Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Facts based on ISU course > Infectious diseases > Flashcards

Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Clostridium botulinum types __ and __ affect birds; type ___ affects humans

A

C and E

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the effective brucella vaccine for wild cervids

A

There is no effective vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

At what age should wild cervids begin testing for CWD

A

12 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which federal agency has jurisdiction over game meat and farmed cervids

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Avian cholera is caused by ____; which is often introduced to poultry by ____.

A

pasturella; rodents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

_____ is the primary test for TB in cattle; _____ is the primary test for TB in captive cervids

A

Caudal fold

Single Cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) causes _(clinical signs)__ in mares and __(clinical signs)___ in stallions

A

Short-term infertility and vulvar discharge

No clinical signs; acts as a commensal bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causal agent of CEM

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Modes of transmission for CEM

A

1) direct or indirect venereal contact
2) transplacental or contact with birth tissues
3) Fomites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How to test for CEM in carrier mares? In stallions?

A

1) Swab clitoral sinuses/fossa (can be intermittent shedders)- some positives are serologically negative
2) Ideal is to breed to two mares then test them; less ideal swab penis/urethra (culture/cytology)- males always seronegative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Causative agent Equine Piroplasmosis

A

Babesia (Theileria) equi

Babesia caballi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Equine piroplasmosis transmitted by ____

A

Ticks (Dermacentor variabilis and Boophilus microplus)

Shared blood/needles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The reservoir species for Babesia (Theileria) equi is ____; the reserveroir species for Babesia caballi is ____

A

Horses;

Horses and ticks (transovarial transmission)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Best ways to prevent equine piroplasmosis (3)

A
  • Acaricides (needs tick vector)
  • Need adequate number of infected horses in an area to support disease transmission
  • Don’t reuse needles/blood products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clinical signs equine piroplasmosis

A

Anemia, fever, jaundice, dark urine, lethargy, exercise intolerance (mild to severe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the risk for food poisoning from MRSA strains?

A

Low/none; they aren’t enterotoxin producing staph aureus strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the ten steps of an outbreak investigation

A
  1. Determine the existence of the outbreak
  2. Confirm the diagnosis
  3. Define a case and count cases
  4. Orient the data in terms of time, place, and person
  5. Determine who is at risk of becoming ill
  6. Develop a hypothesis that explains the exposure that caused disease and test this hypothesis
  7. Compare the hypothesis with the established facts
  8. Plan a more systematic study
  9. Prepare a written report
  10. Execute control and prevention measures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CWD transmissision routes?

A

Feces, urine, saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Offical tests for CWD herd surveillance?

A

(gold standard) Immunohistochemistry of obex or retropharyngeal LNs
or
Rapid ELISA of obex or retropharyngeal LNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Within the CFR, standards can be written as “design standards” or “performance standards”. What is the difference?

A

Design standards are very specific and require rulemaking to change, eg “ramps must be 36 inches wide and no more than 15 degree slope” (how-to is within CFR)

Performance standards are more vague in execution allowing flexibility over time, eg “ramps must be of sufficient size to allow free passage by livestock without touching any side” (how-to is in guidance documents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
Primary mode of transmission for :
Brucella abortis
B. mellitensis
B. suis
B. canis
A
  1. Ingestion/tonsils/retropharyngeal LNs
  2. sexual
  3. sexual
  4. sexual
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Reservoir species for brucella in USA?

A

Feral swine

Elk/Bison in Greater Yellowstone area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Human modes of infection with brucella in US?

A

Hunting feral swine, illegally imported dairy products, less often contact with aborted tissues, foreign exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Birds have ___ type receptors for influenza viruses
Humans have ___ type receptors
Swine have ___ type receptors

A 
Birds= 2, 3'-sialyllactose
Humans = 2, 6'-sialyl N-acetyllactosamine
Swine = both α-2, 3 and α-2, 6 sialic acid receptor sites (that's why they're mixing pots)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

three conditions for a global influenza pandemic

A
  1. A new subtype of influenza A virus is introduced into
    the human population.
  2. Virus causes serious disease in humans
  3. The virus can spread easily from person-to-person
    in a sustained manner.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Appropriate manners to decontaminate prion properties (such as CWD)?

A

Physical: Irradiation, dry heat, autoclave
Chemical: currently no EPA-approved but some may work
Infected carcass: only alkaline hydrolysis inactivates completely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Equine Herpesvirus Myeloencephalopathy (EHM) is caused by ____

A

Equine HerpesVirus-1 (but not all EHV-1 causes the neuro form)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Primary forms of EHV in horses are __ and ___

A

EHV-1 and EHV-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Modes of transmission for EHV in horses?

A

Inhalation, contact with aborted tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Vaccines against EHV protect against __ form(s) of disease but not ___ form(s)

A

Protect against respiratory and abortion signs but not neuro signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Vaccinate livestock against anthrax using _____; vaccinate people using ______

A 
Modified live (Sterne's)
Cell-free filtrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How to diagnose anthrax?

A

Culture lesions, blood,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How to tx anthrax?

A

Cipro, doxycycline, penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Common name for brucellosis?

A

Undulent fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Common name for botulisum in birds?

A

Limber neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Three forms of human plague

A

Bubonic, pneumonic, septicemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Oral rabies bait exists for which wildlife species in US?

A

Raccoon, fox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Vector species for tularemia?

A

Ticks (Dermacentor, Amblyomma)

Flies (Deer fly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Three forms of human tularemia

A

Ulceroglandular, Typhoidal, Pneumonic (less likely ocular in children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Prevention strategies for tularemia (4)

A

Insect repellent
PPE for skinning wildlife
Cook game meat thoroughly
Avoid contaminated drinking/swimming water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Vectors for WNV?

A

Mosquitoes: Culex pipiens (night feeder), Aedes aegypti (day feeder)
Ticks: Argasid (soft), amblyommine (hard)
Flies: Hippoboscid flies (flat flies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Trichinella larvae in meat can be killed by __ or __ but not ___ or ___

A

Cooking or freezing

Salting or curing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Testing for hantavirus in human cases is ____ or ____; or if deceased ____

A

IgM +/- IgG (most commonly) or PCR

IHC if deceased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Transmission of Schmallenberg virus is via____

A

Culicoides midges; maternal-fetal, infected aborted tissues, also isolated in bovine semen (experimental)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Clinical signs Schmallenberg in cattle is ____. Sheep/goats is ______.

A

cattle: fever, reduced milk yield, teratogenic abortions;
sheep/goats- minimal signs in adults, arthrogryposis
and hydranencephaly syndrome (AHS) in fetus/lamb/kid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Prevention strategy for Schmallenberg virus

A

Alter breeding schedule so that pregnancy doesn’t coincide with culicoides activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Chagas caused by ___ with ___ vector

A

Trypanosoma cruzi; Triatomine bug vector (Reduviidae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Host species for Chagas

A

Opossums, skunks, raccoons, coyotes rodents

Disease in humans and dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Route of transmission for Chagas

A
  • Wound contamination by bug feces
  • Ingestion of infected vector (eg dogs eat bugs) or infected wild mammal
  • Ingestion of contaminated food or drink (eg fruit juices with bug feces in it)
  • Congenital (mother to offspring)
  • Blood-borne (most NA blood banks screen for T.cruzi)
  • Trans-mammary
  • Organ transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Diagnosis of Chagas in canines

A

IFA is gold standard (Ab detection); histopath of heart or ID of parasite on blood smear.

Some PCR available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Lone star tick = (species)

A

Amblyomma americanum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Deer tick = (common name, species)

A

Black legged tick aka Ixodes scapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Brown dog tick = (common name, species)

A

Wood tick; Dermacentor variabilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Four zoonoses associated with black legged tick/deer tick/Ixodes scapularis

A

Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi), Powassan disease virus, Anaplasmosis (Anaplasma phagocytophilum), Babesiosis (Babesia microti)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Most Lyme transmission comes from ___ tick stage

A

Nymph stage. No transovarial transmission, so larvae stage not infected; adults are more likely to be spotted and removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Three lone star tick (Amblyomma americanum) zoonoses:

A

Ehrlichiosis, STARI (Southern tick associated rash illness- ethiology unknown), Heartland virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Main reservoir species for Ehrlichiosis all stages

A

White tail deer (less often dogs, coyotes, goats, raccoons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cytologic ID of Ehrlichia by ___

A

Morulae in neutrophils on blood smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In human cases of WNV, __% have no symptoms; ___% have west nile fever, and __% have West Nile neuroinvasive disease (WNND)

A

80% asymptomatic
20% fever
< 1% meningitis, encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

WNV fatality rate in horses?

A

30-40% (neuro signs, ataxia, circling, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Symptoms of EEE and case fatality rate in horses?

A

over 90% fatal; early fever, anorexia progress to neuro signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The incidence of WNV tends to affect the _____ ages while EEE tends to affect the ____ ages

A

WNV- elderly;

EEE- very young and very old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

After issuing a Veterinary Feed Directive, the vet must keep record of forms for ___ (time)___

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Dengue virus immunity is ____

A

lifelong to specific subtype infected with only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Vector for dengue and Chikungunya virus

A

Aedes aegypti and albopictus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Common name for anthrax?

A

Wool sorter’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Robert Koch used ____ bacteria to prove Koch’s postulates

A

Bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Historically, Leptospira serovars ___ and ___ were most important in canine species, but now serovars ____ are emerging

A

Historical: L. canicola and L. icterohemorrhagiae
Emerging: L. pomona, L. grippotyphosa, L. autumnalis, L. bratislava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Lepto transmisssion routes

A

Contact with infected water, soil, urine, feces through abraded skin or mucous membranes,
direct ingestion, transplacental, bite wounds, venereal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Generally each lepto serovar has maintainence host species that (does/does not) cause illness in that species

A

Usually asymptomatic however can become ill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Reservoir species for L. icterohemorrhagiae

A

rat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Reservoir species for L. canicola

A

Dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Reservoir species for L. pomona

A

Cow, swine, skunk, possum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Reservoir species for L. grippotyphosa

A

Vole, raccoon, skunk, opossum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Reservoir species for L. bratislava

A

Rat, pig, horse

76
Q

Reservoir species for L. autumnalis

A

Swine, mouse

77
Q

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea Virus (PEDV) routes of transmission

A

fecal-oral

78
Q

PED causes highest mortality in what age group of pigs?

A

Babies under 4 wk of age (up to 100% mortality); in older animals, vomiting and diarrhea lose some condition and drop in reproduction

79
Q

Potential routes of transmission MERS?

A

Camel contact (respiratory, meat, milk), nosocomial, close aerosol contact

80
Q

MERS shedding in camels is highest in what time/age

A

Young <2yr animals and during spring breeding season

81
Q

Most susceptible species to vesicular stomatitis virus?

A

Horses, cattle, swine; less often sheep, coats, camelids,

82
Q

Clinical signs VS

A

Oral vesicles (drooling, not eating); lameness/coronary band lesions, mastitis in dairy cows

83
Q

Rule-outs for vesicular lesions in cattle

A

VS, FMD, bluetongue, Mucosal BVD, Epizootic Hemorrhagic disease, chemical injury, trauma

84
Q

VS routes of transmission

A

Biting flies, direct contact with ruptured vesicles, contact with recently infected fomites

85
Q

Clinical signs of VS in people; route of transmission

A

Malaise, high fever, results from direct contact with lesions or snorting/sneezing on person during PE

86
Q

Swine brucellosis mechanisms of transmission?

A

Ingestion of infected birth/abortion tissues, semen, urine of swine, milk of B.suis infected cattle

87
Q

Clinical signs of Brucella suis in swine? In horses?

A

Swine: Abortion, epididymitis/orchitis, weak piglets, swollen joints, infertility
Horses: Fistulous withers

88
Q

Brucella suis cross reacts with what pathogen on serology

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

89
Q

Definitive diagnosis Brucella suis?

A

Culture tissues @ necropsy: Repro organs, lymph nodes, spleen, liver

90
Q

The Market Swine Test (MST) tests _____ for Brucella suis

A

culled breeding animals at slaughter

91
Q

Reservoir for swine brucellosis in the US?

A

Feral swine

92
Q

Swine Brucellosis is zoonotic. What categories of people are most at risk

A

Slaughter workers; feral swine hunters, swine producers, veterinarians

93
Q

Routes of transmission for tularemia

A

Direct contact with infected animals, aerosols, inoculation into wounds, contaminated food/water, tick/fly-borne, lab exposure

94
Q

Acute tularemia patients (animal/human) serology is negative until ____ time

A

2-4 weeks post-infection

95
Q

Colorado Tick Fever is causative agent?

A

Colorado tick fever virus (reoviridae)

96
Q

Vector for colorado tick fever?

A

Dermacentor andersonii (Rocky Mountain wood tick)

97
Q

Brucella vaccination in cattle can prevent

A

Abortion but may not always prevent infection (large exposure may overwhelm vaccine immunity)

98
Q

What strain of brucella is considered most virulent

A

Brucella mellitensis

99
Q

Brucella RB51 vaccine (does/does not) produce antibodies that cross-react with wild-type infection on screening tests

A

Does not (no antibodies produced)

100
Q

Vaccinating calves against brucella must be done when they are ___ age

A

between 4 and 12 months of age

101
Q

Two common names for brucellosis in cattle? In people?

A

Bang’s disease or contagious abortion in cattle

Undulant fever or Malta fever in people

102
Q

Reindeer are most likely to get which species of brucella?

A

B. suis

103
Q

Which two brucella species cross-react on tests due to their rough colony formation

A

B. canis and B. ovis

104
Q

Clinical signs of chronic chagas

A

Cardiac arrythmias, congestive failure, DCM

105
Q

Two common names for coccidiomycosis

A

Cocci or valley fever

106
Q

Geographic distribution for coccidiomycosis?

A

California and SW US

107
Q

Geographic distribution for blastomycosis?

A

East of Mississippi

108
Q

Routes of transmission coccidioidomycosis

A

Primarily inhalation, less often contact with birthing fluids, contact with disseminated disease, organ transplants

109
Q

Clinical signs acute coccidiodomycosis?

A

Pulmonary granuloma, fever, rash (erythema), lethargy, malaise,

110
Q

Populations at increased risk for coccidiodomycosis?

A

Within geographic area of California and SW USA, immunocompromised individuals (HIV patients, transplant recipients, pregnant women, people on steroids, lymphoma patients), with some genetic predilection for severe disease in African American and Asian persons

111
Q

Reservoir species Cryptosporidium hominis? C. parvum?

A

Hominis: human only
Parvum: humans and mammals (including ruminants)

112
Q

Mechanisms to disinfect water supply from Crypto?

A

Heat (pasteurization), filtration; less successful: UV or ozone

113
Q

Geographic distribution of Coxiella?

A

Global, except not in New Zealand

114
Q

most common mosquito vector for viral encephalites (WEE/VEE/EEE/SLE)

A

Culex spp

115
Q

Which of the following cause disease in horses?

a. WEE
b. VEE
c. EEE
d. WNV
e. SLE
f. LAC

A

a-d only

116
Q

What is the amplifying host species for LaCrosse Encephalitis Virus

A

Chipmunks and small mammals (humans dead end host)

117
Q

EEE amplifying host species?

A

Songbirds (humans, horses dead end hosts)

118
Q

WEE amplfiying host species?

A

House sparrow/passerines, prairie dog, squirrel, jackrabbit, kangaroo rat (humans, horses dead end hosts)

119
Q

SLE amplifying host species?

A

Migratory birds (humans dead end host)

120
Q

VEE amplifying host species?

A

Horses, rodents (humans dead end host)

121
Q

Which viral encephalitis agents makes best bioterror weapon?

A

VEE (can be aerosolized, human/equine cases occur simultaneously, lg number cases possible )

122
Q

Tick-borne encephalitis virus is transmitted by what genus of ticks?

A

Ixodes spp

123
Q

Mode of transmission Tick-borne encephalitis virus?

A

Bite from infected tick; raw milk consumption from infected cow/sheep/goat

124
Q

Powassan virus vector?

A

Ticks (dermacentor and ixodes in US)

125
Q

Powassan virus amplifying host species?

A

Small-medium rodents: woodchuck, squirrel, mice

126
Q

Most common neuroinvasive arbovirus overall in US? Most common in children?

A

WNV overall, LaCrosse in children

127
Q

What species are affected by Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease? Which is most severely affected?

A

Rare: sheep/goats, Mod: cattle; cervids Most severe in white-tail deer

128
Q

Most common clinical signs of EHD in cattle? In deer?

A

In cattle, milder with salivation/oral lesions, rarely coronary band erosions
In deer, three syndromes:
1) Peracute (resp distress, swell head/neck, death)
2) Acute/classic( extensive hemorrhage, salivation, bloody nasal discharge, erosions of mouth)
3) Chronic ( lameness, hoof lesions, rumen ulcers)

129
Q

Vector species for EHD (Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease)?

A

Culicoides spp (biting midges)

130
Q

Ddx for Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease (EHD) in deer?

A

Bluetongue, FMD, plant photosensitization

131
Q

Ddx for Epizootic Hemorrhagic Disease (EHD) in cattle?

A

FMD, bluetongue, VS, BVD, Malignant catarrhal fever, bovine ephemeral fever

132
Q

Route of transmission EIA (equine infectious anemia)

A

Blood transfusions/contaminated products, biting flies

133
Q

Primary symptom Equine VIral Arteritis (EVA)

A

Abortion, rash, pneumonia (rarely or in foals)

134
Q

Primary route of transmission Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)?

A

Respiratory, venereal (vaccine preventable)

135
Q

Most common serotype of FMD worldwide?

A

Serotype O

136
Q

Which species has highest respiratory (aerosol) secretion of FMD?

A

Swine

137
Q

Potential reservoir species for Heartland virus? Vector?

A

Reservoir: raccoon and white tail deer
Vector: Lone-star tick (amblyomma americanium)

138
Q

Reservoir species Hendra virus?

A

Flying fox (fruit bat); horses can also become viremic enough to transmit to close human or horse contacts

139
Q

Histoplasmosis associated with inhalation of contaminated soils high in nitrogen (enriched by feces of what species?)

A

Bats and birds.

140
Q

Geographic predisposition for following fungal diseases:
Blastomycosis:
Coccidoiodmycosis:
Histoplasmosis:

A

Blasto: Eastern 1/3 of North America
Coccidoido: SW USA (desert areas)
Histo: Ohio and Mississippi river valleys

141
Q

Define saprozoonosis

A

Reservoir in soil (not animal)

142
Q

Most common state for lepto dx in the US?

A

Hawaii (50% cases)

143
Q

Reservoir species LCMV (Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus)?

A

House mouse; less likely hamsters, pet rodents

144
Q

Clinical signs LCMV (Lynphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus) in people

A

Can cause birth defects, also aseptic meningitis, encephalitis

145
Q

Route of transmission LCMV?

A

Contact with contaminated urine/feces/nestmaterials of rodents via broken skin, mucous membranes; also rodent bites, less likely solid organ transplant or maternal-fetal

146
Q

What is the reservoir species for Malignant Catarrhal Fever?

A

Wildebeest and sheep-types can both infect cattle (herpesvirus)

147
Q

Route of transmission MCF in cattle?

A

Vertical (maternal-fetal), or from inhalation/contact with infected sheep, wildebeests esp birthing products or nasal/ocular secretions

148
Q

Routes of transmission plague?

A

Bite of infected flea; skinning/handling dead infected rodents, aerosol from infected animal/person (esp cats)

149
Q

3 forms plague

A

1) bubonic/LN form
2) septicemic
3) pneumonic/pneumonia

150
Q

Intermediate host Diphyllobothrium

latum

A

fish

151
Q

Intermediate host Echinococcus

multilocularis

A

Rodent

152
Q

Intermediate host Echinococcus

granulosus

A

Ungulate

153
Q

Intermediate host Taenia soleum

A

Pig

154
Q

Which species can be latent carriers for Aujeszky’s disease

A

swine only

155
Q

Susceptible species pseudorabies

A

All mammals except humans, apes, rare in horses

156
Q

Mechanism of transmission Aujeszky’s disease

A

1) Aerosol,
2) nose to nose contact,
3) contact with milk, urine, vaginal, preputial discharge,
4) fomites
5) carcasses
6) vertical (transplacental-piglets)

157
Q

Where is latent virus found in swine with Aujeszky’s disease?

A

Trigeminal ganglia (herpesvirus)

158
Q

Clinical signs Aujeszky disease swine?

A

Piglets- neuro, death

Older- respiratory, fever, abortions

159
Q

Clinical signs Aujeszky disease cattle?

A

almost always fatal- focal intense pruritus, then progressive neuro signs

160
Q

Diseases transmitted by Dermacentor variabalis (American dog tick)

A

Tularemia, RMSF

161
Q

Rhipicephalus sanguineus, common name ____ transmits what disease?

A

Brown dog tick; RMSF

162
Q

Clinical signs RVF in ruminants

A

Abortion storms after heavy rainfall; youngstock deaths

163
Q

Clinical signs RVF in humans

A

Self-limiting flu-like majority, 1-2% viral hemorrhagic fever

164
Q

Transmission RVF?

A

Mosquitoes, ticks, biting flies. also contact with infected dead animals (ie necropsy)

165
Q

When submitting screwworm larve for ID, how should they be submitted?

A

In alcohol

166
Q

Rabies vaccines used in state/local control programs should have at least __ year duration

A

3 year

167
Q

Definition anthropozoonosis and example?

A

Diseases in animals that can be

transmitted to man (i.e., rabies).

168
Q

Definition Zooanthroponoses and example?

A

Diseases in humans that can be
transmitted to animals (i.e., tuberculosis in cats,
monkeys).

169
Q

Definition Amphixenoses and example?

A

Diseases affecting humans and
animals that can be occasionally transmitted
from one to another (i.e., staphyloccocal
infection).

170
Q

Definition Euzoonoses and example?

A

Diseases in which humans are an obligatory host of the agent (i.e., Taenia solium or T. saginata)

171
Q

Definition orthozoonoses and example?

A

Disease transmission cycle can be completed with

only one vertebrate reservoir (i.e. rabies).

172
Q

Definition cyclozoonoses and example?

A

Diseases whose maintenance cycle requires more than one vertebrate species, but no invertebrate host (i.e., hydatid disease, taeniasis).

173
Q

Definition metazoonoses/pherozoonoses and example?

A

Diseases whose maintenance cycle requires both vertebrates and invertebrates to complete their transmission cycle (i.e. arboviruses).

174
Q

Definition saprozoonoses and example?

A

Diseases that depend upon inanimate reservoirs or development sites, as well as upon vertebrate hosts (eg Listeria)

175
Q

Definition phanerozoonoses?

A

Zoonoses for which symptoms are observed in animals and humans

176
Q

Definition cryptozoonoses and examples?

A

Zoonoses for which there is only infection without symptoms in animals and/or humans.

  • infection in animals/disease in humans: ornithosis
  • Infection in humans/disease in animals: Ebola/Reston
177
Q

Trichinella causes what two phases of infection in people?

A

Intestinal/enteral and muscular/parenteral

178
Q

Source of most human trichinella cases in US?

A

Feral swine, other wildlife (bear, marine mammals), rarely commercial swine

179
Q

Which subtype of tularemia is more lethal in humans?

A

Type A

180
Q

Bovine TB slaughter surveillance looks specifically for what?

A

Granuloma lesions, especially in lungs, or LNs of head, chest, abdomen

181
Q

Pearl’s disease in bovids caused by

A

M. tuberculosis (granulomas on pleural walls

182
Q

Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever route of transmission

A

Tick-borne

183
Q

Primary mosquito for transmission of Zika?

A

Aedes spp

184
Q

Mayaro virus produces a clinical syndrome most similar to what other arbovirus?

A

Chikungunya

185
Q

Usutu virus produces a clinical syndrome most similar to what other arbovirus?

A

WNV

Facts based on ISU course (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions