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Facts based on ISU course > Odds and ends > Flashcards

Odds and ends Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcus can grow under ___ moisture and ___ salt conditions

A

Low moisture; high salt

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2
Q

Water added to milk can be detected via ___ test

A

freezing point

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3
Q

Pasteurized milk should be stored at ___ F for best shelf life. It can last up to ___ weeks.

A

40F; 2 weeks

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4
Q

What illegal drug residue should show cattle be tested for especially?

A

Clenbuterol

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5
Q

Ground beef should be cooked to ___ internal temp to kill E. coli

A

155 F

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6
Q

“keep hot food hot; keep cold food cold”. What intermediate range does FDA define as danger zone for microbial growth?

A

41-145 F

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7
Q

Minimum time/temp requirements for home (vat) pasteurization?

A

30 min at 145 F

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8
Q

What kind of toxin does E. coli O157:H7 produce?

A

Verotoxin and/or shigatoxin

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9
Q

What kind of toxin does Staph aureus produce?

A

Enterotoxin

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10
Q

What kind of toxin does Clostridium botulinum produce?

A

Neurotoxin

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11
Q

Best place to isolate yersinia enterocolitica in swine?

A

Tonsils

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12
Q

Pork must be frozen to ____ F/C to prevent trichina

A

-40 F = -40 C

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13
Q

Name 3 viscosity-based tests for mastitis

A

California (CMT), Wisconsin, Whiteside

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14
Q

What is the bulk tank test for antibiotic residues in milk?

A

Delvotest is one option for farmers

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15
Q

Pre-harvest antibiotic residue testing can be done via ___ on ___(sample)__

A

Live Animal Swab Test (LAST) on urine

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16
Q

____ test may be used on cattle at slaughter if herdmates are positive for antibiotic residues, or if disabled/cull cows with high suspicion

A

Swab Test On Premises (STOP) test

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17
Q

____ test may be used on veal calves at slaughter for abx residues

A

Calf Antibiotic Sulfa Test (CAST)

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18
Q

____ test may be used on swine for Abx residue screening at slaughter

A

Sulfa on Site (SOS)

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19
Q

After biotransformation, drugs are usually more ___ soluiable

A

Water-soluable

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20
Q

Mechanism of action for atropine?

A

Anticholinergic (parasympatholitic)

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21
Q

Where should brand be placed for brucella reactors

A

Left hip

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22
Q

If focal (aka non-systemic) TB lesion is noted at slaughter, what is disposition for carcass?

A

Remove lesion and pass carcass for cooking (?)

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23
Q

If carcinoma-like lesions noted in bone at slaughter, what is disposition for carcass

A

Condemn

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24
Q

Caudal fold TB skin test should be read after ___ hrs

A

72 hr

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25
Q

Measly beef is caused by ____

A

Taenia saginata

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26
Q

Taenia saginata adult stage is found in ___ and intermediate in _____

A

Adult in man; intermediate in cattle

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27
Q

Measly pork is caused by ____

A

Taenia solium

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28
Q

Taenia solium adult stage is found in ___ and intermediate is found in _____

A

Adult in man; intermediate in man or swine

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29
Q

Hydatid disease is caused by

A

Echinococcus granulosus

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30
Q

Echinococcus granulosus: Definitive host = ____; Intermediate host= _______

A

Definitive = canids (domestic and wild), Intermediate =sheep, cattle, pigs, rarely man

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31
Q

Salmon poisoning is caused by _____

A

Fluke (Nanophyetus salminocola) containing Neorickettsia helminthoeca

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32
Q

In salmon poisoning, the fluke is ingested by ___ which is ingested by ____ which is ingested by ____

A

Fluke in snail (certicarea), which is eaten by salmon, which is consumed raw by dogs (who get sick)

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33
Q

Lumpy jaw is caused by

A

Actinomyces bovis

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34
Q

Wooden tongue is caused by

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

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35
Q

Blackleg is caused by

A

Clostridium chauvoei

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36
Q

Enterotoxemia or overeating disease is caused by

A

Clostridium Perfringens type D (aka pulpy kidney)

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37
Q

Nairobi sheep disease is transmitted by ___

A

tick vector

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38
Q

For Grade A milk, max SCC is ____ in cows; ____ in goats

A

750,000 cells/ml in cows; 1,000,000 cells/ml in goats

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39
Q

Low temp pasteurization requires heating to ___ F for ____ min

A

145 F for 30 mins

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40
Q

High temp pasteurization requires heating to ___ F for ___ min

A

161 F for 15 sec

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41
Q

Ultra High Temp pasteurization requires heating to ___ F for ___ min

A

280 F for 2 sec

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42
Q

In cases of methanol toxicity, ___ is the toxic metabolite believed to be responsible for ocular toxicity/blindness

A

Formic acid

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43
Q

Lassa fever reservoir species

A

Multimammate rats (Mastomys spp)

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44
Q

Lassa fever transmission routes

A

Contact with urine/feces of rodents, nosocomial transmission

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45
Q

Leprosy, aka ____ is caused by ____

A

Hansen’s disease; Mycobacterium leprae

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46
Q

Pasteurization is evaluated based on ability to kill which organism?

A

Coxiella burnetti

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47
Q

Which sulfa is approved for use in lactating dairy cows?

A

Sulfadimethoxine

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48
Q

“milk spots” on liver specimens from swine are indicative of what disease condition?

A

Ascaris suum

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49
Q

For each integer increase in a linear Somatic Cell Count score, you can assume what changes have occurred?

A

a doubling of the actual SCC and a uniform loss of milk of 1.5 pounds per cow per day

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50
Q

Visceral larval migrans in humans associated with what parasite?

A

Toxacara canis

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51
Q

Cutaneous larval migrans in humans associated with what parasite?

A

Ancylostoma spp

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52
Q 
Prion diseases by species:
Cow=
Human=
Mink=
Sheep=
Cervid=
A 
Cow= BSE
Human= CJD
Mink = Mink encephalopathy
Sheep = Scrapie
Cervid = CWD
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53
Q

At slaughter, cattle are condemned if antemortem temp is over ___ F

A

105 F

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54
Q

At slaughter, swine are condemned if antemortem temp is over ___ F

A

106 F

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55
Q

3 reasons to add nitrates to meat

A

1) Improve flavor
2) Bind to myoglobin to keep meat ‘red’ not brown
3) inhibit bacteria

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56
Q

Why add phosphates to meat? What is most common type of meat with phosphates added?

A

Improves water holding capacity; used especially in ham

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57
Q

“Enhanced pork” has what additives?

A

Sodium phosphate, Water and salt

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58
Q

What happens to milk components in mastitic milk? (Fat, Casein, Lactase, Protein, Minerals)

A

Decrease in fat, casein, lactase

Increase in protein, minerals

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59
Q

All sulfas are prohibited in lactating dairy cows except:

A

Sulfadimethoxine, sulfabromethazine, sulfaethoxypyridazine

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60
Q

Isotope half life of I-131

A

8.1 days

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61
Q

Isotope half life of C-14

A

5568 years

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62
Q

Isotope half life of Sr-90

A

28 years

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63
Q

Isotope half life of Cs-137

A

30 years

64
Q

Isotope half life of Cs- 134

A

2 years

65
Q

In what tissue does Sr-90 accumulate?

A

Bones

66
Q

Cs-137 mimics what mineral

A

Potassium

67
Q

I-131 concentrates in what tissue?

A

Milk and milk products; thyroid tissue

68
Q

1 cause of sporadic foodborne disease in the US?

A

Campylobacter

69
Q

Mission of FSIS?

A

Meat, poultry, and egg safety

70
Q

Mission of FSIS- International programs?

A

review foreign programs and inspect product at port of entry to US

71
Q

Enforcement tools under the control of FSIS?

A

Retention, detention, voluntary recall

72
Q

The US participates in International food safety through what commission?

A

Codex Alimentarius Commission

73
Q

What are the three steps to risk analysis?

A

Risk assessment, Risk management, and Risk communication

74
Q

Define: Risk Assessment, Risk Management, RIsk Communication

A

Assessment: process to identify hazards and describe risks
Management: Develop policies regarding risk using value judgements and considering who may benefit/lose
Communication: Communication between policy makers and stakeholders regarding risk

75
Q

Definition of relative risk?

A

Attack rate of exposed / Attack rate unexposed

76
Q

Definition attributed risk?

A

Attack rate exposed - Attack rate unexposed

77
Q

In food prep establishments, final rinse water must reach ___ degrees F

A

180 F

78
Q

What body parts constitutes red meat offal?

A

Edible parts other than striated muscle meat

79
Q

What body parts constitute poultry offal?

A

Inedible parts of bird (feet, feathers)

80
Q

Give two examples of food-borne psychrotrophic bacteria

A

Listeria and Yersinia

81
Q

Ideal humidity for chilled carcass storage at slaughter plant? What happens if too high humidity? Too low?

A

88-92%; higher = slime mold Lower = shrinkage

82
Q

Meat should be frozen at ___ degrees F; then stored at ____ degrees F

A

Freeze @ -10 F; store at 0 F

83
Q

Define weasand rod

A

Tool used to isolate the esophagus from trachea to tie off/prevent leakage during evisceration

84
Q

Ideal temperature for cutting floor @ slaughter plant is ___ degrees F

A

32 F

85
Q

How much visible fecal material is allowed on carcass

A

None (zero tolerance)

86
Q

Which enteric pathogens are most sensitive to irradiation

A

Campylobacter jejuni and E. coli 0157:h7

87
Q

Definition Radappertization:

A

Using enough radiation (20-70 kGy) to destroy all organisms/sterilize

88
Q

Definition Radicidation:

A

Using enough radiation (0.1-0.5 kGy) to inactivate non-sporeforming pathogens/pasteurize

89
Q

Definition Radurization

A

Using enough radiation (1-5 kGy) to destroy spoilage organisms

90
Q

Put the following terms in increasing order of radiation used: Radurization, Radicidation, Radappertization

A

Radicidation
Radurization
Radappertization

91
Q

WHO/Codex approves food irradiation up to what amount?

A

10 kGy

92
Q

How does FDA classify food irradiation?

A

As an additive

93
Q

Definition stitch pumping?

A

Long needle inserted into meat chunk; curing solution pumped in

94
Q

Pork can be certified trichinella-free after what treatment?

A

Frozen to -40 F (-40 C)

95
Q

What is the use of a flow diversion valve in pasteurization?

A

IT can divert milk back to the bulk tank if it doesn’t reach 161 F

96
Q

What are the main causes for slime formation on meat surface?

A

Lactobacillus, micrococci, and yeast

97
Q

What causes the greening of meat?

A

H2O2 produced by surface bacteria

98
Q

What is carcass disposition if cirrhotic cords are found in swine liver?

A

Local lesion- excise and pass

99
Q

What is carcass disposition if multiple abscesses are found in a carcass

A

Condemn carcass (systemic lesion)

100
Q

What is carcass disposition if epithelioma/cancer eye is noted on cattle carcass?

A

If limited to eye, excise and pass; if infected or mets to bone/LN noted, condemn

101
Q

What is carcass disposition if Actinomycosis (lumpy jaw) noted on cattle carcass?

A

If localized to jaw, excise and pass

102
Q

What is carcass disposition if arthritic lesions noted?

A

If not systemic, excise and pass

103
Q

What is carcass disposition if malignant lymphoma noted?

A

Condemn (systemic)

104
Q

What are possible options when presented with Downer Cow at slaughter plant?

A

Hold for up to 24 hr for observation (may not be dragged); test for drug residues; proceed with emergency slaughter/euthanasia

105
Q

What is carcass disposition if pneumonia is noted?

A

IF localized to lung lesions, excise and slaughter; if systemic condemn

106
Q

What is carcass disposition if CNS abnormalities are noted

A

Condemn

107
Q

Where are TB reactors branded?

A

Left cheek

108
Q

Where are brucella reactors branded?

A

Left hip

109
Q

What is disposition of carcass if avian TB lesions (caseous lesions) are noted?

A

Condemn

110
Q

What is carcass disposition if avian leukosis is noted? Where would lesions be noted?

A

Lymph nodes, liver, feather follicles

Condemn

111
Q

Clinical signs “Alabama rot” in dogs?

A

cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy

112
Q

What is carcass disposition if air sacculitis is noted?

A

Condemn (systemic disease)

113
Q

The Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO) is under jurisdiction of what federal agency?

A

FDA

114
Q

The Interstate Milk Shippers List (IMSL) is under juristdiction of what federal agency?

A

FDA

115
Q

Which federal agency is responsibile for veterinary biologics?

A

USDA-APHIS-VS

116
Q

If a cow from a known brucellosis herd tests negative, what dispositions are allowed

A

Slaughter only

117
Q

If a titer drops from 1:100 to 1:50, the test becomes more (sensitive or specific?)

A

Sensitive

118
Q

The intensity of radiation decreased by a factor of ___ over a given distance

A

Decreased by inverse square of distance. Eg- increase distance by 3 times, radiation exposure is 1/9 of initial amount (1/3^2)

119
Q

Which type of federal funds are the most restrictive?

A

Block grants

120
Q

Which species is most sensitive to monensin?

A

Horses

121
Q

Which species is most sensitive to urea?

A

Cattle

122
Q

Which tick species is the main carrier of RMSF?

A

Dermacentor variabilis

123
Q

What is one potential side effect of chloramphenicol use

A

Blood dyscrazias

124
Q

What is one GI side effect of lincomycin in people?

A

pseudomembranous colitis

125
Q

What is one main toxicity of gentamicin?

A

Ototoxic

126
Q

Rank the following types of radiation from strongest to weakest penetration: Beta, alpha, gamma

A

Strongest: Gamma
Mid: Beta
Weakest: Alpha

127
Q

Define the FDA’s Standard of Identity

A

The quantity of foods conform to standard, no ingredients are used over or under the amounts proclaimed, and no ingredients are left out of label

128
Q

Best way to ensure food safety?

A

Adequate cooking

129
Q

Difference between ground beef and hamburger?

A

Ground beef has no added fat; hamburger can have up to 30% max fat.

130
Q

The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) sets maximum residual disinfectant goals for three disinfectants. What are they?

A

Chlorine, chloramine, chlorine dioxide

131
Q

The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) sets maximum contaminant goals for which disinfectant byproducts (DBPs)?

A

Total Trihalomethanes (TTH), haloacetic acids, chlorite, bromate

132
Q

Causative agent New World Screwworm

A

Cochliomyia hominivorax

133
Q

Scrub typhus cause and vector

A

Cause: Orientia tsutsugamushi (formerly Rickettsia tsutsugamushi)
Vector: Chigger (larval form of mite)

134
Q

In food animal species, antimicrobials in water require a ___; antimicrobials in feed require a ____

A

water- prescription

Feed- VFD

135
Q

When discussing medicated feed types for food animals, which type is most concentrated? (A-C)

A

Type A

136
Q

Only Type ___ Medicated feeds can be fed to food animals under a VFD

A

Type C

137
Q

Requirements for a VFD order

A 
Client name
Vet Name
Animals to receive VFD feed
Description of feed
Last date when feed can be used
138
Q

VFD order must be maintained for ___ years after writing

A

2 years ( by client, vet, and feed distributor)

139
Q

Which category of drugs in animal feed require a withdrawal period?

A

Category II

140
Q

Leishmaniasis vector

A

Sandfly

141
Q

Leishmaniasis reservoir

A

Often small rodents

142
Q

Fresh wild-caught fish should be frozen at what temperature before consuming in order to kill Anisakis spp?

A

-20 C

143
Q

What agency is responsible for publishing the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance?

A. US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
b. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. National Association of State Public Health Vets (NASPHV)
D. Local/State Regulatory Agencies

A

B. FDA

144
Q

What agency is responsible for incorporating and enforcing the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance?

A. US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
B. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. National Association of State Public Health Vets (NASPHV)
D. Local/State Regulatory Agencies

A

D. Local/state reg agencies

145
Q

According to the PMO, cattle must be ‘reasonably disease free’ of what two diseases? Who regulates these disease eradication programs?

A

TB and Brucella. Regulated by USDA.
NOTE: Goat, sheep, water buffalo, camel, or any other hooved mammals are not covered under these USDA eradication programs

146
Q 
Fill in the chart for Grade A raw milk limits:
Temp limits
Drug limits
SCC limits
Bacterial limits
A

Temp: ≤ 50F (10C) w/in 4 hours of milking start
≤45F (7C) w/in 2 hours of milking finish
Drug: no residue allowed
SCC <750,000 cell/ml
Bacteria: ≤100,000/mL prior to comingling
≤300, 000/mL after comingling

147
Q 
Fill in the chart for Grade A pasteurized milk limits:
Temp limit
Drug limit
Phosphatase limit
Coliform limit
Bacterial limit
A 
Temp: ≤45*F (7*C)
Drug:  no residues allowed
Phosphatase: ≤350mU/L 
Coliform: <10/ml
Bacterial: <20,000/ml
148
Q

Time/temp requirements for vat pasteurization of milk

A

Milk is heated to 154.4 degrees Fahrenheit (63 degrees Celsius) in a large container and held at that temperature for 30 minutes.

149
Q 
Fill in time/temp chart for continuous flow (HSHT) pasteurization of milk
72C/ 161F = 
89C/191F=
90C/194F= 
94C/201F=
96C/204F=
100C/212F=
A 
72C/ 161F = 15 sec
89C/191F= 1.0 sec
90C/194F=   0.5 sec
94C/201F=  0.1 sec
96C/204F=  0.05sec
100C/212F= 0.01 sec
150
Q

According to the PMO, If the fat content of the milk product is ten percent (10%) or greater, or a total solids of 18% or greater, or if it contains added sweeteners, the specified temperature shall be increased by ___ degrees C/F.

A

increased by 3ºC (5ºF).

151
Q

Time/temp requirements for ultra-pasteurization of milk

A

138C (280F) / 2s

152
Q

Toxic principle Japanese Yew (Taxus spp)

A

Taxine A and B, which causes tremors, acute arrythmiaas/death (cardiotoxic); present in all plant structures except arils

153
Q

Which of the following correctly matches the causative agent and vector for scrub typhus?

a. Neorickettsia ristiscii, Caddis fly
b. Orientia tsutsugamushi, trombiculid mite
c. Rickettsia typhi, Xenopsylla cheopis flea

d. Rickettsia prowazekii, Pediculus humanus lice
A

B

154
Q

Which tickborne intraerythrocytic organism is responsible for the highest proportion of blood transfusion-borne infections in the US?

a. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
b. Heartland virus
c. Francisella tularensis
d. Babesia microti
A

D

155
Q

Describe three potential routes of transmission to humans for MERS-CoV.

A
  • Direct contact with dromedary camels (seroprevalence highest in shepherds and slaughterhouse workers)
  • Nosocomial infection caring for infected person (respiratory droplets)
  • Close household contact with infected person (respiratory droplets)

Facts based on ISU course (6 decks)

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