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CURRENT EKQ > OG: Tech Flight Options > Flashcards

OG: Tech Flight Options Flashcards

1
Q

Max pressure ALT for ops

A

35,000ft

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2
Q

Aircraft yaw damp must be operative above ___?

A

F190

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3
Q

Kingair is __ft long and ___ft wingspan?

A

47ft long

58ft wingspan

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4
Q

Entrance door is locked from the inside by

A

Turning handle clockwise

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5
Q

[DOOR UNLOCKED] master warning indicates?

A

Airstair door is open or not secure

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6
Q

Pro Line avionics system supports all cockpit systems except?

A

HUD (heads up display)

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7
Q

Standard lead battery installed is rated at __V?

A

24Volts

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8
Q

Essential electrical equipment is powered by?

A

Battery bus/dual fed bus

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9
Q

Hydraulic pressure is provided to what systems? What system does not have hydraulic power?

A

Landing gear/flaps/toe brakes

Not provided to the park brake

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10
Q

Ice protection is provided to what systems? and what does not have ice protection?

A

Wing leading edges/pitot masks/stall warning vane

Nil ice protection; Static ports

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11
Q

Cabin pressurisation is controlled from?

A

ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL group

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12
Q

Vxse is ___IAS (Engine out best angle of CLB)

A

125kts

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13
Q

Faults that illuminate the ____ annunciators require immediate reaction/attention of the pilot

A

RED WARNING

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14
Q

A red warning annunciator will extinguish when?

A

The fault is no longer sensed

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15
Q

A flashing MASTER WARNING light will remain illuminated until?

A

The light face is pressed

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16
Q

The PRESS TO TEST button confirms the status of

A

Light circuit integrity and bulb status

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17
Q

The power sources for the electrical system include

A

Battery, two generators, ground power

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18
Q

The Kingair350 electrical system is commonly referred to as?

A

The triple fed system

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19
Q

The battery for the KA350 is rated at?

A

24V

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20
Q

External power can be used to operate?

A

All electrical systems when the engines aren’t operating

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21
Q

What cockpit switch enables AC power to cabin outlets?

A

INTERIOR MASTER switch

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22
Q

What does the loadmeter indicate?

A

Generator load as a percentage of generator rating

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23
Q

What does L/R DC GEN (yellow) annunciator message indicate (Caution)

A

Generator is offline (L/R)

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24
Q

Where are the generator and battery load gauges located?

A

Overhead light control panel

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25
Q

What is the purpose of the battery bus?

A

Provides power to the essential systems

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26
Q

During battery start, prior to selecting ON with the “ignition and engine start switch” and before starting the second engine, the DC loadmeter should read approx ___% or less

A

50%

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27
Q

The min battery voltage required for external PWR start is?

A

20V

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28
Q

Control switched that are operable during a dual generator failure are indicated by ____ the switch

A

A white circle around the switch

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29
Q

A Gen bus tie will open automatically to protect the electrical system from malfunction when excessive current is sensed on _____ bus.

A

The same side generator

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30
Q

The external power cart must be set to ___V and capable of generating a min of ____ amps momentarily and ___ amps continuously

A

28 - 28.4V
1000A
300A

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31
Q

Max sustained generator load at 30,000ft is ___%

A

95%

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32
Q

Cockpit flood lights and indirect (glareshield) instrument lights are controlled by?

A

Rheostat knobs

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33
Q

Emergency exit lighting is installed?

A

In ceiling adjacent to the entry door and between the emergency exits

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34
Q

EXIT signs automatically illuminate during normal flight ops when?

A

Rapid deceleration is sensed

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35
Q

The switch to control the threshold light for the airstair door is located?

A

By the threshold light

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36
Q

Both wing ice lights are required to be operable for flight in?

A

Icing conditions

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37
Q

Selecting LDG lights on will illuminate?

A

Landing lights ONLY regardless of gear position

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38
Q

Effects of engine anti ice on NCP (reset handbook pwr/unable to reset handbook pwr)

  • Nil ice present
  • Ice present
A

Nil ice:
TQ decreases by 14%
- handbook pwr is not reset: TAS will decrease by 20kts, FF will decrease by 40lbs/hr/per eng
- Handbook pwr reset: TAS unchanged, FF increases by 45lbs/hr/per eng.

Ice present:
TQ decreases by 16%
- Handbook pwr not reset: TAS decrease by 70kts, FF decrease by 50lbs/hr/per eng
- Handbook pwr reset: TAS decrease by 50kts, FF increases by 45lbs/hr/per eng

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39
Q

Effects of engine anti ice on MRP

  • Nil ice (what to do)
  • Ice present (what do do)
A

Nil ice:
TQ decreases by 4%
- IOT maintain Max range configuration, do not reset handbook pwr value.
- FF will remain the same, TAS decrease approx 10kts

Ice present
TQ decreases by 5%
- IOT maintain Max range configuration, reset power 5% above handbook value
-FF increases 25lbs/hr/per eng and TAS decreases approx 30kts

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40
Q

a FUEL PRES LO message indicates that?

A

Fuel pressure is too low

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41
Q

Motive flow pressure for the auxiliary transfer pump comes from?

A

Primary boost pump

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42
Q

Each side of the main fuel system contains?

A

Five tanks and a nacelle tank

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43
Q

Immediate engine flameout can be expected from?

A

High Pressure boost pump failure

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44
Q

The standby boost pumps are operated by?

A

Electrical power

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45
Q

An integral fuel tank is also called a?

A

Wet cell

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46
Q

Maximum engine overhaul interval with the use of Avgas?

A

150hrs

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47
Q

How many fuel drains does the KA350 have?

A

5

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48
Q

Max lateral fuel imbalance allowable?

A

300lbs

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49
Q

If aux fuel is rqd, what tanks are filled first?

A

The aux tanks must be filled AFTER the main tanks have been filled

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50
Q

Total useable fuel for KA350

A

3611lbs

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51
Q

What does operating props in the reverse range do?

A

Resets the fuel topping governor to 95% prop rpm

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52
Q

What does moving the prop lever into the feathering range do?

A

Dumps high pressure oil

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53
Q

What does the constant speed governor respond to?

A

Control level

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54
Q

What is the fuel heated by?

A

An oil heat exchanger

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55
Q

What is the power lever connected to?

A

Governor in the FCU (fuel control unit)

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56
Q

What does the Autofeather system require to activate?

A

Power levers above 90% N1

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57
Q

What is the fuel control system powered by?

A

The pneumatic system

58
Q

What does the auto ignition system do?

A

Prevents engine loss during critical flight conditions

59
Q

What should the engines be operated at for maximum reversing performance?

A

70% N1 high idle

60
Q

When is the prop synchrophaser engaged?

A

When the prop pitch angles are within 30deg of a preset angle

61
Q

What is the minimum N1 required to select low idle on engine start?

A

12%

62
Q

If the compressor bleed valve fails to close as static power is set, torque will indicate ____ than normal, and ITT will indticate ____ than normal

A

Lower; higher

63
Q

Ignition occurs during engine start and during operations of ____ or less when ignition is _____

A

17% torque, armed

64
Q

Max allowable continuous ITT for takeoff

A

820deg

65
Q

Oil temp between 99 deg and 110 deg are limited to ___ mins?

A

10min

66
Q

Max gas generator N1 RPM limit for takeoff is?

A

104%

67
Q

The prop governor is scheduled to control RPM between?

A

1450 - 1700

68
Q

The autofeather system will feather the inoperative engines prop when the inoperative engine torque falls below?

A

10% torque

69
Q

The overspeed governor limits RPM to a max of?

A

1768rpm

70
Q

Max allowable continuous RPM for take off?

A

1700rpm

71
Q

The fire detection system includes what components?

A

ENG FIRE annunciator messages
A FIRE DET circuit breaker
A temperature sensing cable

72
Q

Where are the fire extinguisher cylinders located?

A

In each wheel well

73
Q

The red EXTINGUISHER PUSH light illuminates when?

A

When the ENG FIRE TEST switch is in the EXT position

74
Q

When will the amber DISCHARGED light illuminate?

A

The pyrotechnic cartridge has been fired

75
Q

Proper extinguisher pressure is a function of?

A

Ambient temperature

76
Q

What will happen when a fire has been extinguished?

A

The detection system will reset (if undamaged)

77
Q

Pneumatic pressure for system operation is?

A

18psi

78
Q

Pneumatic bleed air is used to operate everything except?

A

Yaw damping

79
Q

Response to a L or R BLEED FAIL annunciator message includes moving?

A

BLEED AIR VALVE switch

80
Q

Normal operating pressure range for pneumatic pressure gauge is?

A

12 - 20psi

81
Q

After selecting the bleed air valve to pneumatic and environmental off after illumination of a single L or R BLEED FAIL annunciator, the annunciator will:

A

Remain illuminated

82
Q

Regulated pneumatic air pressure

A

Inflate the boots

83
Q

Vacuum air is provided for?

A

Wing deice boot hold down

84
Q

Normal vacuum pressure range at low level is?

A

4.3 to 5.9Hg

85
Q

Cockpit & cabin heating is provided by?

A

Engine Bleed air

86
Q

Bleed air that isn’t needed for cabin and cockpit air conditioning is..?

A

Directed aft to the baggage compartment

87
Q

The supplemental electric heating system warms the?

A

Cabin area

88
Q

The ENVIR BLEED AIR switch should be selected to ____ for climbs?

A

NORMAL

89
Q

What is the cooling system made up of?

A

A refrigeration compressor, a condenser and two evaporators

90
Q

The COCKPIT TEMP switch can set windshield and glare shield defog temperatures when the ECS MODE selector is set to;

A

MAN COOL

91
Q

Where is the air conditioning compressor located?

A

In the right hand engine accessory area

92
Q

Turning the cockpit TEMP switch fully counter-clockwise selects?

A

The coolest temp

93
Q

The cockpit and cabin floor heat servos are commanded open when?

A

MAN HEAT is selected

94
Q

Windshield defogging is controlled by?

A

The COCKPIT TEMP switch

95
Q

If the engine speed is too low for the airconditioning compressor to properly engage;
What will happen? and What is the N1 %?

A

<62% N1 for the right hand engine

The white AIR COND N1 LOW status annunciator illuminates

96
Q

For more efficiency cooling on the ground, place the BLEED AIR VALVE switches to the ____ position

A

ENVIR OFF

97
Q

Before T/O, crew should set the ACFT ALT scale to

A

1000ft abve planned cruise pressure altitude

98
Q

The max selectable rate at which cabin pressurisation can change is?

A

2,000 ft per minute

99
Q

The aircraft pressurisation system can maintain a maximum cabin atmosphere differential of?

A

6.5 +/- 0.1 psi

100
Q

The TEST position of the CABIN PRESS switch is used to?

A

Test pressurisation system whilst on the ground

101
Q

The white CABIN ALT annunciator and the red CABIN ALT HI annunciator illuminates at? When do the oxy masks fall?

A

10,000ft
12,000ft
12,500ft

102
Q

The oxygen systems must first be enabled by?

A

A PULL ON- SYSTEM READY handle

103
Q

First air oxygen is available from a supply in?

A

The toilet compartment in the aft fuselage

104
Q

If cabin smoke or fumes is encountered, the flight deck crew should put their oxygen to;

A

EMERG

105
Q

Oxygen can be isolated to only the crew and first aid asks with;

A

Push the PASSENGER MANUAL DROP OUT handle IN and pull the OXYGEN CONTROL circuit breaker

106
Q

The pressure sensitive switch in the passenger oxygen line illuminates which lights?

A

A foyer light, cabin lights and the centre baggage compartment light

107
Q

Oxygen flows in the passenger masks when?

A

A lanyard valve pin is pulled

108
Q

Deployment of the passenger oxygen masks is indicated by the illumination of the _____ annunciator

A

White PASS OXY ON system status

109
Q

The amber OXY NOT ARMED caution annunciator illuminates when the;

A

Main oxygen system is not armed

110
Q

Crew oxygen is provided by a ____ oxygen mask

A

Diluter demand quick donning

111
Q

What areas does the KA350 have Deice systems? (removal)

A
  • Wing leading edges
  • Horizontal stabiliser leading edge
  • Prop
  • Brakes
112
Q

What areas does the KA350 have Anti-ice systems (prevention)

A
  • Engine air inlets & compressor
  • Windshield
  • Pitot Masts
  • Stall vane
  • Fuel
113
Q

What do the propeller deicing boots do and how are they powered?

A

Heat blades according to a set cycle (electrical heat)

114
Q

What can the windshield heating do?

A

Affect the accuracy of the magnetic compass

115
Q

What does the anti-icing for the leading edge engine inlet utillise?

A

Hot exhaust gas

116
Q

How does stall warning vane heat operate?

A

A two different heating levels

117
Q

Leading edge wing and horizontal stabiliser surfaces are deiced with?

A

Inflatable boots

118
Q

What does the engine inertial vane do?

A

Protects the engine compressor screen

119
Q

How is fuel heated?

A

Uses fuel to oil heat exchange

120
Q

Windshield rain removal?

A

Utilises two-speed wiper arms

121
Q

Wing deice boots should be used?

A

Only after about 1/2 an ice of ice has accumulated on the wings

122
Q

In the event of windshield icing, reduce speed to?

A

226kts IAS

123
Q

During flight in visible moisture, or an night when flight from visible moisture cannot be assured, engine anti-ice must be on at temperatures below?

A

5deg C

124
Q

Hydraulic power for the landing gear comes from?

A

A hydraulic power pack

125
Q

Separate hydraulic lines are provided for which operating modes for gear extension/retraction?

A
  • Emergency extension
  • Normal retraction
  • Normal extension
    (A separate hydraulic line is not provided for Manual retraction)
126
Q

The main landing gear are locked in the down position by?

A

Drag legs

127
Q

The landing gear is…?

A

Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

128
Q

Unsafe gear indications are probably genuine for what situations?

A
  • The inoperative GEAR DOWN light does illuminate when tested
  • The red LDG GEAR CONTROL handle lights are illuminated
  • The gear warning horn sounds when the power levers are retarded below N1
129
Q

The LANDING GEAR ALTERNATE EXTENSION handle is located?

A

On the floor between the pilots seat and the pedestal

130
Q

The aircrew can test the HYD FLUID LOW annunciator circuitry by;

A

Pressing the HYD FLUID SENSOR TEST button

131
Q

The landing gear warning horn will sound continuously when the gear is not down and locked, and;

A

The flaps are beyond the approach position

132
Q

The best ground turning performance is achieve when?

A

Rudder pedals, brakes and engine power are used together

133
Q

The parking brake should not be set under what conditions?

A

High moisture conditions, with hot brakes and in freezing temperatures

134
Q

The max permitted LDG gear extension speed

A

184kts IAS

135
Q

Manually operated trim tabs are installed on which surfaces?

A

Rudder, Left aileron (NOT right) and elevator

136
Q

The rudder boost system will disengage when?

A

Either AP/TRIM MASTER switch is pressed

137
Q

A functioning rudder boost system is indicated during pre-takeoff checks by?

A

Rudder movement forward on the side OPPOSITE the idling engine

138
Q

Electric elevator trim system can be disengaged by

A

Pressing the AP/TRIM MASTER switch to the second indent

139
Q

In the case of a mismatch between flap positions, what happens?

A

A safety mechanism will disconnect power to the electric motor

140
Q

Why must the ground control locks be removed before towing the airplane?

A

Otherwise the steering linkage could suffer serious damage

CURRENT EKQ (6 decks)

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