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LDCE CORE > OFC Instn, FTTH, FSO, N/W analysers, RFMS, Satellite, VSAT > Flashcards

OFC Instn, FTTH, FSO, N/W analysers, RFMS, Satellite, VSAT Flashcards

1
Q

OFC is laid at a minimum distance of ___ meters from the center line of the road where the road land is wider
1) 10
2) 15
3) 20
4) 25

A

15 meters

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2
Q

OFC is planned for about ______
1) 10 to 15 years
2) 15 to 20 years
3) 20 to 25 years
4) 25 to 30 years

A

25 to 30 years

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3
Q

HDD stands for

A

Horizontal directional drilling.
HDD is normally deployed in soft soil.

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4
Q

The soil is categorized as rocky if the
1) cable trench cannot be dug without blasting and/or chiseling
2) having soft rocks along the path
3) both

A

1) cable trench cannot be dug without blasting and/or chiseling

All other types of soils shall be categorized as Non Rocky including Murrum & soil mixed with stone or soft rock.

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5
Q

Rocky soil
1) basalt
2) kachcha soil
3) Pucca soils
4) All of the above

A

basalt

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6
Q

HDPE stands for

A

High-density polyethylene

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7
Q

DWC HDPE pipe used for laying OFC. DWC stands for

A

Double walled corrugated

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8
Q

wherever OFC is passing over the ground surface
(exposed outside) and more prone to damage, ____ pipe may be used preferably
1) GI
2) RCC
3) GWC

A

GI
However, depending upon the site conditions and cost consideration one of the protection
viz DWC / GI / RCC pipe may be used
RCC: Reinforced cement concrete
DWC: Double walled corrugated

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9
Q

Trench depth is _____ cm in non-Rocky soil
1) 100 cm
2) 150 cm
3) 165 cm
4) 180 cm

A

165 cm measured from the top of pipe

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10
Q

PP rope is first drawn through HDPE. PP stands for

A

Polypropylene Para Pro

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11
Q

RCC stands for

A

Reinforced cement concrete

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12
Q

First choice for extra protection of OFC among GI and DWC

A

DWC: Double walled corrugated

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13
Q

The Joint chamber shall be of ____
1) pre-cast GI
2) pre-cast RCC
3) pre-cast DWC

A

pre-cast RCC
(Reinforced cement concrete)

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14
Q

The Route and Joint indicator shall be of ____
1) pre-cast GI
2) pre-cast RCC
3) stone

A

2 or 3

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15
Q

A minimum free clearance of _____ cms. should be maintained above or below any existing underground installation
1) 10
2) 15
3) 20
4) 25

A

15 cms

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16
Q

In all cases, the slope of the trench shall not be less than _______ degrees with the horizontal surface.
1) 10
2) 15
3) 20
4) 25

A

15 degrees

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17
Q

The width of the trench shall normally be ___ cms at the top & ___ cms at the bottom
1) 50, 30
2) 45, 30
3) 60, 40

A

45, 30
45 cms at the top & 30 cms at the bottom

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18
Q

For road and railway crossings
1) fluid-assisted
2) dry directional drilling machines
3) micro-tunnelling systems
4) any of the above

A

any of the above

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19
Q

mini trench dimension
1) 10 x 30 cm
2) 5 x 30 cm

A

10 x 30 cm
(5 x 30 cm for enhanced mini trench)

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20
Q

is normally carried out by cutting a shallow groove in the asphalt (better if not less than 7 cm), but without penetrating past the asphalt layer.
1) mini trenching
2) enhanced mini trenching
3) micro trenching

A

micro trenching

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21
Q

Installation of OFC over power lines
1) ADSS
2) OPGW
3) both

A

both
ADSS up to 33KV
OPGW beyond 33KV to 400KV
ADSS: All-Dielectric Self-supporting
OPGW: Optical Ground Wire

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22
Q

Installation of OFC over power lines over 33KV
1) ADSS
2) OPGW
3) both

A

OPGW: Optical Ground Wire

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23
Q

Fill ratio of the duct should not exceed ___%
1) 25%
2) 50%
3) 75%

A

50%

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24
Q

On long cable pulls, _______ may be used to facilitate intermediate-assist placing
operations.
1) handholes
2) manholes

A

handholes

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25
Q

Minimum bend diameter for slack storage
1) D> 5 x cable OD
2) D> 10 x cable OD
3) D> 20 x cable OD
4) D> 30 x cable OD

A

D> 10 x cable OD

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26
Q

Joint chamber shall be of ____
1) pre-cast GI
2) pre-cast RCC
3) stone

A

pre-cast RCC
diameter of 120 cm
height of 100 cm
thickness of 5 cm

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27
Q

FTTB, FTTC stands for

A

Fiber To The Building
Fiber To The Curb

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28
Q

FTTH can be installed as
1) active optical network
2) passive optical network

A

both

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29
Q

Home Run Fiber architecture is
1) active optical network
2) point-to-point
3) point-to-multipoint
4) uses ethernet switch

A

1 and 2

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30
Q

Active Star Ethernet (ASE) architecture is
1) active optical network
2) point-to-point
3) point-to-multipoint
4) uses ethernet switch

A

1, 3 and 4

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31
Q

CPE for EPON is
1) ONU
2) ONT
3) OLT

A

ONU: Optical Network Unit
(EPON:Ethernet Passive Optical Networking)

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32
Q

CPE for GPON is
1) ONU
2) ONT
3) OLT

A

ONT: Optical Network Terminal
(GPON:Gigabit Passive Optical Networking)

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33
Q

______ reside in the central office
1) ONU
2) ONT
3) OLT

A

OLT: Optical Line Terminal

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34
Q

Optical splitters are capable of providing up to _______ optical split
1) 1:16
2) 1:32
3) 1:64
4) 1:128

A

1:64

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35
Q

Downstream traffic I.e. from OLT to ONU/ONT
1) FDM
2) TDM
3) TDMA

A

TDM

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36
Q

Upstream traffic I.e. from ONU/ONT to OLT
1) FDM
2) TDM
3) TDMA

A

TDMA
Time Division Multiplex Access

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37
Q

PON system
1) symmetrical
2) asymmetrical

A

both
may be symmetrical or asymmetrical

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38
Q

splitter configurations used for PON
1) centralized
2) cascaded

A

both

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39
Q

APON stands for

A

ATM PON

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40
Q

BPON stands for

A

Broadband PON

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41
Q

________ uses ATM
1) APON
2) BPON

A

both

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42
Q

EPON stands for

A

Ethernet PON by IEEE
called now as Gigabit Ethernet PON (GE-PON)

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43
Q

GPON supports ______ encapsulation
1) ATM
2) GEM

A

both
GEM: GPON Encapsulation Method
GEM supports a native transport of voice, video, and data without an added ATM or IP encapsulation layer.

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44
Q

_______ operates at 1.25Gbps both downstream and upstream (symmetrical)
1) APON
2) BPON
3) EPON (GEPON)
4) GPON

A

EPON
(also called GE-PON)

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45
Q

_______ support downstream rate 2.5Gbps and upstream 1.25 Gbps
1) APON
2) BPON
3) EPON (GEPON)
4) GPON

A

GPON
ITU-T standard

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46
Q

All PON upstream
1) 1310 nm
2) 1490 nm
3) !550 nm

A

1310 nm

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47
Q

OLT to ONU maximum distance
1) 5 KM
1) 10 KM
1) 20 KM
1) 30 KM

A

20 KM

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48
Q

Line Codes for BPON/GPON
1) NRZ ( Scrambled )
2) 8B/10B

A

NRZ ( Scrambled )

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49
Q

Line Codes for EPON
1) NRZ ( Scrambled )
2) 8B/10B

A

8B/10B

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50
Q

EPON number of fibers
1) 1
2) 2
3) both

A

1 only
BPON ang GPON support both 1 and 2

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51
Q

single fiber two-way communication uses WDM technique (T/F)

A

T

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52
Q

ITU-T standard
1) BPON
2) EPON
3) GPON
4) GEPON

A

BPON, GPON
(EPON, GEPON is IEEE standard)

53
Q

FSO: Lasers of much higher power can safely by used with 1,550-nm systems than with 780-to-850-nm systems.

A

T
wavelengths less than about 1,400 nm are
focused by the cornea into a concentrated spot falling on the retina, which can cause damage to eyes

54
Q

FSO Can transmit at distances around ____ km
1) 1km
2) 2km
3) 3km
4) 4km

A

4 km

55
Q

FSO: variation in light intensity caused by atmospheric turbulence causes
1) scintillation
2) beam wander

A

scintillation

56
Q

FSO: turbulent wind current (eddies) larger than the diameter of the transmitted optical beam cause a slow, but significant, displacement
of the transmitted beam causes
1) scintillation
2) beam wander

A

beam wander

57
Q

FSO: Severe rain may have up to _____ dB/km attenuation
1) 10 dB/km
2) 20 dB/km
3) 50 dB/km
4) 100 dB/km

A

100 dB/km

58
Q

FSO: The ITU-T Rec. G.640 will allow the co-location
of FSO systems without interference with each other

A

T

59
Q

_________ technology is a wireless communication system based on
the use of visible light between the violet (800 THz) and red (400 THz).
1) FSO
2) Li-Fi

A

Light Fidelity (Li-Fi)

60
Q

Li-Fi is suitable for wireless communication in
1) long distance
2) short distance

A

short distance

61
Q

Common network analyzers
1) Wireshark / Ethereal
2) Windump
3) Etherpeak
4) Dsniff

A

all of them

62
Q

random timing variation is denoted by
1) jitter
2) jabber

A

jitter

63
Q

failure to handle electrical signals is denoted by
1) jitter
2) jabber

A

jabber

64
Q

Sniffer can capture all the incoming data when the
NIC is in ___________ mode
1) promiscuous
2) non-promiscuous

A

promiscuous (not restricted to one port)
(Default setup is non-promiscuous)
causes the controller to pass all traffic it receives to the central processing unit (CPU) rather than passing only the frames that the controller is specifically programmed to receive.

65
Q

If ______ are used the sniffer must perform port spanning (port mirroring)
1) hubs
2) switches

A

switches
(not required for hubs, as all ports get same traffic)
Port mirroring is used on a network switch to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to a network monitoring connection on another switch port.

66
Q

MAC address spoofing refers to
1) deleting MAC address
2) changing MAC address

A

changing MAC address

67
Q

which of the following use encrypted headers
1) SSH: Secure Shell
2) SSL: Secure Socket Layer
3) IPsec

A

IPsec
It does not use TCP or UDP

68
Q

IEEE standard for Ethernet is
1) IEEE 801.2
1) IEEE 802.3
1) IEEE 802.1
1) IEEE 802.11

A

IEEE 802.3
( IEEE 802.11 is for WiFi)

69
Q

Ethernet MAC address is _____ bit

A

48 Bit
(6 slotsx8)

70
Q

w.r.t troposcatter propagation
1) can cover several hundred kms
2) capacity is limited
3) high transmit power required
4) huge antennas required

A

all of them

71
Q

geostationary orbit is at height
1) 32576
2) 35786
3) 39876
4) 31186

A

35786
as per the Kepler‘s third law.

72
Q

The first truly geostationary satellite
1) Syncom 3

A

Syncom 3
launched on August 19, 1964.

73
Q

the first television transmission sent over the Pacific Ocean.

A

1964 Summer Olympics in Tokyo, Japan to the United States

74
Q

Period of revolution for earth
1) 23 Hrs, 56 Min, 4 Sec

A

23 Hrs, 56 Min, 4 Sec

75
Q

global communication can be made using only _____ satellites
1) two
2) three
3) four

A

three

76
Q

The satellites normally used for broadcast feeds to and from television networks and local affiliate stations
1) FSS
2) DBS

A

FSS: Fixed Service Satellites

77
Q

FSS: Fixed Service Satellites uses
1) C Band
2) lower portions of the Ku band
3) upper portions of the Ku band

A

1) C Band
2) lower portions of the Ku band

78
Q

_____ is used for DTH-oriented (Direct-ToHome) satellite TV services
1) FSS
2) DBS

A

DBS: Direct Broadcast Satellites

79
Q

Dish Antenna size for lower Ku band
1) 1 to 3 feet
2) 3 to 8 feet
3) 8 to 12
4) 12 feet or more

A

3 to 8 feet

80
Q

Dish Antenna size for C band
1) 1 to 3 feet
2) 3 to 8 feet
3) 8 to 12
4) 12 feet or more

A

12 feet or more

81
Q

Dish Antenna size for upper Ku band
1) 1 to 3 feet
2) 3 to 8 feet
3) 8 to 12
4) 12 feet or more

A

1) 1 to 3 feet

82
Q

The communication satellite essentially consists of
1) Payload
2) Support subsystem

A

both
Payload: transponders forTx&Rx
Support subsystem: altitude and orbit control equipment, power subsystem, telemetry and tele-command (TTC) subsystem, etc

83
Q

Ku Band Frequency
1) 1-2 GHz
2) 4-8 GHz
3) 12-18 GHz
4) 27-40 GHz

A

12-18 GHz

84
Q

C Band Frequency
1) 1-2 GHz
2) 4-8 GHz
3) 12-18 GHz
4) 27-40 GHz

A

4-8 GHz

85
Q

Min propagation delay with sat commn from one end to other
1) 120 msec
2) 240 msec
3) 360 msec
4) 480 msec

A

240 msec (single hop)
-The propagation delay results in echo in a telephony channel.
-multi hope delay will be unacceptable for voice.
-echo suppressors is incorporated in the earth station to counteract the echo

86
Q

Altitude range for LEO
1) 150 to 1,000
2) 500 to 2,000
3) 1,000 to 5,000
4) 2,000 to 5,000

A

LEO: Low Earth orbit
150 to 1,000
period: 1.5 to 1.8 hrs

87
Q

Satellites in mean altitude range 36,000 is
1) geostationary
2) geosynchronous

A

geosynchronous
(geostationary must be in the equator plane)

88
Q

Altitude range for MEO
1) 1,000 to 5,000
2) 5,000 to 10,000
3) 10,000 to 15,000
4) 15,000 to 20,000

A

MEO: Medium Earth orbit
5,000 to 10,000
period: 3.5 to 6 hrs

89
Q

w.r.t satellite commn, EIRP stands for

A

Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
Primary Coverage Area - 3 db contour EIRP 32 dbw .
Secondary Coverage Area - 6 db contour EIRP 29 dbw
Tertiary Coverage Area - 9 db contour EIRP 26 dbw

90
Q

V-SAT ODU consists of
1) Dish
2) BUC
3) LNB
4) all of these

A

all of these
BUC: Block Up Converter
LNB: Low noise Block Down Converter

91
Q

V-SAT IF is generally
1) C band
2) L band
3) Ku band
4) Ka band

A

L band

92
Q

V-SAT max download speed
1) 2mbps
2) 4mbps
3) 8mbps

A

download: 4mbps
upload: 2mbps

93
Q

V-SAT max upload speed
1) 2mbps
2) 4mbps
3) 8mbps

A

download: 4mbps
upload: 2mbps

94
Q

V-SAT is ideal choice for
1) WAN backup
2) disaster recovery

A

both

95
Q

VPNs can be created with
1) MLLN nodes
2) MPLS nodes
3) V-SAT
4) all

A

all

96
Q

ATA is used with V-SAT for
1) data traffic
2) voice traffic

A

voice traffic (VoIP)
ATA: Analog Telephone Adaptor
VoIP telephony with add on ATA

97
Q

V-SAT
1) has Built in GRE Tunneling
2) is transparent to IP Sec protocols
3) has Dynamic Link Allocation (DLA)
4) supports Video Conferencing

A

all of them

98
Q

w.r.t V-SAT, DLA stands for

A

Dynamic Link Allocation (DLA) technology
which automatically adjusts modulation, coding, and gain based on the link environment (such as during rain) to achieve maximum availability

99
Q

V-SAT network can be
1) point to point
2) star
3) mesh
4) star/mesh
5) broadcast configurations

A

any of them

100
Q

All Remote V-SAT locations are having
1) public IP
2) private IP

A

private IP

101
Q

VSAT MPLS router will work as _____ routers for the MPLS cloud
1) CE routers
2) PE routers

A

CE routers

102
Q

VSAT Broadband (Ku band VSAT) networks of BSNL designed in a _______ fashion
1) hub- and-spoke
2) mesh

A

hub- and-spoke

103
Q

VSAT HUB has ______ feed type Satellite antenna
1) Cassegrain feed type
2) back feed

A

Cassegrain feed type

104
Q

VAST ___ has GATEWAY Networking Equipment with interfaces to Terrestrial Networks like MLLN, MPLS and NIB
1) hub
2) spoke

A

hub

105
Q

A public IP address is assigned to both the VSAT network module and the router satellite interface. _______ is implemented on the Ethernet interface of the router, so that multiple clients can be connected and use the service.
1) MAC routing
2) Network Address Translation (NAT)
3) IP filtering

A

Network Address Translation (NAT)

106
Q

VSAT services can be deployed anywhere having a clear view of the_______
1) Kepler Belt
2) Clarke Belt

A

Clarke Belt

107
Q

Most current VSAT systems use a _______ which enables them to deliver the same content to tens or thousands of locations simultaneously at no additional cost

A

broadcast download scheme (such as DVB-S)
DVB-S: Digital Video Broadcasting-Satellite

108
Q

w.r.t V-SAT, DVB-S stands for

A

Digital Video Broadcasting-Satellite

109
Q

Corporate-grade VSAT networks are _______ networks over the air
1) public layer-2
2) public layer-3
3) private layer-2
4) private layer-3

A

private layer-2

110
Q

VSATs are subject to signal attenuation due to
weather (“Rain Fade”) - T/F

A

True, but the effect is typically far less than that experienced by one-way TV systems

111
Q

w.r.t satellite commn, DSPT stands for

A

Digital Satellite Phone Terminal

112
Q

w.r.t satellite commn, DAMA stands for

A

Demand Assigned Multiple Access
used in DSPT (Digital Satellite Phone Terminal)

113
Q

DSPT/DSPS project involves setting up of VSAT based network

A

T
The system consists of HUB Station and Remote Digital Satellite Phone Terminals working in Ku-Band
Transmit Freq: 13.75-14.5 GHz
Receive Freq: 10.7-12.75 GHz

114
Q

For BSNL DSPT/DSPS, the VSAT hub is at
1) Bangalore
2) Hyderabad
3) Sikanderabad
4) Delhi

A

For BSNL VSAT network the Hub shall be located at Sikanderabad (U.P.)

115
Q

w.r.t DSPT outdoor facilities, ULPC stands for

A

Up Link Power Control

116
Q

w.r.t DSPT outdoor facilities, SSPA stands for

A

Solid State Power Amplifier

117
Q

DSPT outdoor facilities include
1) Trance reject filter
2) Radar reject filter
3) SSPA
4) ULPC
5) LNA

A

all of them
SSPA: Solid State Power Amplifier
ULPC: Up Link Power Control

118
Q

BSNL has the license for providing IFMC.
IFMC stands for

A

In Flight and Maritime Connectivity
with Partnership of INMARSAT

119
Q

Inmarsat owns and operates the award-winning _______ service, which enables passengers to browse the internet, stream videos, check social media and much more during their flights
1) GX Aviation service
2) GX Broadband service

A

GX Aviation service

120
Q

In the maritime sector, Inmarsat operates its (Ka-band) Fleet Xpress service with unlimited Fleet Broadband (L-Band) back-up,

A

T

121
Q

BSNL has installed and commissioned Gateway for Inmarsat GSPS services (Global Satellite Phone Service) at
1) Sikanderabad
2) ALTTC Ghaziabad
3) BRBRTTC Jabalpur

A

ALTTC Ghaziabad, UP

122
Q

w.r.t INMARSAT services, GMDSS stands for

A

Global Maritime Distress and Safety System (GMDSS)

123
Q

BSNL C- Land Earth Station, LES for GMDSS services is at
1) Sikanderabad
2) ALTTC Ghaziabad
3) BRBRTTC Jabalpur

A

ALTTC Ghaziabad, UP
GMDSS: Global Maritime Distress and Safety System

124
Q

BSNL‘s GSPS (Global Satellite Phone Service) is provided thru INMARSAT I-4 F2 satellite located at
1) 63.90 degree West
2) 63.90 degree East

A

63.90 degree East

125
Q

BSNL‘s GSPS system provides telecommunication services to predominately mobile users through _______ interface over the Inmarsat4 (I-4) satellite
1) GMR-1+
2) GMR-2+

A

an enhanced GMR-2 air interface (GMR-2+)
GMR interface: GEO-Mobile Radio Interface

126
Q

BSNL‘s GSPS system provides services
1) Telephony Voice
2) Supplementary services
3) Circuit switched Data/Fax services (for specific applications)
4) SMS point-to-point, SMS-to- E-mail, E-mail-to- SMS

A

all of them

127
Q

The coverage is accessible to GSPS users at or above _____ degree antenna elevation angle
1) 20
2) 30
3) 45
4) 90

A

20 degree

128
Q

The GSPS system supports Satellite Phone Services served by a single Network Control Center-Gateway (NCC-GW) located at
1) Sikanderabad
2) ALTTC Ghaziabad
3) BRBRTTC Jabalpur

A

ALTTC Ghaziabad, UP

129
Q

A ______ orbit is a type of satellite orbit designed to provide communications and remote sensing coverage over high latitudes.
1) geostationary
2) MEO
3) LEO
4)Molniya

A

Molniya orbit

LDCE CORE (5 decks)

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