engine should not be started ?

Answer 105

(2.12.6)

Question 106

106) In case of de-icing after start (to remote stand) what is the the only item postponed after the selection of Engine Mode Selector Normal stating the beginning of the After Start Flow ?

Answer 106

(2.12.6)

Question 107

107) If the aircraft has been parked in wet conditions for a long time, what can you expect during the first brake application (Brake Check) ?

Answer 107

(2.12.7)

Question 108

108) On straight taxiway and above what speed is rudder preferred over nose wheel steering use ?

Answer 108

(2.12.7)

Question 109

109) What does Briefing “CONFIRMED” means ? (5 Items)

Answer 109

(2.12.7)

Question 110

110) What is the recommended ND setting during Taxi ?

Answer 110

(2.12.7)

Question 111

111) Is it allowed for the PM to record complicated taxi instructions on the MCDU scratchpad ?

Answer 111

(2.12.7)

Question 112

112) As turning the Taxi Light ON and OFF to indicate stop of aircraft movement is only regulated by the FAA, what practise should you use in terms of Taxi Light lifetime ?

Answer 112

(2.12.7)

Question 113

113) During Taxi, PF should normally set Thrust Lever to EPR not higher than….., if this thrust is insufficient PF may increase thrust further to maximum….% N1 ?

Answer 113

(2.12.7)

Question 114

114) Should additional runway margin be considered when performing a 180º turn on Wet or Contaminated runway ?

Answer 114

(2.12.7)

Question 115

115) What type of thrust and braking should you use if a 180º turn is required on a runway with minimum turn radius ?

Answer 115

(2.12.7)

Question 116

116) For a A320 180º turns of a runway may be performed on a Narrow Runway, what about the A321 ?

Answer 116

(2.12.7)

Question 117

117) When a radar heading is issued by ATC prior take off, what function should be set on FCU ?

Answer 117

(2.12.8)

Question 118

118) Whenever a flight is cleared for visual departure or direct (instead of SID) which function on MCDU should never be used ? And what instead ?

Answer 118

(2.12.8)

Question 119

119) What would happened to the FMGS data if a DIRECT TO was executed on the ground ?

Answer 119

(2.12.8)

Question 120

120) What should you do before lining up for a LVO departure if the RWY is ILS supported ?

Answer 120

(2.12.8)

Question 121

121) If you have been cleared to line up and no delay has been notified by ATC, after how many
minutes should you notify being ready to ATC ?

Answer 121

(2.12.8)

Question 122

122) What does being “READY” (for departure) actually means ?

Answer 122

(2.12.8)

Question 123

123) How many degrees within the runway should you be before applying initial stabilisation values (Thrust) ?

Answer 123

(2.12.8)

Question 124

124) Until what speed should the PM call “THRUST SET” ?

Answer 124

(2.12.8)

Question 125

125) Except during a SPECIAL EFP, a turn should never be made before …AGL ?

Answer 125

(2.12.8)

Question 126

126) When is a Rolling Take Off not allowed ?

Answer 126

(2.12.8)

Question 127

127) What should you do if the FMA is blank after applying FLEX and still blank/wrong after applying TOGA ?

Answer 127

(2.12.8)

Question 128

128) Describe the associated procedure with a RTO with or without RETURN TO RAMP ?

Answer 128

(2.12.8)(3.7)

Question 129

129) During an RTO PM should make the 70kts call ONLY…?

Answer 129

(2.12.8)

Question 130

130) What is the difference between NADP 1 and NADP A ?

Answer 130

(2.12.14)

Question 131

131) Why should you be careful of a late switch from QNH to STD setting in case the QNH value is significantly below STD value ?

Answer 131

(2.12.14)

Question 132

132) Should you intentionally trigger the FLAP AUTO-RETRACTION function ?

Answer 132

(2.12.14)

Question 133

133) No paperwork should be done until FL…?

Answer 133

(2.12.14)

Question 134

134) What is the maximum gradient climb speed ?

Answer 134

(2.12.14)

Question 135

135) What is the maximum ROC EO speed ?

Answer 135

(2.12.14)

Question 136

136) What is the maximum ROC All Engines speed ?

Answer 136

(2.12.14)

Question 137

137) Is it allowed for the pilot monitoring ATC on VHF1 to also listening on VHF2 (WX) ?

Answer 137

(2.12.15)

Question 138

138) Is it permitted for the pilot transmitting/receiving on VHF2 to monitor VHF1 on reduce volume ?

Answer 138

(2.12.15)

Question 139

139) Once Cruise is reached what is worth to do and discuss about ?

Answer 139

(2.12.15)

Question 140

140) The A/THR system can result in slow thrust response during rapidly changing wind direction/speed or orographic turbulence encountered when flying above mountainous areas resulting in either rapid speed loss (even

Answer 140

(2.12.15)

Question 141

141) Should you enter a Holding if Oceanic Clearance cannot be obtained prior entry to NAT ?

Answer 141

(2.12.15)

Question 142

142) Oceanic FIR is RNP10. What should be entered in the “REQUIRED” value field of navigation accuracy in case GPS PRIMARY LOST? And what should you do if nevertheless ACCURACY becomes LOW ?

Answer 142

(2.12.15)

Question 143

143) What call should be made from the Flight Deck in case of Turbulence encounter where safety of Cabin Crew is at risk ?

Answer 143

(2.12.16)

Question 144

144) Explain the all the time “head up” during FMGS arrival preparation ?

Answer 144

(2.12.17)

Question 145

145) What should be checked in regard to calculated VAPP if gusty crosswind are expected for the landing ?

Answer 145

(2.12.17)

Question 146

146) What could happen if diverting to ALTN only once the minimum destination fuel has been reached ?

Answer 146

(2.12.17)

Question 147

147) Should you inform SCA if an LVO is expected ?

Answer 147

(2.12.17)

Question 148

148) During the Approach FMGS Preparation, should you enter the gust value for the wind from ATIS or ATC ? For example if reported wind is 150/20/30 which value should be considered ?

Answer 148

(2.12.17)

Question 149

149) What should be remembered in terms of company V/S restrictions when descending(or climbing) with Managed Mode (DES or CLB) ?

Answer 149

(2.12.17)

Question 150

150) What is the danger of initiating a MANAGED DESCENT after overflying the descent point ?

Answer 150

(2.12.17)

Question 151

151) What is the minimum Flap selection for the CABIN READY button to be active on FAP (Cabin) ?

Answer 151

(2.12.18)

Question 152

152) If the CABIN READY button on FPA has been pressed by SCA, when will the ECAM LDG MEMO - CABIN turn green ?

Answer 152

(2.12.18)

Question 153

153) If all reasonably attempts of the crew failed to achieve a “secured” status of the cabin, may the Commander decide to land (with an unsecured cabin) ?

Answer 153

(2.12.18)

Question 154

154) If no “cabin secured” status has been reported by SCA, and there is still enough time before landing (above stabilisation altitude) can the flight deck seek confirmation by calling SCA ?

Answer 154

(2.12.18)

Question 155

155) When is approach checklist usually called and in what situation should it be called again even if previously completed ?

Answer 155

(2.12.19)

Question 156

156) Until when should Approach Phase not being manually activated ?

Answer 156

(2.12.19)

Question 157

157) To reduce flap wear and minimise the possibility of exceeding VFE, when is the best time to select flaps ? (flaps/slats are non intended to be used for aircraft deceleration)

Answer 157

(2.12.19)

Question 158

158) Is it allowed to fly lower speed than the manoeuvring speed for the actual flap configuration ?

Answer 158

(2.12.19)

Question 159

159) Flying lower speed than the manoeuvring speed for the actual flap configuration is allowed, this is part of the “unstable speed range” of the flight envelope. What is the downside of doing that ?

Answer 159

(2.12.19)

Question 160

160) What should you do in case the aircraft is not decelerating as anticipated prior to, or after intercepting the glide slope, rather than using speed breaks with Flaps >1 ?

Answer 160

(2.12.19)

Question 161

161) What should you do if following approach chart speeds or ATC speeds could lead to a possible unstabilized approach ?

Answer 161

(2.12.19)

Question 162

162) List the methods which can be used in case of a potential overspeed during approach ?

Answer 162

(2.12.19)

Question 163

163) What danger could be faced, if not enough speed margin above F speed for final turns requiring an heading change of Above 45º ?

Answer 163

(2.12.19)

Question 164

164) In case of FPL sequencing required during approach what standard calls should be used ?

Answer 164

(2.12.19)

Question 165

165) Is it allowed to momentarily set THR LEVERS above CLB detent in case of unsatisfactorily A/THR performance?

Answer 165

(2.12.20)

Question 166

166) What is the lowest altitude AAL by which F2 should be out ?

Answer 166

(2.12.20)

Question 167

167) What type of configuration management should you consider when facing the following
conditions:
• high landing weight (above 60t)
• Aircraft with sharklets
• Tailwind on final
• Turbulence caused by thermals associated with convective weather
• Nonstandard, steeper than normal G/S

Answer 167

(2.12.20)

Question 168

168) On approaches where Minima is referenced to BARO should you rely on the auto-Callout, for the “100 ABOVE” and “MINIMUM” call ?

Answer 168

(2.12.20)

Question 169

169) If PF announces “VISUAL” are the “100 ABOVE”, “MINIMUM” or altitude with distance call still necessary ?

Answer 169

(2.12.20)

Question 170

170) What is the risk when initiating a Go-Around at or above the altitude selected on the FCU?

Answer 170

(2.12.20)

Question 171

171) What is the best practise to avoid Altitude Bust, if deciding to perform a Go-Around initiated at or above the altitude selected on the FCU?

Answer 171

(2.12.20)

Question 172

172) When performing a Go-Around should TOGA always initially be applied?

Answer 172

(2.12.20) (unless is a Discountinued Approach)

Question 173

173) Should you consider Manual Thrust in case during a Go-around Speed Trend may exceed VFE ?

Answer 173

(2.12.20)

Question 174

174) Is selection of V/S allowed if SRS is engaged ?

Answer 174

(2.12.20)

Question 175

175) Is the selection of V/S or “push to level off” allowed when ALT* is engaged?

Answer 175

(2.12.20)

Question 176

176) What are the possible reasons to reject a landing which was previously judged achievable?

Answer 176

(2.12.20)

Question 177

177) Describe how a go-around below minima should be handle regarding “rotation rate” and flap selection?

Answer 177

(2.12.20)

Question 178

178) What are the best interception degrees for ILS approach (especially Manually Flown RAW DATA) to avoid overshooting, especially if initiating the turn only once LOC needle starts inward movement? (30º-45º-60º-etc)

Answer 178

(2.12.21.1)

Question 179

179) Is the use of “step down descent” for NPA allowed?

Answer 179

(2.12.21.2)

Question 180

180) When performing a VOR NPA should you hard tune the NAVAID or soft tune is good enough?

Answer 180

(2.12.21.2)

Question 181

181) What is the best ND selection display on PM side to be able to call deviation when performing a VOR NPA?

Answer 181

(2.12.21.2)

Question 182

182) What is it adviced to do in regard to GPWS, when performing a LOC approach using ILS equipment? (G/S U/S or not intended to be used)

Answer 182

(2.12.21.2)

Question 183

183) If GPS PRIMARY is active instead of “timing” which recommended spacing distance maybe used when of downwind with ND ROSE, while performing a Circling Approach?

Answer 183

(2.12.21.4)

Question 184

184) Does the standard procedure for a missed-approach during Circling (as per OMA) precludes the Commander for an alternative strategy (if briefed and coordinated by ATC) ?

Answer 184

(2.12.21.4)

Question 185

185) Unless differently specified what is the standard go-around altitude to be set on the FCU ?

Answer 185

(2.12.21.4)

Question 186

186) If the standby attitude indicator fails during a CAT3B approach is a miss-approach mandatory?

Answer 186

(2.12.21.6)

Question 187

187) What is the WX requirement to perform a Practise CAT3B approach with Autoland?

Answer 187

(2.12.21.6)

Question 188

188) Are the pre-flight planning requirements still valid once the aircraft commences the flight?

Answer 188

(2.12.22)

Question 189

189) Is it advisable for the Commander to retain some fuel margin above Final Reserve to allow for contingency at final destination when adopting a COMMIT TO LAND procedure?

Answer 189

(2.12.22)

Question 190

190) What is the difference between selecting ENABLE ALTN and NEW DEST function on the FMGC when performing a Diversion?

Answer 190

(2.12.22)

Question 191

191) What should be done if difficulty in directional control is experienced during the landing rollout?

Answer 191

(2.12.23)

Question 192

192) What are the advantages of landing with FLAP3, in what WX condition is it recommended and not recommended?

Answer 192

(2.12.23)

Question 193

193) Is it true that an overweight landing will always require an overweight maintenance inspection?

Answer 193

(2.12.23)

Question 194

194) An Overweight Landing will always require post maintenance inspection, is this more outlying than burning fuel to be able to land within limits?

Answer 194

(2.12.23)

Question 195

195) If the approach was made in icing conditions, or if the runway was contaminated with slush or snow, until when should you wait before retracting the flaps/slats?

Answer 195

(2.12.24)

Question 196

196) In exceptional cases are you allowed to disregard the 3 min engine cooling time for CEO aircraft?

Answer 196

(2.12.24)

Question 197

197) Should you consider Single Engine Taxi when contaminated or slippery taxiway or parking
stands?

Answer 197

(2.12.24)

Question 198

198) When is Single Engine for A321 not advised and when it is?

Answer 198

(2.12.24)

Question 199

199) Below what N1 percentage can the Beacon be switched OFF, at parking stand?

Answer 199

(2.12.25)

Question 200

200) After which checklist is the Commander allowed to open the cockpit entry door?

Answer 200

(2.12.25)

Question 201

201) Which ECAM page and standard call must CM1 said to SCA to authorise disembarkation?

Answer 201

(2.12.25)

Question 202

202) Describe the standard Chocks configuration?

Answer 202

(2.12.25)

Question 203

203) Describe the additional Standard Chocks configuration in case of night/long stay and/or during severe weather conditions or wind speed exceeding 25kts?

Answer 203

(2.12.25)

Question 204

204) If it is the last flight of the day and no maintenance is taking over the plane, what should be done before the Commander signs the AFL?

Answer 204

(2.12.25)

Question 205

205) If the Brake temperature is very high, should the Commander anyway place the Parking Brake On before closing the plane?

Answer 205

(2.12.25)

Question 206

206) Since Alternate planning is Runway specific, will any change in runway at Destination or Alternate require adjustment of the ALTN fuel calculation?

Answer 206

(2.13.1)

Question 207

207) Explain what is a FUEL ALTERNATE.

Answer 207

(2.13.1)

Question 208

208) Explain what is a COMMERCIAL ALTERNATE.

Answer 208

(2.13.1)

Question 209

209) Which alternate is usually selected at planning stage when risk of diversion is low?

Answer 209

(2.13.1)

Question 210

210) Which alternate is usually selected at planning stage when risk of diversion is high?

Answer 210

(2.13.1)

Question 211

211) When two alternates are required can one of them be a FUEL ALTERNATE?

Answer 211

(2.13.1)

Question 212

212) What consideration should be made when there is a possibility of high number of diversion at busy airports?

Answer 212

(2.13.1)

Question 213

213) CONT99 has an historical data based on fuel consumption monitoring for each route/aeroplane combination over how many years ?

Answer 213

(2.13.2)

Question 214

214) Explain the TANKERING procedure and what considerations to be made to finally decide if to tanker more, less or amount stated on OFP?

Answer 214

(2.13.2)

Question 215

215) What is a safe margin from MLW when TANKERING?

Answer 215

(2.13.2)

Question 216

216) When should you consider intersection take off if lower FLEX is more than 5 degrees?

Answer 216

(2.13.2)

Question 217

217) Optimum flight level is defined as flight level at which the balance of fuel consumption and flight time is the most economical. Within how many feet from Optimum FL (above or below) should you fly?

Answer 217

(2.13.2)

Question 218

218) What does the selection of Optimum Flight Level depends on?

Answer 218

(2.13.2)

Question 219

219) By inserting what datas can the FMGS give a more accurate calculation than OFP in regard to Optimum FL?

Answer 219

(2.13.2)

Question 220

220) On a flight with a route longer than 350NM GCD, when is it advised to use the OFP Optimum FL and when the FMGS?

Answer 220

(2.13.2)

Question 221

221) What is the most economical V/S during an early descent?

Answer 221

(2.13.2)

Question 222

222) In what position should the cockpit door be left during a ferry flight with no occupants, and why?

Answer 222

(2.13.3.1)

Question 223

223) Which door should be armed and disarmed by the Commander on a ferry flight with no occupants and when should so be done?

Answer 223

(2.13.3.1)

Question 224

224) A MASTER WARNING requires immediate action, but does not take priority over….?

Answer 224

(3.3)

Question 225

225) A MASTER CAUTION (level 2) requires crew action when ….?

Answer 225

(3.3)

Question 226

226) A CAUTION (level 1) requires only….?

Answer 226

(3.3)

Question 227

227) If any OEB is applicable, who calls OEBs and at what point during the Abnormal Operation
Procedure?

Answer 227

(3.3)

Question 228

228) Should you dismiss completely OEBs with ECAM ENTRY: NONE?

Answer 228

(3.3)

Question 229

229) When Engine Failure during take off happens, after what altitude and action should the PM announce the title of the failure?

Answer 229

(3.3.)

Question 230

230) Explain F-DODAR.

Answer 230

(3.5)

Question 231

231) Describe the different procedure into preparing an approach if AP is available or when NOT available?

Answer 231

(3.5)

Question 232

232) Describe which situations can fall under the list of Abnormal?

Answer 232

(3.5)

Question 233

233) FCOM review during Abnormal/Emergency situations is advisable only after …?

Answer 233

(3.5)

Question 234

234) Can you consider a ECAM Warning no longer applicable if during the procedure it disappears?

Answer 234

(3.5)

Question 235

235) During in flight emergency operations Thrust Lever should never be operated by PM and guarded switches always require PF confirmation, does the same apply when on the ground?

Answer 235

(3.5)

Question 236

236) RED ASAP means? AMBER ASAP means?

Answer 236

(3.5)

Question 237

237) Explain the definition of a MAYDAY call and how to make one?

Answer 237

(3.5)

Question 238

238) Explain the definition of a PANPAN call and how to make one?

Answer 238

(3.5)

Question 239

239) Asking updates to ATC, keeping high situational awareness of time, weather and fuel is of most important, would you agree?

Answer 239

(3.5)

Question 240

240) What should you do if after a bird strike there is an obvious sign of Engine Damage?

Answer 240

(3.5.5)

Question 241

241) Describe the signs of Engine Damage following a Bird Strike?

Answer 241

(3.5.5)

Question 242

242) How is it advisable to react during those situations following a Bird Strike?
- Severe engine damage
- Strong engine vibration
- Known or suspected airframe damage or engine damage
- Damaged windshield
- Known or suspected strike to Air Data and AOA sensors
- Bird Strike during approach or landing

Answer 242

(3.5.5)

Question 243

243) Which equipment should you check after a Lightning Strike?

Answer 243

(3.5.5)

Question 244

244) Explain NITS briefing.

Answer 244

(3.6)

Question 245

245) Should a NITS briefing be repeated back?

Answer 245

(3.6)

Question 246

246) During an Emergency Landing, which calls should be made at 1500ft AGL, 500ft AGL, once on the ground and Parking Brake is set?

Answer 246

(3.6)

Question 247

247) During Take Off, above 100kts, should pilots stop for Electrical Failures?

Answer 247

(3.7)

Question 248

248) Below which speed does the Autobrake become inoperative?

Answer 248

(3.7)

Question 249

249) Which items must be completed for a new departure after a RTO WITHOUT Return to Ramp ?

Answer 249

(3.7)

Question 250

250) Will the cabin crew wait for the Commander order to initiate an evacuation in case the aircraft has suffered major structural damage ?

Answer 250

(3.8)

Question 251

251) What should be communicated and coordinated with ATC before a landing during an emergency situation ?

Answer 251

(3.8)

Question 252

252) Is it true that while performing the Emergency Evacuation checklist the shut down of engine and APU may require reselection of VHF1 on ACP1 ?

Answer 252

(3.8)

Question 253

253) After an Evacuation, who is the last person to leave the plane and is it possible from the rear door?

Answer 253

(3.8)

Question 254

254) Is the “no call” policy until passing 400ft AGL applicable to all failures or just for Engine Failure procedure?

Answer 254

(3.9)

Question 255

255) If during a EFATO on a straight flight path, which FCU selection should be made if NAV appear and what selection if RWY TK appears instead?

Answer 255

(3.9)

Question 256

256) Explain the Standard and Special EFP.

Answer 256

(3.9)

Question 257

257) What would happen if after exiting SRS mode (OP CLB) TOGA is selected with Slats still out?

Answer 257

(3.9)

Question 258

258) If a FUEL LEAK is detected should you count the fuel in the affected tank still usable?

Answer 258

(3.9)

Question 259

259) During an LVO approach, it is Airbus policy to go around if an ENG FAIL is experienced between 1000 - 100 ft RA, should you do the same if ENG FIRE is detected?

Answer 259

(3.9)

Question 260

260) Engine-out go around (Missed Approach) does not factor in a level acceleration segment. What is the company policy? If the 10 min TOGA requirement is limiting ?

Answer 260

(3.9)

Question 261

261) Explain why you should or should not consider relighting an engine if both the scenarios where landing is possible at short notice or not?

Answer 261

(3.9)

Question 262

262) When the decision has been made who announces “Emergency Descent”?

Answer 262

(3.10)

Question 263

263) What is the priority of manoeuvres for an Emergency Descent?

Answer 263

(3.10)

Question 264

264) Who announces on the PA “CABIN CREW EMERGENCY DESCENT, CABIN CREW EMERGENCY DESCENT” ? PF or PM?

Answer 264

(3.10)

Question 265

265) An ENG or APU fire has not been SECURED until the fire lights is ….?

Answer 265

(3.10)

Question 266

266) Who makes the 1500ft AGL and 500ft AGL call during an Emergency Landing? PF or PM?

Answer 266

(3.10)

Question 267

267) What signs can indicate a Windshear or Downburst?

Answer 267

(3.18)

Question 268

268) In case of suspected faulty speed indications, which procedure should be followed when only one side is effected and when all sides are effected ? (PF,PM,ISIS)

Answer 268

(3.19)

Question 269

269) During a Loss of Braking why is it important to limit the brake pressure application to 1000PSI?

Answer 269

(3.20)

Question 270

270) In regard to HIJACK what does the non application of standard body cover procedure to enter the cockpit can indicate?

Answer 270

(3.21)

Question 271

271) If a diversion is decided due to e medical emergency, which airports are preferred to used? Can the fly continue after disembarkation of effected pax?

Answer 271

(3.22)

Question 272

272) In case of Cockpit incapacitation is it advised to use stairs of aerobridge once arrived at the stand?

Answer 272

(3.22.1)

Question 273

273) What can be the causes for a Quick Disembarkation?

Answer 273

(3.23)

Question 274

274) How many degrees of turn is assumed if obstacle clearance considerations require a turn before reaching clean manoeuvring speed?

Answer 274

(4.1)

Question 275

275) What is the MORA obstacle clearance and within how many miles from route?

Answer 275

(4.2)

Question 276

276) At what speed is the drift down procedure performed over mountainous areas where obstacle clearance can be an issue?

Answer 276

(4.3)

Question 277

277) Explain the LMC procedure.

Answer 277

(7.4)