Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pack C > OM > Flashcards

OM Flashcards

1
Q

Basic Policy

A

Safety
Efficiency
Schedule
Pax Comfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Seatbelt on?

A

taxiiing
takeoff and landing
turbulence
when captain considers necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Company clearance

A

content of an operational flight plan approved by both the captain and the dispatcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DRM

A

message required for flight, sent by dispatcher, which includes the operational flight plan.
Providing a DRM means dispatcher approves it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Flight Plan

A

info provided to ATC in accordance with the company clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Operational flight plan includes..

A 
Flight number
flight leg
airplane type
route
altitude
alternate airport
fuel on board
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

take off time

A

when the landing gear leaves the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When shall flight crew wear harnesses?

A

Takeoff and landing and any time directed by the captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CC duties when SB sign turned on?

A

Conduct minimum safety measures
Take seats
Request pax to fasten SB by announcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What info shall ground personnel collect before flight?

A

Wx
Notams
Airplane, crew, pax and cargo info
Other necessary info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Time to report for duty, and when will schedulers be notified?

A

1 hr prior to ETD

40mins prior to ETD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When shall mutual approval be completed by?

A

30 mins prior to ETD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ATS plan and IFR plan submitted to ATC by?

A

ATS 30 mins prior to ETD

IFR 2 hours prior to ETD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hand carry articles and additional HCAs (law, company, additional)

A 
(Law):
-Licence
-Ops Manual
-Radio Licence
-Docs necessary for CIQ
-Medical
(Company):
-Route Manual
-Aeronautical Maps
-Flash light
(Additional):
-DRM or operational Flight plan
-ATS flight plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Captain must confirm (reaching the aircraft)

A 
Security Items (exterior, cabin, cockpit)
Airplane Exterior
Devices and equipment on board
Docs to be carried
Journey and Radio Log
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Docs to be carried on Airplane plus Docs required by other countries

A 
(Envelope Items):
-Radio Station Licence
-AOC original transcript
-Designation for operating limitations
-Airworthiness Cert
-Registration Cert
-Emergency Docs
(Other):
-Journey and Radio Log
-Operations Policy Manual- Vol 2
-Operations Specifications (copy)
-Ops Manual
-Route Manual
-AOM
-QRH (2)
-MEL/CDL Manual
(Other countries)
-Civil aircraft landing permit (US air force airports)
-Emergency response for DG incidents (US)
-Noise Documents (All Foreign Airports)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Crew Briefing Items

A
  • Outline of flight
  • Allocation of emergency equipment and usage
  • Duty in emergency
  • Precautionary measures in Hijack
  • Assignment in case of irregular crew comp
  • Type, qty, and location of radioactive materials
  • if check and training occurring
  • procedure for manipulation of controls by co or 2nd co
  • other necessary items
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Jump seat briefing

A
  • emergency brief
  • oxy mask and life vest
  • instructions for using jumpseat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Preparation of W+B- who does it

A

-Load control system available- prepared by that
-LCS not available, prepared by Load Controller
-If no LC at that airport, prepared by FC.
Capt and LC shall check data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Capt check prior to departure

A
  • All pax on board
  • DGs loaded correctly
  • All exterior doors closed
  • All obstacles removed except those necessary for push back
  • Seat assignment correct (conducted by CP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Responsibility for AC during push back

A
  • Capt within scope of attention

- Person in charge or ramp coordination otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Speed reporting (OM)

A

+/- 5% of cruising speed in flight plan, if not under radar, report to ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

VFR limitations

A
  • Not at night
  • not at 20,000ft or above
  • no “VMC on top” operations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Captain ground personnel debrief and docs to submit

A
  • Items to be reported (ASR, CR)
  • Wx conditions

Submit (international)

  • Operational Flight plan or DRM
  • ATS flight plan (Copy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When is a cockpit security check not required?

A

when any crew member stays in the cockpit between flights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Operational Convenience items provided by company

A
  • FPDM
  • Landing Distance table
  • AOC (copy)
  • Normal Checklist
  • Handy Speed book

missing document shall be replaced at an airport where possible. AOM may be used to replace missing item

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Turbulence PA

A

Include time, level and duration of turbulence PRIOR to turning on SB sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is 10min chime for

A

To advise to complete safety check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Critical Phase and requirements

A
  • block out to 5 mins after takeoff
  • 10 mins before landing to block in
  • no unnecessary communication
  • seat belt sign on
  • headset and microphone
  • no cockpit seat changes below 10,000ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Items to be reported to ground personnel and ATC by captain during flight

A
  • emergency or distress situation (including witnessing)
  • Near collision
  • Unreliability of Nav aids
  • any other necessary items
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When shall preflight preparation be completed by?

A

Before entering active runway except:

  • if backtracking
  • ATC are aware you are not ready but advise you to enter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Non-type rated freighter jumpseat users shall show understanding of:

A

Declaration checklist for jumpseat users- B767 freighter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is operational control station

A

Tokyo Int’l Airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

With consultation between dispatcher and capt, what can be changed on company clearance?

A

-Destination
-Alternate
-Route
-Altitude
-Rules of flight
-Fuel
Capt may change in flight unless the change seriously affects fuel planning and flight watch duties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In flight, destination is forecast to be below landing minima at ETA:

A
  • Select additional alternate
  • if unable and wx is not forecast to improve, destination must be changed.

Provision NOT applied when:

  • holding is possible over the destination until wx is forecast to improve, or
  • alternate wx at ETA there is at or above 1500ft ceiling and 5000m vis, or
  • aircraft diverts to alternate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Wx at alternate is forecast to be below the Alternate Minima at ETA:

A

-if possible, change the alternate

-continue to destination if:
1 hr either side of ETA wx is forecast:
-2000ft ceiling or DH/MDH+1500ft, whichever is higher
-5000m vis or RVR/VIS+3200m, whichever is greater

If unable to do either, the destination must be changed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If both destination and alternate are forecast to go below minima:

A
  • Destination shall be changed

- It is desirable to select an alternate for the new destination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When destination is closed temporarily:

A

-Flight may be continued taking into consideration wx conditions, flight time, and remaining fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Regular Airport

A

Designated in the business plan to be used for departure, intermediate, and destination airports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Other designated airport

A

Used as alternate, fuel supply, and those used as destination or departure airport in international flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Adequate airport

A

used for ETOPS. Adequate:

  • runways
  • ATC
  • Lighting
  • communication facilities
  • weather service
  • nav aids
  • landing aids
  • fire fighting service
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When shall 2 alternates be selected

A

When wx is forecast to go below minima intermittently at ETA, unless ceiling and vis at first alternate are forecast to be 1500ft/5000m at ETA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When is an alternate not required?

A

Flight time less than 6 hours and;
-1 hr either side of ETA, wx is forecast to be:
2000ft ceiling or MDH/DH+1500ft, whichever is higher
5000m vis or RVR/VIS+3200m, whichever is higher

2 hours cruise fuel shall be carried as reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Taxi Fuel

A
  • Engine start until takeoff
  • Ramp weight used
  • 47lbs a minute, 10 minutes are considered. APU fuel burn of 4lbs a minute is included
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

BOF

A

-Takeoff until landing at destination-

CLB: TOW used; CRZ: avg crz weight used; DES: TOD weight used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Contingency fuel

A

5% of BOF or 15 mins hold at destination at 1500ft, whichever is greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Alternate fuel

A
  • after go around, fly to, and land at alternate

- TOW minus BOF and contingency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Reserve fuel

A

30 mins hold at 1500ft over dest, or alternate if selected.

If no alternate, 2hrs cruise fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

PCF

A

Company specified for each route considering increased fuel consumption
-May be cancelled by PIC and dispatcher if deemed unnecessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Extra fuel

A

ATC, Wx, MELs etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MSA

A

Shall be MEA when specified. Otherwise 2000ft above the highest obstruction within 5nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Driftdown clearance

A

2000ft within 5nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When can a flight not be conducted?

A
  • Destination below minima at eta
  • severe turbulence or wx expected at low level and considered unavoidable
  • severe TS is observed and considered unavoidable
  • no flight in an area where severe icing expected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

takeoff and landing before sunset at airfield with no lighting

A

shall take off 10 mins before sunset
not after 20 mins after sunset
in between times, runway shall be ensured clear of obstructions and an alternate selected

flight must be planned to land 20 mins before sunset
must not land after sunset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Ops around sunrise at airfield with no lighting

A

No takeoff or landing before sunrise

takeoff may be 20 mins before if obstructions check is made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Flights in Class G airspace?

A

Only US military airspace and airport within that airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Net takeoff flight path?

A

Clears obstacles within a lateral range of 300ft + 0.125D by 35ft or more. Obstacles greater than 2000ft horizontally are not cleared. Heading changes of greater than 15deg, 3000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Required landing distance obtained by

A

Landing distance x 1.67 (or divide by 0.6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

TEMPO below minima at planning stage

A

Can be considered above landing minima, unless analysis of all data indicates below company minima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Use of VV

A

Can be used for ceiling if cloud condition not reported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

METAR AUTO

A

Do not use except Kadena or Yokota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Handling of Wx time for alternate airport

A

At ETA, although an appropriate time margin should be considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In-flight fuel check

A
  • At appropriate wpt after reaching crz alt
  • during crz, every hour
  • at convenient wpt at end of crz
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Captains check at end of crz

A
  • dest wx
  • alt wx
  • confirm whether approach to dest can be made as well as fuel remaining to cope with contingencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Low fuel

A

30 mins or less estimated upon landing-

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Minimum fuel

A

Fuel remaining has reached a stage where little or no delay can be accepted-
MINIMUM FUEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Self contained navigation

A

over areas where associated air navigation facilities or landmarks cannot be effectively used for a distance of more than 300nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When GPS is used as part of RNAV:

A
  • must be possible to shift to nav equipment other than GPS if any doubt is caused in position info from GPS
  • nav aids required by the state are available on the segment where GPS is used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

SCN decision point

A

Best point from where to divert in case the number of INS becomes less than 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

INS for SCN

A

2 sets at the time of departure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

RAIM function

A

THe GPS determines the integrity of the GPS

72
Q

Critical DME

A

when unable to use, causes a hinderance to DME/DME/IRU or DME/DME navigation

73
Q

DME gap

A

a segment on the route where combination of DME which meet designated navigation accuracy required cannot be received

74
Q

P-RNAV

A

European equivalent of RNAV1

75
Q

B-RNAV

A

European equivalent of RNAV5

76
Q

RNAV10 time limit definition

A

the max flight time from when the system is placed in the NAV mode.

  • updating renews time limit
  • GPS updating has no time limit
77
Q

What is an RNAV approach considered?

A

RNAV operation without designated navigation accuracy

78
Q

Required check for RNAV/RNP

A

Correct database

Appropriate signals provided

79
Q

RNAV1/2 NAV sensors

A

DME/DME (not established in Japan for RNAV1), DME/DME/IRU, GPS

80
Q

RNAV5 NAV sensors

A

DME/DME, VOR/DME, INS or IRS, GPS

81
Q

RNAV10 NAV sensors

A

INS or IRS, GPS

82
Q

RNP nav sensors

83
Q

Is RAIM always necessary when using GPS?

A

Not if route can be flown with sensors other than GPS

84
Q

2 types of GPS stand alone approach

A

LNAV- considers only the protected airspace for stepdown

LNAV/VNAV- Considers VNAV path at constant descent rate

85
Q

When checking track bearings/distances, what tolerance is allowed?

A

within 3deg

86
Q

When is RAIM required?

A

When planning flight that has “GPS required.”

Required for 15mins before and after ETA for GPS stand alone approach

87
Q

RNAV1/2 Operational Procedures

A
  • Check Nav aids and critical DMEs serviceable
  • Check wpt sequence, tk distances and angles, altitude and speed restrictions, and whether wpts are fly by or over
  • Confirm onboard equipment and position updating
  • Enter pos shift if GPS not updating and takeoff point is greater than 1000ft from TH
  • Use AP or FD in LNAV. for RNAV2, ND may be used
88
Q

Required on board equipment RNAV1/2

A

1 x FMS, 1 x DME, 1 x IRS, 1 x GPS

89
Q

RNAV5 Operational Procedures

A
  • Check WPTs against planned route

- In principle, use AP or FD in LNAV, however ND may be used

90
Q

RNAV5 Required on board equipment

A

1 x FMS, 1 x DME, 1 x IRS, 1 x GPS, 1 x VOR

91
Q

RNAV10 Operational Procedures

A

-Confirm onboard equipment operative
-Confirm availability of air navigation facilities
-Confirm position updating due to time limit when necessary.
{DME/DME=15mins, VOR/DME=30mins}
- In principle, use AP or FD with LNAV mode, however ND may be used

92
Q

Confirmation of route eligibility RNAV10

A

Probability of headwind shall be 75%, confirm using flight planned winds.
Estimate distances and times, figuring out where updating will occur. If all fits in requirements, route can be conducted.

93
Q

Required on board equipment RNAV10

A

2 x FMS, 2 x IRS = 9hr33 limit

2 x FMS, 2 x IRS, 1 x GPS = unlimited

94
Q

SCN required on board equipment

A

2 x FMS, 2 x IRS

95
Q

Basic RNP1 Operational Procedure

A
  • RAIM required
  • Verify tk angles and distances, altitude and speed restrictions, and whether wpts are fly over or fly by
  • Confirm updating excludes unserviceable aids
  • Brief contingency
  • XTK error should be limited to 1/2 RNP, however up to RNP x 1 is acceptable during turns
  • Use AP or FD in LVAV mode
96
Q

Required on board equipment Basic RNP1

A

2 x FMS, 2 x IRS, 2 x GPS, 2 x EHSI

97
Q

RNP4 Operational Procedure

A
  • Verify number of satellites is at or above the minimum required- 24. Verify using NOTAM. If not available, conduct RNAV10.
  • Verify RNP loaded in system matches the published value
  • manually enter 4 into RNP value when entering airspace. Delete when exiting.
  • Review contingency
  • Xtk error should be limited to 1/2 RNP. Up to 1 x RNP acceptable during turns
  • Shall use FD or AP in LNAV mode
98
Q

Required on board equipment RNP4

A

2 x FMS, 2 x IRS, 2 x GPS*, 2 x EHSI

*If 1 GPS becomes inop, change to RNAV10

99
Q

RNP Approach Operational Procedure

A

-Verify track angles/distances, altitude and speed restrictions, whether wpts are fly over or fly by
-“Direct To” IF available provided resulting Tk angle does not exceed 45deg.
-Use AP or FD in LNAV behind the IAF
-Missed approach if:
Onboard equipment required is inop
UNABLE RNP is displayed
XTK error exceeds 1 x RNP

100
Q

Required on board equipment RNP APP

A

2 x FMS, 2 x IRS, 2 x GPS, 2 x EHSI, 1 x AP

101
Q

Failure of SCN equipment:

A
  • look for NDBs
  • use on board wx radar
  • plot INS position
  • obtain useful info from ATC and other aircraft
  • if INS info unavailable, keep magnetic hdg to next wpt
  • perform DR plot using air plot and last available wind
102
Q

What turbulence level is unable RVSM?

A

Greater than moderate

103
Q

Composition of equipment for CPDLC ops

A

1 x FMS, 1 x ACARS, 1 x CDU, 1 x SATCOM

104
Q

Required on board equipment ADS-B OUT

A

1 x Transponder, 1 x GPS, 1 x FMS

105
Q

ETOPS Wx mimima multiple runways

A

DA/MDH+200

VIS/RVR+800

106
Q

Single runway

A

DH/MDH+400

RVR/VIS+1600

107
Q

When is ETOPS weather only required to be above landing minima?

A

After company clearance becomes effective

108
Q

Precision approach and non precision approach

A

Precision- lateral and vertical

NPA- lateral only

109
Q

2 types of RNAV approach

A

GPS stand alone

GPS overlay

110
Q

Cat 1 minimums

A

DH 200 RVR 550

111
Q

Cat 2 minimums

A

DH 200-100 RVR 300

112
Q

Cat 3a minimums

A

AH RVR 175

113
Q

Ceiling definition

A

Lowest layer 5/8 or more below 20,000ft

114
Q

Lower limit of takeoff minima when SSP/LVP not in force?

115
Q

CMV definition

A

A value equivalent to RVR derived from visibility using the predetermined formula

116
Q

Lower limit of landing minima on short runway at night?

A

When equal to or less than 1900m, at night, with no VGSI, lower limit shall be 1000ft ceiling and 5000m vis

117
Q

Lower limit of circling minima?

A

MDH 550, VIS 3200m

118
Q

Alternate minima Cat 3?

119
Q

Alternate minima Cat 2?

120
Q

Alternate minima Cat 1?

121
Q

Alternate minima NPA or APV?

122
Q

Alternate minima circling approach?

123
Q

If minima for alternate airport is equal to or greater than alternate minima table, what minima is used?

A

DH/MDH + 100 and/or VIS + 400

124
Q

Can CMV be used in the flight planning phase?

125
Q

When must a missed approach be made before DA/MDA?

A

Approach Ban point:

  • Weather below minima
  • Any RVR less than 200

Approach can not be continued safely due to failure of airborne or ground equipment

126
Q

When must a missed approach be made at or below DA/MDA?

A

Must be continuously in a position where a descent to landing can be made at appropriate ROD using normal maneuvers.

Appropriate visual reference (at least 3 lights of ALS)

127
Q

What changes with low visibility?

A

RVR less than 1200m, max XW 10, runway must be 15% greater than Field Length (Dry)

128
Q

What additional requirements apply to Cat 1 below DA?

A

Must not descend below 100ft AFE using ALS or RAI unless red terminating barrettes, red side row barretts, or other visual reference(s) are distinctly visible and identifiable.

129
Q

What runway conditions can Cat 3 be carried out?

A

DRY, DAMP, or WET-Grooved

130
Q

Points on Approach Ban?

A

Japan:

  • FAF
  • OM
  • 1000ft AFE

Outside Japan:
-If not specified, 1000ft AFE

131
Q

When is RAIM prediction not required?

A

To operations within the US and US territory where RAIM prediction is not available. Require:

  • 2 sets of INS
  • weather minima 1000ft-5000m
132
Q

Who can be admitted to the cockpit?

A
  • A person performing official duties
  • A person implementing their duties (company eg dispatcher)
  • Deadheading crew
  • A person with permission from ANA
133
Q

Can cabin attendants use jump seats?

134
Q

What is the restriction on the number of people in the cockpit?

A

Must be sufficient seats and seatbelts.

135
Q

Cat 1 behaviour, examples, and actions?

A

Punishable by law.

  • Hijacking or damaging airplane
  • violence against crew or pax
  • issue warning letter
  • restrain, if necessary
  • police stand by
136
Q

Cat 2 behaviour, exampes, and actions?

A

Violation of aeronautics law

  • operating exits
  • smoking in lavatory
  • interfering with duties of crew
  • using electronic device
  • not fastening seatbelt when instructed

-issue prohibition order

137
Q

Category 3 behaviour, examples, and actions?

A

Violation of aeronautics law but not to be punished

  • smoking in non-smoking area other than lavatory
  • shouting or making noise without reasonable reasons

-issue warning letter if necessary

138
Q

Prohibition Order, and when can it be issued?

A 
Prescribes content of behaviour impeding aircraft safety
Instructs not to repeat behavoiour
Written in 12 languages
Requires captains permission
Requires submission of ASR

Can be issued any time on board the aircraft

139
Q

Warning Letter, and when can it be issued?

A

Warns pax behaviour is unlawful
Written in 12 languages
Requires captains permission
Requires submission of ASR

Can be issued once doors close until doors open

140
Q

Handling of restricted carry on items- before and after door close

A

Before- Hand to ground personnel for check in

After- keep secure in lockable stowage (galley)

141
Q

What is required a long distance from land?

A

Flying more than 740km off the coast requires:

  • life rafts for all on board
  • emergency rations- 3 meals for all on board
142
Q

Minimum age for emergency exit seat

143
Q

What should be done to the CVR after accident?

A

Remove the CB to secure the recording. A white cap is fitted for easy identification.

144
Q

Cabin signal to cockpit of emergency situation

A

1 HI chime with light and EICAS

145
Q

4 chimes with seat belt sign prior to takeoff means?

A

1 minute prior to takeoff

146
Q

Signal to ground personnel in case of interphone failure

A

Flash Ldg lights 3 times- INT unuseable

Flash Ldg lights 3 times then turn all lights on- Emergency and INT unusable

147
Q

Minimum age of attendant accompanying pax who need assistance, and infants?

148
Q

Evacuation escort?

A

Assist WHCH pax. Must be 15 or over, and seated within 4 rows.

149
Q

Infant definition?

A

7 days - 2 years

150
Q

Child definition?

151
Q

What age can be accepted as UMNRs?

152
Q

Maximum prisoners per flight, and required escorts? Where is considered international waters?

A
  1. each require 3 escorts. beyond 12nm from the coast.
153
Q

When are crew members under the Captains command?

A

From reporting for flight duty until relieved of all duties assigned to them.

154
Q

Minimum cabin crew?

A
  1. Over 250 seats, 6.
155
Q

When calculating cabin crew requirements, what pax do not need to be considered?

A

infants, CC, deadheading CC and FC

156
Q

BASIC 1 minima?

A

T/O: 0-800
Precision App: 300-1600
NPA: Add 100-800 to Cat 1 Captains value
Alternate minima: Cat 1 Captains value

157
Q

Captains Duties: Prior to flight

A

Prior to Flight:

  • check crew fitness to fly
  • check NOTAMS, WX and W+B
  • check and ensure safety of loading
  • check and ensure the amount, type, quality of fuel and lubricants.
  • check condition of airplane and equipment
  • check installation of documents and tools
  • check and approve the flight plan
  • brief crew
158
Q

Captains duties: In flight

A
  • adhere to rules
  • direct and supervise crew
  • revise company clearance when necessary
  • comply with procedures for seeing vessels in distress
159
Q

Captains duties: Post flight

A
  • submit required reports
  • ensure smooth CIQ
  • conduct debriefing
  • notify maintenance of anything necessary
160
Q

Co-pilot duties

A
  • assist captain
  • report W+B to captain
  • check fuel and lubricants
  • determine engine power setting
  • check fuel remaining
  • check required docs on board
161
Q

Manipulation of controls by co-pilot

A

-captain must have 300hrs and be a LAC
-BASIC 1 captain familiar minima
-Xwind no more than 1/2 the limit
-Dry, damp, or Wet(G)
-No control malfunctions
-MLW 250,000lbs for wet runway 2000-2300m
-additional 15% runway length
Below 300ft, captain must take over instead of offering advice

162
Q

In addition, what are the restrictions on the second co-pilot?

A
  • must have flown to that airport
  • rwy 2500m+
  • ILS straight in only
163
Q

Definition of takeoff or landing by copilot?

A

takeoff- start of takeoff roll until after t/o checklist

landing- 1000ft AFE until taxi speed

164
Q

Captain report?

A

Shall be done in accordance with Civil Aeronautics Law and equivalent to items designated by law.

165
Q

Air Safety Report?

A

Obliged to submit by Civil Aeronautics Law and designated by the company to prevent future accidents or increase operational quality.

166
Q

Captains duties in an emergency

A
  • maintain close watch with ATC, SAR and flight dispatcher

- notify ASAP when deviating from law or company regulations

167
Q

Communication failure actions?

A
  • attempt to use HF
  • if HF inop, maintain listening watch on 121.5
  • make blind transmission
  • squawk 7600
  • if all communication equipment fails, follow RM flight procedures
168
Q

Emergency landing at other than airport

A
  • make a belly landing unless landing is secured

- on land, open cockpit windows. do not in ditching

169
Q

PAN PAN vs MAYDAY

A

PAN PAN: expected to be serious danger due to the occurrence of an urgent situation
MAYDAY: threatened by serious danger or in distress

170
Q

How to silence frequency in emergency?

A

“Stop transmitting MAYDAY”

171
Q

JASDF assistance required?

A

Call sign of radar station or ‘Star Gazer’
Required information, and repeat every 20mins.

If Transmitter and Receiver inop:
fly a triangle with 1 minute sides every 20 minutes

172
Q

3 steps of assertion

A

Enquire
Advocate
Assert

173
Q

Holding speeds over nav aid

A

Above 14,000ft: 240kts
6001-14000ft: 220kts
Below 6000ft: 210kts

174
Q

Holding speeds at DME fix

A

Above 14,001ft: 265kts
6001-14000ft: 230kts
Below 6000ft: 200kts

175
Q

Holding speed in turbulence

A

280kts or M0.8 whichever is lower

176
Q

Blind pax?

A

Number not limited so long as they are attended.
Dog considered one attendant.
One attendant can escort maximum 2 blinds.
Do not assign exit rows.
First to board, last to deplane.

Pack C (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions