More OKE Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captains and F/O’s altitude display for RVSM
    operations?
A

200 feet

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2
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM?
A

Sea Level to 5,000 feet 35 feet

(5000 to?) 10,000 feet 40 feet

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3
Q
  1. From engine start to shutdown, what is the primary means of alerting crews to non-normal conditions or
    improper configurations?
A

EICAS alerts

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4
Q
  1. Operations for using QFE are?
A

Not authorized

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5
Q
  1. What is the minimum equipment required for a coupled CAT I ILS approach?
A

LOC/GS receiver and autopilot

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6
Q
  1. When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off?
A

When FUEL LOW CTR L or R EICAS message displayed and CWT fuel qty. is approximately 7000 lbs
(climb) or 3000 lbs (cruise)

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7
Q
  1. What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A?
A

-40 deg C

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8
Q
  1. What is the Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?
A

53,000 lbs

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9
Q
  1. What is the Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?
A

72,000 lbs

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10
Q
  1. Once activated, how long will the scavenge pump operate?
A

Until low pressure is sensed, or 120 minutes, whichever occurs first.

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11
Q
  1. With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach?
A

With the loss of stabilizer trim there is reduced elevator authority for the flare. Additionally there is loss of
elevator feel and loss of all autopilots (Center autopilot may remain engaged with degraded performance)

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12
Q
  1. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity fort dispatch? Where do you read that value?
A
.80
Status page (also HYD synoptic page)
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13
Q
  1. With the # 4 Aux pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be off or on?
A

Off

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14
Q
  1. What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with gear extended?
A

720,000 lbs.

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15
Q
  1. On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? What kind of braking is provided?
A

85 kts

Full hydraulic system pressure applied to brakes for maximum possible braking

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16
Q
  1. What does the brake torque limiting system do?
A

Brake pressure released if excessive torque sensed

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17
Q
  1. What range must be selected to use the GPWS – Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system?
A

Any

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18
Q
  1. When is the Wind shear alert system active?
A

During Takeoff, Approach, and landing

Rotation to 1500’

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19
Q
  1. When are the Fire Bell and master Warning lights inhibited?
A

V1 until 400 feet or 25 seconds, whichever occurs first

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20
Q
  1. With the Lower Lobe Conditioned Airflow Rate Selector (LLCAFR) switch in the OFF position, what is the
    temperature range available with the Lower Lobe Temperature Selector?
A

Temperature Selector disabled

Temperature regulated within a predetermined range

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21
Q
  1. What determines when the packs will go to Normal Flow?
A

Top of climb, also Hi Flow SW and LLCAFR Switch

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22
Q
  1. When the Engine Bleed Air Switch is selected off, what valves close?
A

Bleed Valve
PRV
HP bleed Valve

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23
Q
  1. With the Engine Bleed Air Switch off, and no fault detected, what components are available?
A

Nacelle Anti-Ice

Thrust Reverse

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24
Q
  1. Under what circumstances, must Nacelle Anti Ice be selected ON while on the ground?
A

Icing conditions – SAT < 10 deg C and visible moisture / contaminated surface

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25
Q
  1. What are the engine run up procedures with Nacelle Anti Ice selected ON?
A

60% N1 for 30 seconds every 15 minutes

60% N1 for 30 seconds prior to takeoff

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26
Q
  1. What is required if operation is conducted in moderate to severe icing conditions for prolonged periods with
    the N1 less than 70%?
A

Increase thrust one engine at a time to 70% N1 for 10 to 30 seconds every 10 minutes

27
Q
  1. What does the careted EICAS message “>ANTI ICE” mean?
A

Anti-Ice on with TAT > 12C and no ice detected

28
Q
  1. On descent into Delhi with convective activity in all quadrants, what steps must be taken to improve engine
    flameout margins with TAT below 10 degrees C?
A

PACK HI FLOW Switch ON
NAI switch ON
Below 22,000 feet, WAI Switch ON

29
Q
  1. What does the careted EICAS message “>Autopilot” mean?
A

Selected autopilot operating in degraded mode.

Active pitch and/or roll mode may have failed

30
Q
  1. On a go around, what should the FMA indications be after one push of the TOGA buttons, and what do the
    indications mean?
A
  1. On a go around, what should the FMA indications be after one push of the TOGA buttons, and what do the
    indications mean?
    THR TOGA TOGA
    A/T THR mode - establishes a 2000 FPM climb
    TOGA roll mode - maintains ground track
    TOGA pitch mode – When a go around is initiated the command speed is the MCP IAS window or current
    airspeed, whichever is higher. If the airspeed increases and remains above the initial target airspeed for five
    seconds, target airspeed resets to the current airspeed to a maximum of the IAS window + 25 knots. If the
    airspeed at the initiation of the go around is greater than the IAS window + 25 knots, that speed is
    maintained.
31
Q
  1. During an approach and landing, when does TOGA arm and disarm?
A

Arms - Flaps out of UP or GS captured

Disarms – 2 sec after descending through 5’ RA

32
Q
  1. With VNAV armed for takeoff, when passing 400 feet what changes will occur with your FMA, FMC
    commanded speed, and EICAS N1 Indicators?
A

FMA – A/T mode changes from HOLD to THR REF, Pitch mode changes from TOGA to VNAV SPD
FMC commanded speed – will remain between V2+10 and V2+25 until acceleration altitude
EICAS N1 indicators – will remain at TO reference thrust until thrust reduction

33
Q
  1. If a TOGA throttle switch is not pressed prior to 50 knots, what will the autothrottle system do on takeoff?
A

Will not activate. If switch is pressed after 50 knots autothrottle system will activate at 400’

34
Q
  1. What does the Offside Tuning Light indicate?
A

The panel is selected to a radio normally associated with another radio tuning panel or a communication
radio not normally associated with that radio tuning panel has been selected and may be tuned by another
radio tuning panel

35
Q
  1. At 30 west you spill coffee on your audio control panel, rendering it inoperative. What do you do?
A

Select observer’s audio control panel to CAPT or FO using the OBS Audio System Switch

36
Q
  1. How is the oxygen mask microphone activated and deactivated on A/C N740CK and N741CK?
A

Activated by opening the left door on the Oxygen Mask Panel

Deactivated by closing the left door on the Oxygen Mask Panel and pushing the Reset/Test switch

37
Q
  1. How do you listen to the Inner Marker when conduction an “RA Not Authorized” Category II approach?
A

Select MKR on Approach Receiver Selector and adjust volume

38
Q
  1. The left PFD, ND, and FMC are normally powered by?
A

APU standby bus

39
Q
  1. Under normal operation, what powers the main and APU Standby busses?
A

Main Standby bus powered by AC Bus 3

APU Standby bus powered by Captain’s Transfer Bus

40
Q
  1. What causes DISC to illuminate in the CSD Disconnect Switch?
A

There is no DISC light in the CSD Disconnect Switch

The DRIVE light is illuminated by low oil pressure, hi oil temperature, or frequency fault.

41
Q
  1. Do the AC BTBs and DCIRs open at any time when there is no cockpit annunciation?
A

Auto land

42
Q
  1. You are being released to a destination where a Category III approach is to be conducted. Enroute, the
    number 4 Generator has been disconnected. Can you still conduct a category III approach?
A

Yes

43
Q
  1. The aircraft is dark. External power is connected to the left receptacle. Can you light your path to the cockpit?
    How?
A

Yes, you can use your flashlight, or you can power the Flight Deck Access Lights using switches located by
L1 door, overhead maintenance panel, upper deck CSM, or upper deck service door,

44
Q
  1. The number 1 EEC has gone to alternate mode. Which line no longer appears on the number 1 N1 indicator?
A

Alternate mode does not protect against over boost so the yellow thrust limit line no longer appears

45
Q
  1. When will the engine oil quantity appear magenta when the oil quantity is in the normal range?
A

When low oil quantity or differential is reached

46
Q
  1. With auto start functioning normally, under what conditions must the start be manually aborted?
A

No N1 by idle N2
No oil pressure by idle N2
Fire Warning

47
Q
  1. When will the EICAS Memo Message APU RUNNING be displayed?
A

APU selector on and APU N1 reaches 95%

48
Q
  1. What is the total time of fire suppression available to the lower lobe cargo compartments? What are the
    immediate action items for an Engine Fire in flight?
A

334 minutes
Immediate action items for an Engine Fire in Flight:
Thrust Lever (affected engine) Confirm, Idle
Fuel Control Switch (affected engine) Confirm, Cutoff
Engine Fire Switch (affected engine) Confirm, Pull
If the FIRE ENGINE message is shown:
Engine Fire Switch Rotate and hold for 1 second
if after 30 seconds the FIRE ENG message stays shown:
Engine Fire Switch Rotate to other bottle and hold

49
Q
  1. There is a fire. Now what happens when the PNF pulls the Engine Fire Switch?
A

Closes related engine and spar fuel valves
Closes related engine bleed air valve
Trips off the related engine generator
Shuts off hydraulic fluid to and depressurized related engine-driven hydraulic pump
Arms both related engine fire extinguishers

50
Q
  1. If the EICAS message “FLAPS PRIMARY” is displayed, what protection is provided?
A

Asymmetry protection, No load relief

51
Q
  1. You may have noticed that the line and number on the flap indicator turn magenta when the PF selects
    reverse thrust. Why does this happen?
A

Inboard & Mid-span LEDs retract to protect them from FOD and to provide more weight on wheels to
improve braking

52
Q
  1. When does the rising runway symbol on the PFD appear? When does it start to rise?
A

Displays below 1000 feet RA when localizer pointer in view

Rises below 200 feet RA

53
Q
  1. You are conducting a Category III approach. You have captured the localizer and the expanded scale is
    displayed in the PFD. At what localizer deflection is a go-around required? What is the indication on the PFD?
A

1/3 dot

At low radio altitudes scale turns amber and the pointer flashes rto indicate excessive localizer deviation

54
Q
  1. On what selected range of the ND can you see all waypoints, all stations and all three segments of the
    position trend vector visible?
A

40 nm

55
Q
  1. You have been asked to intercept the CVG 033 radial and track it outbound. How do you do this?
A
L1 - CVG033/50
R6 - 033
Execute
Arm LNAV
[Display CVG 033 radial as green dotted line on fix page for course guidance near CVG]
56
Q
  1. Your departure procedure’s initial instruction is a heading vector. It is displayed as a Conditional Waypoint
    heading on the CDU, followed by the term VECTORS. Can LNAV be used to fly the heading?
A

Yes

57
Q
  1. What CDU pages are available in standby navigation after both FMS units have failed?
A

Alternate Navigation Progress
Alternate Navigation Legs
Alternate Navigation Nav Rad

58
Q
  1. On the NAV RAD page of the CDU, a VOR identifier is followed by a letter in small font. What are the possible
    letters? What do they mean? What must be displayed in order to enter a course?
A
P Procedure
R Route
A Auto
M Manual
Dashed line, course must be displayed to enter a course. Can’t enter if Auto tune
59
Q
  1. When will the fuel system automatically balance itself?
A

Fuel Jettison, refueling

60
Q
  1. You are fully configured for takeoff. What are the positions of the number 2 and 3 crossfeed valves? What are
    the cockpit indications?
A

closed

No indications if system is operating normally

61
Q
  1. You are starting the APU. External power is not available. How and where is fuel supplied to the APU?
A

Fuel from Main tank 2 is supplied to the APU by dedicated DC Pump

62
Q
  1. The Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump(s) are powered by what bus or busses?
A

Ground Handling Bus

63
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed for landing gear extension? Operation?
A

Extension 270 kts / M.82

Operation 320 kts / M.82