Infectious diseases Flashcards
1
Q
Clostridium botulinum types __ and __ affect birds; type ___ affects humans
A
C and E
E
2
Q
What is the effective brucella vaccine for wild cervids
A
There is no effective vaccine
3
Q
At what age should wild cervids begin testing for CWD
A
12 months of age
4
Q
Which federal agency has jurisdiction over game meat and farmed cervids
A
FDA
5
Q
Avian cholera is caused by ____; which is often introduced to poultry by ____.
A
pasturella; rodents
6
Q
_____ is the primary test for TB in cattle; _____ is the primary test for TB in captive cervids
A
Caudal fold
Single Cervical
7
Q
Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) causes _(clinical signs)__ in mares and __(clinical signs)___ in stallions
A
Short-term infertility and vulvar discharge
No clinical signs; acts as a commensal bacteria
8
Q
Causal agent of CEM
A
Taylorella equigenitalis
9
Q
Modes of transmission for CEM
A
1) direct or indirect venereal contact
2) transplacental or contact with birth tissues
3) Fomites
10
Q
How to test for CEM in carrier mares? In stallions?
A
1) Swab clitoral sinuses/fossa (can be intermittent shedders)- some positives are serologically negative
2) Ideal is to breed to two mares then test them; less ideal swab penis/urethra (culture/cytology)- males always seronegative
11
Q
Causative agent Equine Piroplasmosis
A
Babesia (Theileria) equi
Babesia caballi
12
Q
Equine piroplasmosis transmitted by ____
A
Ticks (Dermacentor variabilis and Boophilus microplus)
Shared blood/needles
13
Q
The reservoir species for Babesia (Theileria) equi is ____; the reserveroir species for Babesia caballi is ____
A
Horses;
Horses and ticks (transovarial transmission)
14
Q
Best ways to prevent equine piroplasmosis (3)
A
- Acaricides (needs tick vector)
- Need adequate number of infected horses in an area to support disease transmission
- Don’t reuse needles/blood products
15
Q
Clinical signs equine piroplasmosis
A
Anemia, fever, jaundice, dark urine, lethargy, exercise intolerance (mild to severe)
16
Q
What is the risk for food poisoning from MRSA strains?
A
Low/none; they aren’t enterotoxin producing staph aureus strains
17
Q
What are the ten steps of an outbreak investigation
A
- Determine the existence of the outbreak
- Confirm the diagnosis
- Define a case and count cases
- Orient the data in terms of time, place, and person
- Determine who is at risk of becoming ill
- Develop a hypothesis that explains the exposure that caused disease and test this hypothesis
- Compare the hypothesis with the established facts
- Plan a more systematic study
- Prepare a written report
- Execute control and prevention measures
18
Q
CWD transmissision routes?
A
Feces, urine, saliva
19
Q
Offical tests for CWD herd surveillance?
A
(gold standard) Immunohistochemistry of obex or retropharyngeal LNs
or
Rapid ELISA of obex or retropharyngeal LNs
20
Q
Within the CFR, standards can be written as “design standards” or “performance standards”. What is the difference?
A
Design standards are very specific and require rulemaking to change, eg “ramps must be 36 inches wide and no more than 15 degree slope” (how-to is within CFR)
Performance standards are more vague in execution allowing flexibility over time, eg “ramps must be of sufficient size to allow free passage by livestock without touching any side” (how-to is in guidance documents)
21
Q
Primary mode of transmission for : Brucella abortis B. mellitensis B. suis B. canis
A
- Ingestion/tonsils/retropharyngeal LNs
- sexual
- sexual
- sexual
22
Q
Reservoir species for brucella in USA?
A
Feral swine
Elk/Bison in Greater Yellowstone area
23
Q
Human modes of infection with brucella in US?
A
Hunting feral swine, illegally imported dairy products, less often contact with aborted tissues, foreign exposures
24
Q
Birds have ___ type receptors for influenza viruses
Humans have ___ type receptors
Swine have ___ type receptors
A
Birds= 2, 3'-sialyllactose Humans = 2, 6'-sialyl N-acetyllactosamine Swine = both α-2, 3 and α-2, 6 sialic acid receptor sites (that's why they're mixing pots)
25
three conditions for a global influenza pandemic
1. A new subtype of influenza A virus is introduced into
the human population.
2. Virus causes serious disease in humans
3. The virus can spread easily from person-to-person
in a sustained manner.
26
Appropriate manners to decontaminate prion properties (such as CWD)?
Physical: Irradiation, dry heat, autoclave
Chemical: currently no EPA-approved but some may work
Infected carcass: only alkaline hydrolysis inactivates completely
27
Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM) is caused by ____
Equine HerpesVirus-1 (but not all EHV-1 causes the neuro form)
28
Primary forms of EHV in horses are __ and ___
EHV-1 and EHV-4
29
Modes of transmission for EHV in horses?
Inhalation, contact with aborted tissues
30
Vaccines against EHV protect against __ form(s) of disease but not ___ form(s)
Protect against respiratory and abortion signs but not neuro signs
31
Vaccinate livestock against anthrax using _____; vaccinate people using ______
```
Modified live (Sterne's)
Cell-free filtrate
```
32
How to diagnose anthrax?
Culture lesions, blood,
33
How to tx anthrax?
Cipro, doxycycline, penicillin
34
Common name for brucellosis?
Undulent fever
35
Common name for botulisum in birds?
Limber neck
36
Three forms of human plague
Bubonic, pneumonic, septicemic
37
Oral rabies bait exists for which wildlife species in US?
Raccoon, fox
38
Vector species for tularemia?
Ticks (Dermacentor, Amblyomma)
| Flies (Deer fly)
39
Three forms of human tularemia
Ulceroglandular, Typhoidal, Pneumonic (less likely ocular in children)
40
Prevention strategies for tularemia (4)
Insect repellent
PPE for skinning wildlife
Cook game meat thoroughly
Avoid contaminated drinking/swimming water
41
Vectors for WNV?
Mosquitoes: Culex pipiens (night feeder), Aedes aegypti (day feeder)
Ticks: Argasid (soft), amblyommine (hard)
Flies: Hippoboscid flies (flat flies)
42
Trichinella larvae in meat can be killed by __ or __ but not ___ or ___
Cooking or freezing
| Salting or curing
43
Testing for hantavirus in human cases is ____ or ____; or if deceased ____
IgM +/- IgG (most commonly) or PCR
| IHC if deceased
44
Transmission of Schmallenberg virus is via____
Culicoides midges; maternal-fetal, infected aborted tissues, also isolated in bovine semen (experimental)
45
Clinical signs Schmallenberg in cattle is ____. Sheep/goats is ______.
cattle: fever, reduced milk yield, teratogenic abortions;
sheep/goats- minimal signs in adults, arthrogryposis
and hydranencephaly syndrome (AHS) in fetus/lamb/kid
46
Prevention strategy for Schmallenberg virus
Alter breeding schedule so that pregnancy doesn't coincide with culicoides activity
47
Chagas caused by ___ with ___ vector
Trypanosoma cruzi; Triatomine bug vector (Reduviidae)
48
Host species for Chagas
Opossums, skunks, raccoons, coyotes rodents
| Disease in humans and dogs
49
Route of transmission for Chagas
- Wound contamination by bug feces
- Ingestion of infected vector (eg dogs eat bugs) or infected wild mammal
- Ingestion of contaminated food or drink (eg fruit juices with bug feces in it)
- Congenital (mother to offspring)
- Blood-borne (most NA blood banks screen for T.cruzi)
- Trans-mammary
- Organ transplant
50
Diagnosis of Chagas in canines
IFA is gold standard (Ab detection); histopath of heart or ID of parasite on blood smear.
Some PCR available
51
Lone star tick = (species)
Amblyomma americanum
52
Deer tick = (common name, species)
Black legged tick aka Ixodes scapularis
53
Brown dog tick = (common name, species)
Wood tick; Dermacentor variabilis
54
Four zoonoses associated with black legged tick/deer tick/Ixodes scapularis
Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi), Powassan disease virus, Anaplasmosis (Anaplasma phagocytophilum), Babesiosis (Babesia microti)
55
Most Lyme transmission comes from ___ tick stage
Nymph stage. No transovarial transmission, so larvae stage not infected; adults are more likely to be spotted and removed.
56
Three lone star tick (Amblyomma americanum) zoonoses:
Ehrlichiosis, STARI (Southern tick associated rash illness- ethiology unknown), Heartland virus
57
Main reservoir species for Ehrlichiosis all stages
White tail deer (less often dogs, coyotes, goats, raccoons)
58
Cytologic ID of Ehrlichia by ___
Morulae in neutrophils on blood smear
59
In human cases of WNV, __% have no symptoms; ___% have west nile fever, and __% have West Nile neuroinvasive disease (WNND)
80% asymptomatic
20% fever
< 1% meningitis, encephalitis
60
WNV fatality rate in horses?
30-40% (neuro signs, ataxia, circling, etc)
61
Symptoms of EEE and case fatality rate in horses?
over 90% fatal; early fever, anorexia progress to neuro signs
62
The incidence of WNV tends to affect the _____ ages while EEE tends to affect the ____ ages
WNV- elderly;
| EEE- very young and very old
63
After issuing a Veterinary Feed Directive, the vet must keep record of forms for ___ (time)___
2 years
64
Dengue virus immunity is ____
lifelong to specific subtype infected with only
65
Vector for dengue and Chikungunya virus
Aedes aegypti and albopictus
66
Common name for anthrax?
Wool sorter's disease
67
Robert Koch used ____ bacteria to prove Koch's postulates
Bacillus anthracis
68
Historically, Leptospira serovars ___ and ___ were most important in canine species, but now serovars ____ are emerging
Historical: L. canicola and L. icterohemorrhagiae
Emerging: L. pomona, L. grippotyphosa, L. autumnalis, L. bratislava
69
Lepto transmisssion routes
Contact with infected water, soil, urine, feces through abraded skin or mucous membranes,
direct ingestion, transplacental, bite wounds, venereal
70
Generally each lepto serovar has maintainence host species that (does/does not) cause illness in that species
Usually asymptomatic however can become ill
71
Reservoir species for L. icterohemorrhagiae
rat
72
Reservoir species for L. canicola
Dog
73
Reservoir species for L. pomona
Cow, swine, skunk, possum
74
Reservoir species for L. grippotyphosa
Vole, raccoon, skunk, opossum
75
Reservoir species for L. bratislava
Rat, pig, horse
76
Reservoir species for L. autumnalis
Swine, mouse
77
Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea Virus (PEDV) routes of transmission
fecal-oral
78
PED causes highest mortality in what age group of pigs?
Babies under 4 wk of age (up to 100% mortality); in older animals, vomiting and diarrhea lose some condition and drop in reproduction
79
Potential routes of transmission MERS?
Camel contact (respiratory, meat, milk), nosocomial, close aerosol contact
80
MERS shedding in camels is highest in what time/age
Young <2yr animals and during spring breeding season
81
Most susceptible species to vesicular stomatitis virus?
Horses, cattle, swine; less often sheep, coats, camelids,
82
Clinical signs VS
Oral vesicles (drooling, not eating); lameness/coronary band lesions, mastitis in dairy cows
83
Rule-outs for vesicular lesions in cattle
VS, FMD, bluetongue, Mucosal BVD, Epizootic Hemorrhagic disease, chemical injury, trauma
84
VS routes of transmission
Biting flies, direct contact with ruptured vesicles, contact with recently infected fomites
85
Clinical signs of VS in people; route of transmission
Malaise, high fever, results from direct contact with lesions or snorting/sneezing on person during PE
86
Swine brucellosis mechanisms of transmission?
Ingestion of infected birth/abortion tissues, semen, urine of swine, milk of B.suis infected cattle
87
Clinical signs of Brucella suis in swine? In horses?
Swine: Abortion, epididymitis/orchitis, weak piglets, swollen joints, infertility
Horses: Fistulous withers
88
Brucella suis cross reacts with what pathogen on serology
Yersinia enterocolitica
89
Definitive diagnosis Brucella suis?
Culture tissues @ necropsy: Repro organs, lymph nodes, spleen, liver
90
The Market Swine Test (MST) tests _____ for Brucella suis
culled breeding animals at slaughter
91
Reservoir for swine brucellosis in the US?
Feral swine
92
Swine Brucellosis is zoonotic. What categories of people are most at risk
Slaughter workers; feral swine hunters, swine producers, veterinarians
93
Routes of transmission for tularemia
Direct contact with infected animals, aerosols, inoculation into wounds, contaminated food/water, tick/fly-borne, lab exposure
94
Acute tularemia patients (animal/human) serology is negative until ____ time
2-4 weeks post-infection
95
Colorado Tick Fever is causative agent?
Colorado tick fever virus (reoviridae)
96
Vector for colorado tick fever?
Dermacentor andersonii (Rocky Mountain wood tick)
97
Brucella vaccination in cattle can prevent
Abortion but may not always prevent infection (large exposure may overwhelm vaccine immunity)
98
What strain of brucella is considered most virulent
Brucella mellitensis
99
Brucella RB51 vaccine (does/does not) produce antibodies that cross-react with wild-type infection on screening tests
Does not (no antibodies produced)
100
Vaccinating calves against brucella must be done when they are ___ age
between 4 and 12 months of age
101
Two common names for brucellosis in cattle? In people?
Bang's disease or contagious abortion in cattle
| Undulant fever or Malta fever in people
102
Reindeer are most likely to get which species of brucella?
B. suis
103
Which two brucella species cross-react on tests due to their rough colony formation
B. canis and B. ovis
104
Clinical signs of chronic chagas
Cardiac arrythmias, congestive failure, DCM
105
Two common names for coccidiomycosis
Cocci or valley fever
106
Geographic distribution for coccidiomycosis?
California and SW US
107
Geographic distribution for blastomycosis?
East of Mississippi
108
Routes of transmission coccidioidomycosis
Primarily inhalation, less often contact with birthing fluids, contact with disseminated disease, organ transplants
109
Clinical signs acute coccidiodomycosis?
Pulmonary granuloma, fever, rash (erythema), lethargy, malaise,
110
Populations at increased risk for coccidiodomycosis?
Within geographic area of California and SW USA, immunocompromised individuals (HIV patients, transplant recipients, pregnant women, people on steroids, lymphoma patients), with some genetic predilection for severe disease in African American and Asian persons
111
Reservoir species Cryptosporidium hominis? C. parvum?
Hominis: human only
Parvum: humans and mammals (including ruminants)
112
Mechanisms to disinfect water supply from Crypto?
Heat (pasteurization), filtration; less successful: UV or ozone
113
Geographic distribution of Coxiella?
Global, except not in New Zealand
114
most common mosquito vector for viral encephalites (WEE/VEE/EEE/SLE)
Culex spp
115
Which of the following cause disease in horses?
a. WEE
b. VEE
c. EEE
d. WNV
e. SLE
f. LAC
a-d only
116
What is the amplifying host species for LaCrosse Encephalitis Virus
Chipmunks and small mammals (humans dead end host)
117
EEE amplifying host species?
Songbirds (humans, horses dead end hosts)
118
WEE amplfiying host species?
House sparrow/passerines, prairie dog, squirrel, jackrabbit, kangaroo rat (humans, horses dead end hosts)
119
SLE amplifying host species?
Migratory birds (humans dead end host)
120
VEE amplifying host species?
Horses, rodents (humans dead end host)
121
Which viral encephalitis agents makes best bioterror weapon?
VEE (can be aerosolized, human/equine cases occur simultaneously, lg number cases possible )
122
Tick-borne encephalitis virus is transmitted by what genus of ticks?
Ixodes spp
123
Mode of transmission Tick-borne encephalitis virus?
Bite from infected tick; raw milk consumption from infected cow/sheep/goat
124
Powassan virus vector?
Ticks (dermacentor and ixodes in US)
125
Powassan virus amplifying host species?
Small-medium rodents: woodchuck, squirrel, mice
126
Most common neuroinvasive arbovirus overall in US? Most common in children?
WNV overall, LaCrosse in children
127
What species are affected by Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease? Which is most severely affected?
Rare: sheep/goats, Mod: cattle; cervids Most severe in white-tail deer
128
Most common clinical signs of EHD in cattle? In deer?
In cattle, milder with salivation/oral lesions, rarely coronary band erosions
In deer, three syndromes:
1) Peracute (resp distress, swell head/neck, death)
2) Acute/classic( extensive hemorrhage, salivation, bloody nasal discharge, erosions of mouth)
3) Chronic ( lameness, hoof lesions, rumen ulcers)
129
Vector species for EHD (Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease)?
Culicoides spp (biting midges)
130
Ddx for Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease (EHD) in deer?
Bluetongue, FMD, plant photosensitization
131
Ddx for Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease (EHD) in cattle?
FMD, bluetongue, VS, BVD, Malignant catarrhal fever, bovine ephemeral fever
132
Route of transmission EIA (equine infectious anemia)
Blood transfusions/contaminated products, biting flies
133
Primary symptom Equine VIral Arteritis (EVA)
Abortion, rash, pneumonia (rarely or in foals)
134
Primary route of transmission Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)?
Respiratory, venereal (vaccine preventable)
135
Most common serotype of FMD worldwide?
Serotype O
136
Which species has highest respiratory (aerosol) secretion of FMD?
Swine
137
Potential reservoir species for Heartland virus? Vector?
Reservoir: raccoon and white tail deer
Vector: Lone-star tick (amblyomma americanium)
138
Reservoir species Hendra virus?
Flying fox (fruit bat); horses can also become viremic enough to transmit to close human or horse contacts
139
Histoplasmosis associated with inhalation of contaminated soils high in nitrogen (enriched by feces of what species?)
Bats and birds.
140
Geographic predisposition for following fungal diseases:
Blastomycosis:
Coccidoiodmycosis:
Histoplasmosis:
Blasto: Eastern 1/3 of North America
Coccidoido: SW USA (desert areas)
Histo: Ohio and Mississippi river valleys
141
Define saprozoonosis
Reservoir in soil (not animal)
142
Most common state for lepto dx in the US?
Hawaii (50% cases)
143
Reservoir species LCMV (Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus)?
House mouse; less likely hamsters, pet rodents
144
Clinical signs LCMV (Lynphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus) in people
Can cause birth defects, also aseptic meningitis, encephalitis
145
Route of transmission LCMV?
Contact with contaminated urine/feces/nestmaterials of rodents via broken skin, mucous membranes; also rodent bites, less likely solid organ transplant or maternal-fetal
146
What is the reservoir species for Malignant Catarrhal Fever?
Wildebeest and sheep-types can both infect cattle (herpesvirus)
147
Route of transmission MCF in cattle?
Vertical (maternal-fetal), or from inhalation/contact with infected sheep, wildebeests esp birthing products or nasal/ocular secretions
148
Routes of transmission plague?
Bite of infected flea; skinning/handling dead infected rodents, aerosol from infected animal/person (esp cats)
149
3 forms plague
1) bubonic/LN form
2) septicemic
3) pneumonic/pneumonia
150
Intermediate host Diphyllobothrium
| latum
fish
151
Intermediate host Echinococcus
| multilocularis
Rodent
152
Intermediate host Echinococcus
| granulosus
Ungulate
153
Intermediate host Taenia soleum
Pig
154
Which species can be latent carriers for Aujeszky's disease
swine only
155
Susceptible species pseudorabies
All mammals except humans, apes, rare in horses
156
Mechanism of transmission Aujeszky's disease
1) Aerosol,
2) nose to nose contact,
3) contact with milk, urine, vaginal, preputial discharge,
4) fomites
5) carcasses
6) vertical (transplacental-piglets)
157
Where is latent virus found in swine with Aujeszky's disease?
Trigeminal ganglia (herpesvirus)
158
Clinical signs Aujeszky disease swine?
Piglets- neuro, death
| Older- respiratory, fever, abortions
159
Clinical signs Aujeszky disease cattle?
almost always fatal- focal intense pruritus, then progressive neuro signs
160
Diseases transmitted by Dermacentor variabalis (American dog tick)
Tularemia, RMSF
161
Rhipicephalus sanguineus, common name ____ transmits what disease?
Brown dog tick; RMSF
162
Clinical signs RVF in ruminants
Abortion storms after heavy rainfall; youngstock deaths
163
Clinical signs RVF in humans
Self-limiting flu-like majority, 1-2% viral hemorrhagic fever
164
Transmission RVF?
Mosquitoes, ticks, biting flies. also contact with infected dead animals (ie necropsy)
165
When submitting screwworm larve for ID, how should they be submitted?
In alcohol
166
Rabies vaccines used in state/local control programs should have at least __ year duration
3 year
167
Definition anthropozoonosis and example?
Diseases in animals that can be
| transmitted to man (i.e., rabies).
168
Definition Zooanthroponoses and example?
Diseases in humans that can be
transmitted to animals (i.e., tuberculosis in cats,
monkeys).
169
Definition Amphixenoses and example?
Diseases affecting humans and
animals that can be occasionally transmitted
from one to another (i.e., staphyloccocal
infection).
170
Definition Euzoonoses and example?
Diseases in which humans are an obligatory host of the agent (i.e., Taenia solium or T. saginata)
171
Definition orthozoonoses and example?
Disease transmission cycle can be completed with
| only one vertebrate reservoir (i.e. rabies).
172
Definition cyclozoonoses and example?
Diseases whose maintenance cycle requires more than one vertebrate species, but no invertebrate host (i.e., hydatid disease, taeniasis).
173
Definition metazoonoses/pherozoonoses and example?
Diseases whose maintenance cycle requires both vertebrates and invertebrates to complete their transmission cycle (i.e. arboviruses).
174
Definition saprozoonoses and example?
Diseases that depend upon inanimate reservoirs or development sites, as well as upon vertebrate hosts (eg Listeria)
175
Definition phanerozoonoses?
Zoonoses for which symptoms are observed in animals and humans
176
Definition cryptozoonoses and examples?
Zoonoses for which there is only infection without symptoms in animals and/or humans.
- infection in animals/disease in humans: ornithosis
- Infection in humans/disease in animals: Ebola/Reston
177
Trichinella causes what two phases of infection in people?
Intestinal/enteral and muscular/parenteral
178
Source of most human trichinella cases in US?
Feral swine, other wildlife (bear, marine mammals), rarely commercial swine
179
Which subtype of tularemia is more lethal in humans?
Type A
180
Bovine TB slaughter surveillance looks specifically for what?
Granuloma lesions, especially in lungs, or LNs of head, chest, abdomen
181
Pearl's disease in bovids caused by
M. tuberculosis (granulomas on pleural walls
182
Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever route of transmission
Tick-borne
183
Primary mosquito for transmission of Zika?
Aedes spp
184
Mayaro virus produces a clinical syndrome most similar to what other arbovirus?
Chikungunya
185
Usutu virus produces a clinical syndrome most similar to what other arbovirus?
WNV
