Occupational Health Flashcards

1
Q

an effective OHP should have an effective psot-exposure management plan that includes what information?

A

-policies and procedures that address confidentailty of exposed and source persons and how to manage the exposure
-education and training of workers to address misconceptions and fears
-resources for rapid access to clinical care
-PEP
-recommendations for source testing for the source person and HCP

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2
Q

core antibody (anti-HBc) means what>

A

natural infection. Surface antibodies will be the only antibody found in vaccinated individuals.

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3
Q

when is someone with HBV excluded from work?

A

-when they perform exposure prone procedures
-exclude until HBV e antigen is negative

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4
Q

what are work restrictions for herpetic whitlow?

A

restrict from patient contact and patients environment

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5
Q
A
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6
Q

when should HBIG be administered (timeframe)

A

within 24 hours

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6
Q

what are the 3 players in the notification process?

A
  1. exposed public safety or emergency response employee
  2. the DICO
  3. the representative from the medical facility to which the source patient was transported
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6
Q

describe the process for BBP exposures

A

-call DICO
-DICO determines whether exposure occured
-if it did, DICO will contact the medical facility to which the patient was transported to request source patient testing

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6
Q

What does the DICO do?

A

act as a liason between the medical facility and exposed emergency response personnel
-they establish whether an actual exposure occured

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7
Q

when is the HCV antibody test recommended?

A

4-6 months after exposure
-followup testing is not currently recommended for HCP exposed to blood from a source patient that tests positive for HCV antibodies but negative for HCV RNA.

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8
Q

when is testing after HIV exposure done?

A

initial, 12 weeks, 6 months

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9
Q

when is measles transmitted?

A

3-4 days before the rash appears.

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10
Q

true or false. HCP have a 13x greater risk of measles acquisition/

A

true

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11
Q

what is the mumps incubatin?

A

16-18 days. healthcare transmission is uncommon

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12
Q

when is varicella contagious?

A

2 days before symptoms onset

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13
Q

for HCP who don’t have blood test immunity to MMR, what is the vaccine schedule?

A

measles or mumps: 2 doses
rubella: one dose

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14
Q

lab workers exposed to meningococcus should get what vaccines?

A

meningococcal conjugate vaccine and serogroup B meningococcal vaccine

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15
Q

true or false. Physical exams have not been shown to be cost-effective for reducing injuries and illness or preventing infections?

A

True

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16
Q

what are the 3 TB risk screening classification?

A
  1. low risk
  2. medium risk
  3. potential ongoing transmission
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17
Q

What is the screening protocol for individuals who have documented history of having tested positive for TB?

A

-baseline individual risk assessment and TB symptom screen upon hire
-a repeat TB test is not required

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18
Q

is annual TB testing recommended?

A

No unless there is an exposure

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19
Q

what are some goals of an effective HCP immunization program?

A

-high rates of immunization: 100% goal. Religious and medical exemptions/proof of immunity

-device and implement specific vaccine policies: determine which diseases to include and have immunizations addressing them

-education about vaccines: benefits and risks of a vaccine. Continue updates as new info emerges. communicate rates and outbreaks caused by VPD routinely.

-justify the cost: prevention vs. controlling outbreaks

20
Q

how can you enforce mandatory vaccines?

A

-send notices
-follow up with those who have declined for medical reasons to evaluate whether contraindications still apply
-require as a condition of employment
-remove from schedule
-relate compliance with performance appraisals or credentialing
-enforcing disciplinary action for HCO who fail to get vaccinated

21
Q

how can you address common vaccine uptake barriers?

A

-schedule convenient times for immunizations
-subsize costs
-educational programs

22
Q

what are some reasons why an immunization program may fail?

A

-institutional and organizational issues: requirements, monitoring compliance, financial support
-medical issues: concern over adverse events/misconceptions.
-HCP specific issues: working in the medical setting may worsen misconceptions.

23
Q

what should assessment of HCP screening and immunization programs focus on?

A

improving processes

24
Q

what is evidence of rubella immunity?

A

-written documentation of vaccine with one dose administered on or after the first birthday
-lab evidence of immunity
-lab confirmation of disease
-birth before 1957

25
Q

measles immunoglobulin must be given when?

A

within 6 days of exposure; vaccine within 72 hours

26
Q

what is the chickenpox incubation?

A

8-21 days

27
Q

define substitution

A

replace existing practices with temporary, alternative, or new practices (replacing reusable equipment with single use)

28
Q

HBV vaccine HBsAG antibody titers must be what to be immune?

A

> 10IU/L

29
Q

what are some TST contraindications?

A

-history of severe bleeding or anaphylaxis following a test
-active TB
-history of treatment for LTBI or active disease
-extensive burns or exczema at testing site
-major viral infection
-live virus vaccine in the last 4 weeks

30
Q

what is a not low risk of TB?

A

> 200 beds and >6 TB cases annually
<200 beds and >3 cases annually

31
Q

what is a low risk of TB?

A

> 200 beds and <6 cases
,200 beds and <3 cases

32
Q

meningococcal prophylazis must be given when?

A

within 24 hours
-cipro 500mg PO
-rifampin 600mg PO q12 hours x4 doses
-ceftriazon 250mg IM dose (only option for pregnant people)

33
Q

antibodies protect a bay for how long?

A

3-6 months

34
Q

do HCP have increased CMV acquisition?

A

No

35
Q

true or false. Pertussis is a toxin producer

A

True

36
Q

what is the pertussis incubatin?

A

7-10 days

37
Q

when is pertussis communicable?

A

during the catahhral and paroxysm stage

38
Q

varizella immunoglobulin must be given when?

A

within 96 hours

39
Q

how long does each pertussis stage last?

A

catarhal: 1-2 weeks (fever, sneezing, cough becomes paxoysm)
paroxysm: 1-6 weeks. Whooping, vomiting, apnea, attacks at night
convalescent: months. cough disappears

40
Q

what is your risk after percutaneous injury for HIV and HEP C

A

HIV: 0.3%
HEP C: 1.8%

41
Q

define work practice controls

A

reduce possibliy of exposure by changing the way a task is performed

42
Q

define engineering controls

A

protect HCP by removing the hazard or placing a barrier between the hazard and worker. reduce exposure to the hazard at the source, without depending on HCP behavior (signage, point of care ABHR)

43
Q

define barrier precautions

A

methods employed to prevent spread from one to another

44
Q

true or false.Pregnancy does not increase risk of acquiring infections and clinical manifestations are usually no more severe in pregnant women.

A

true

45
Q

an OHP should educate HCP on what?

A

Biohazards to which they may be occupationally exposed
Types of exposures that place their health at risk
The nature and significance of such risks
Appropriate first aid and follow-up for potential exposures

46
Q

what are the 2 most important routes of exposure?

A

bloodborne and airborne

47
Q

what is the timeframe for treating HIV exposures?

A

2 hours

48
Q

what are some prevention options for HCP with allergies?

A

-alternative HH products for those with allergies or adverse reactions
-special masks or gloves for persons with allergies or dermatitis
-reassignment

49
Q

define elimination of risk

A

remove risk of infection and transmission (i.e., by not moving sick patients)

50
Q

Define administrative controls

A

policies and procedures for assuring safe work practices (i.e., immunization programs and sharps safety)