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OKE > Oke Operational > Flashcards

Oke Operational Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following?
A

4000’, 100nm, 15 mins.

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2
Q
  1. At US stations when is it acceptable to open the cargo doors upon arrival?
A

After receiving clearance from US Customs

Domestic flight

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3
Q
  1. At US stations when is it acceptable to leave the aircraft upon arrival?
A

After receiving clearance from US Customs
As permitted by local procedures (ex, ANC, EWR, JFK)
Domestic flight

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4
Q
  1. While taxiing into a stand a ground crewman begins to move the light wand in his right hand in a rapid
    horizontal figure-eight motion while pointing at the ground below your right wing with his left arm. What is the
    problem?
A

Most likely a brake fire

Possibly engine or other fire

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5
Q
  1. WARNING: IF NO CLIMB GRADIENT IS PUBLISHED FOR A DEPARTURE, A MINIMUM CLIMB OF ______
    FEET PER NAUTICAL MILE MUST BE MAINTAINED.
A

200

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6
Q
  1. If a flight is vectored off of a noise abatement procedure what crew action is required?
A

Details should be noted on the flight plan

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7
Q
  1. When are you considered “established” on course?
A

For RNAV operations when within the RNP
For ILS/VOR appr within 1⁄2 scale deflection
For NDB appr within 5 deg

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8
Q
  1. What navigation errors in the Long Range Navigation units need to be recorded after landing?
A

Position errors in excess of 2.5 nm per hour (beyond 2 hours NAV time) up to a maximum of 25 nm
Residual groundspeed in excess of two (2) knots

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9
Q
  1. Are flight crews required to review the information in the Aeronautical Information Publication prior to operating
    in a particular host country, or is it sufficient that Operations Control Center personnel have reviewed the
    information?
A

Yes, required.

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10
Q
  1. Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc.) for a particular
    host country be found?
A

AIP

Jepp Text, Entry tab

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11
Q
  1. When arriving into a foreign country by commercial airline, your passport was stamped for entry. If you are
    departing the country as an operating crewmember, does your passport need an exit stamp, or may you depart
    using a General Declaration form?
A

Stamped (usually, however some exceptions)

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12
Q
  1. When do you need a permit to proceed?
A

When proceeding through a US station (Tech Stop) from another country without customs inspection.
Inspection is performed at final destination

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13
Q
  1. If disinsection is required prior to entry into a particular country, who is recommended to disperse the spray?
A

Supernumerary

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14
Q
  1. How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country?
A

Jepp text / ATC tab / holding section

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15
Q
  1. When should flight crews default to ICAO holding speeds for a given host country?
A

When no guidance is given in Jepp text / ATC tab / holding section

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16
Q
  1. When operating outside the U.S., and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by
    the flight crew?
A

Proceed via flight plan route, query controller

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17
Q
  1. If a flight is approaching an FIR boundary and has been unable to establish communication with the appropriate
    controller, what action should be taken?
A

In general, proceed and keep trying, relay via other aircraft, try guard, some exceptions noted on chart,
notably CIS

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18
Q
  1. Is Kalitta Air authorized to operate in areas designated as “No FIR”? If so, what special procedures should be
    utilized?
A

No

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19
Q
  1. When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in
    addition to the checks performed on all international flights?
A

Check coordinates against TMI (if applicable)
Reasonableness check
Plotting Chart (if > 725 nm)

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20
Q
  1. List some of the approved methods for a reasonableness check prior to entry and after exiting MNPS airspace.
A

Current position, Abeam radial, Pre-selected crossing radial, Overhead, Radar

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21
Q
  1. When should 2000 be set in the transponder?
A

NAT - 30 min after radar contact terminated,

Elsewhere – when in non-radar environment, or when instructed

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22
Q
  1. What is ‘SLOP’ or Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure, and what are the 3 positions the Aircraft can be flown in?
A

Recommended in NAT airspace to offset 0, 1, or 2 nm right of track for collision avoidance and wake
turbulence mitigation

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23
Q
  1. Can a Kalitta Air 747-400 be flown in the ‘NAT Tracks’ with 1 HF radio deferred?
A

Yes

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24
Q
  1. What is the Worldwide Air to Air frequency?
A

123.45

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25
Q
  1. What are the Maximum holding speeds International (ICAO)?
A

230 knots Alt < 14000
240 knots 14000 < Alt < 20000
265 knots 20000 < Alt < 34000
M.83 34000 < Alt

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26
Q
  1. What are the Maximum holding speeds International (PANS-OPS)?
A

210 knots Alt < 6000
220 knots 6000 < Alt < 14000
240 knots 14000 < Alt

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27
Q
  1. What are the standard holding pattern times based on altitude?
A

60 sec Alt < 14000

90 sec Alt > 14000

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28
Q
  1. List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS.
A

Unforecast wx, equipment failure, volcanic ash

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29
Q
  1. at airports that have approved ‘SMGCS’ procedures, below what RVR will the procedures go into effect?
A

1200

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30
Q
  1. You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-
    release when dispatched under B044, what do you do?
A

Divert to released initial destination

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31
Q
  1. Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is ____, with a minimum
    bank angle of ____°.
A

290 knots, 15 deg

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32
Q
  1. Should a crew member suspect they may have exceeded any local noise restrictions, what action should be
    taken?
A

Event log, ASAP report

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33
Q
  1. Whenever a clearance is received enroute during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be
    made by the flight crew?
A

Clearance, time, frequency

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34
Q
  1. During Class II operations, within ___ minutes of each waypoint, both pilots should verify that the subsequent
    waypoint in the navigation display agrees with the current ATC clearance. What specifically must be checked?
A

2 min
Verify Subsequent waypoint in ND agrees with ATC clearance
Coordinates of next 2 waypoints should be checked
Verify heading and distance of next leg matches computer flight plan

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35
Q
  1. Described the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this
    check?
A

10 min check

Verify on course, confirm no data entry error

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36
Q
  1. does a straight line drawn on a Jeppesen Lambert Conformal en-route or plotting chart represent a great circle
    or rhumb line?
A

Great circle

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37
Q
  1. ICAO criteria for approaches list a range of speeds for aircraft in the various segments of an approach. What is
    the ICAO range of speeds for a category D aircraft on final approach?
A

130-185 kts

38
Q
  1. Describe one of the four generally recognized maneuvers related to course reversal procedures, as outlined in
    GOM Ch. 6.
A

45/180 turn, 80/260 turn, procedure hold, base turn / teardrop

39
Q
  1. In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of
    the pilot in regards to vertical and lateral maneuvering?
A

Maneuver laterally along approach course to the missed approach point at or above minimum altitude up
to missed approach constraint altitudes

40
Q
  1. When are you required to complete a plotting chart?
A

When in class II airspace (outside standard navaid service volume) for more than 725 nm

41
Q
  1. Can a Kalitta Air crew except a land and hold short clearance when (LAHSO) is in effect?
A

No

42
Q
  1. You Depart Leipzig Germany for Cincinnati, you request your oceanic clearance and a random route has been
    filed by the company. ATC issues the same route in your oceanic clearance. Do you need to perform the SLOP
    procedure?
A

Recommended but not required

43
Q
  1. What deviation is considered to be a GNE within NAT airspace?
A

25NM

44
Q
  1. In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well
    above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such
    route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain.
A

Yes, reduce weight or designate drift down alternates and routes

45
Q
  1. While flying in less developed areas, and after receiving a “direct via” off airway routing, what altitude should be
    consulted on the enroute chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain
    clearance does that altitude afford?
A

MORA, 1000’ (2000’ in mountainous areas)

46
Q
  1. If operating in RVSM airspace and the flight encounters turbulence resulting in an altitude deviation of 350 feet,
    what actions are required?
A

ATC report, return to CFL, event log, ASAP

47
Q
  1. Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should
    announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has
    been cleared through a transition level?
A

Cleared to an altitude vs flight level

Provided altimeter setting

48
Q
  1. When temperature is colder than ISA, true altitude will be _____ than indicated altitude.
A

Lower

49
Q
  1. Under what conditions should the altitude correction procedures, found in GOM Ch. 6, be followed?
A

When operating at or near airports where high terrain and/or obstacles exist in combination with very cold
temperatures (-30 deg C or colder)
When enroute minimum altitudes are affected by terrain clearance

50
Q
  1. Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch. 6 be applied?
    What altitudes should not be corrected?
A

Apply to minimum altitudes

Do not apply to cleared altitudes

51
Q
  1. When operating at high altitude airports, increases of approximately ___% higher True Airspeed (TAS) is
    achieved in the 8,000 to 10,000 feet range.
A

20%

52
Q
  1. According to GOM Ch. 6, what are some of the effects of operating at the higher-than-normal true airspeeds
    associated with high-altitude airport operations?
A

Higher turn radius, higher takeoff and landing speeds, potential for hot brakes, missed approach climb
capability problems
Not in GOM, but also consider longer runway requirements, higher sink rates

53
Q
  1. What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the
    limit?
A

3 degrees above freeze point

Fly faster, descend (or climb) to warmer air

54
Q
  1. How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used?
A

Reference tables in the AOM or QRH

55
Q
  1. Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire.
A

One wand making horizontal figure eight, other pointing at brake

56
Q
  1. If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant
    listening watch?
A

Try again several times, adjust squelch to minimum, switch HF radios, verify selcal code, and try secondary
frequency

57
Q
  1. In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the U.S., what four recommendations should be used by
    crew members in order to avoid miscommunications?
A

Speak slowly and clearly, use standard phraseology, anticipate ATC instructions, read back, don’t assume,
clarify, use other crewmembers

58
Q
  1. What is the minimum required information to be included in a position report?
A

Call sign, position, time, altitude, estimate for next reporting point, subsequent reporting point, pertinent
remarks

59
Q
  1. What does IC mean on the TAKEOFF REPORT LAYOUT? What does the N below it mean?
A

Improved climb

N means IC was not used to determine performance

60
Q
  1. Is the planned landing weight (PLDW) on the TLR, the weight we use for ACARS landing weight performance
    entry? What is the number/weight we enter?
A

No, use actual weight (ZFW+FOB)

61
Q
  1. With the use of CPDLC/ADS-C, separation of aircraft will be?
A

Reduced
Lateral, vertical, and longitudinal
Dependent on airspace (GOLD)

62
Q
  1. After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PNF should?
A

Print it and display in a conspicuous place or leave it displayed on CDU until complied with

63
Q
  1. Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?
A

When requested by ATC

64
Q
  1. When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints?
A

No

65
Q
  1. What must supernumeraries be briefed on, and who must brief them?
A

For cockpit jump seat - See Appendix J-25
For upper deck supernumeraries – see GOM Ch. 11 (supernumerary briefing card)
Captain is responsible for briefing but may delegate to a flight Crewmember

66
Q
  1. What are the wind limits when operating the Main Cargo Door?
A

40 knots

67
Q
  1. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch
    position?
A

Anytime Supernumerary Oxygen deploys

68
Q
  1. Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? If so, up to what altitude?
A

Yes, One Pack up to 15000 feet

69
Q
  1. What is the Max Differential Pressure (Relief Valve), Takeoff and Landing?
A

9.4 psi, 0.11psi

70
Q
  1. 4 psi, 0.11psi

114. Under what condition may the #1 or #2 window heat be inoperative?

A

Flight not in forecast icing conditions
Remaining window heat works properly
Associated anti-fogging system is functioning

71
Q
  1. While in flight, Nacelle Anti-Ice must be on when?
A

TAT < 10 deg C with visible moisture

72
Q
  1. When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated?
A

When any engine is operating

73
Q
  1. Are the TAT probes heated? When?
A

Yes, In flight

74
Q
  1. When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff?
A

400 feet AGL

75
Q
  1. What are the minimum and maximum glideslope angles?
A

2.5 to 3.25 degrees (for auto land)

Not specified for manual land

76
Q
  1. On takeoff, prior to 65 KIAS, the Flight Director roll bar commands wing level while the pitch bar commands a
    fixed attitude of:
A

8 degrees ANU

77
Q
  1. What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system?
A

With an operational ACARs Center VHF is not approved for voice communications

78
Q
  1. When should HF radios not be used?
A

During fueling operations

When tuned to same frequency

79
Q
  1. With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off?
A

No, it can be turned down, but not off

80
Q
  1. How can we tune DATA into the C VHF?
A

Using the tuning knob, above or below voice frequencies

81
Q
  1. What buses are powered with # 1 & 2 external power available but not on?
A

Ground handling and [Main Deck] Cargo Handling

82
Q
  1. What electrical bus isolation occurs during autoland?
A

AC/DC Busses 1, 2, 3

83
Q
  1. Before starting engines with the APU inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system?
A

4 aux pump ON

84
Q
  1. With an EEC in Alternate Mode (ALTN), when should takeoff thrust be set?
A

By 80 knots

85
Q
  1. When will stby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM?
A

A loss of normal AC power

86
Q
  1. If the EGT limit is exceed what is indicated? On takeoff?
A

If continuous limit is reached EGT turns Yellow. On TO or GA this is inhibited for 5 min.
If start or takeoff limit is reached EGT turns Red

87
Q
  1. With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what?
A

Enables main deck fire suppression
Turns off two packs
Turns off master trim air valve
Configures equipment cooling to closed loop
Turns off airflow to main deck
Turns off airflow and heat to lower lobes

88
Q
  1. After a fire test pass, what two systems are no longer being monitored by the AC?
A

Wheel well fire detection

Pneumatic duct leak

89
Q
  1. How many over heat loops are installed for the APU?
A

None

90
Q
  1. While operating below maneuvering speed (Va) is it permissible to make rapid or large alternating control
    inputs?
A

NO

91
Q
  1. The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude?
A

20,000 feet

92
Q
  1. When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited?
A

When multiple autopilots are engaged

OKE (5 decks)

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