Obstetrics - Investigations Flashcards

1
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum ix

A

• To exclude other aetiologies
o FBCs
o Serum LFTs
o Exclude – abdominal pain, urinary symptoms, infection, drugs, chronic H. Pylori

  • Body weight
  • Basic metabolic panel – hyponatraemia, hypochloraemia
  • Serum U+Es – elevated

• Urinalysis
o Ketonuria
o Elevated specific gravity

• Urine/serum ketones – positive

• Serum TSH + free T4
o Low TSH (due to raised βHCG)
o If TSH is low, order serum-free T4 to exclude hyperthyroidism
o T4 - increased in hyperthyroidism, normal in hyperemesis

• Fetal USS with nuchal translucency
o Increased risk of hyperemesis – Trisomy 21, trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), fetal triploidy, multiple gestation, gestational trophoblastic disease, hydrops fetalis

• Serum analytes
o Presence of Trisomy 21, trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), fetal triploidy increases the risk of hyperemesis
o Abnormally high or low βhCG + pregnancy have a predictive value for screening in conjunction with nuchal translucency

  • H. pylori breath test – in one study, 61.8% of women with hyperemesis were positive for H. Pylori compared to 27.6% without hyperemesis
  • PUQE-24 –A scoring system to quantify severity of NVP
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2
Q

Pre-eclampsia ix

A

• Urinalysis
o If dipstick screening is positive (1+ or more), use albumin:creatinine ratio (8mg/mmol as diagnostic threshold) or protein:creatinine ratio (30mg/mmol as diagnostic threshold) to quantify proteinuria in pregnant women
o Do not use first morning urine void to quantify proteinuria in pregnant women
o Do not use 24hr urine collection
o MC+S if proteinuria is present

• Frequent monitoring of FBC, LFTs, renal function, electrolytes, serum urate
o HELLP syndrome – abnormal LFTs (ALT or AST >70 IU/L), platelet count falling <100x10^9/L

• Clotting studies if there is severe pre-eclampsia or thrombocytopenia

• BP measurement
 24-32 weeks – every 3 weeks
 32 weeks-delivery – every 2 weeks
 Always ask about a) headache and b) epigastric pain each time BP is taken, to be alert for any indication of progression towards eclampsia

• Assessment of fetus – US assessment of fetal growth + the volume of amniotic fluid, Doppler velocimetry of umbilical arteries
o Uterine artery dopplers – predictors of pre-eclampsia development
 Bilateral notching
 Increased pulsatility index

• PIGF (placental growth factor)-based testing
o To help rule our pre-eclampsia between 20 and up to 35 weeks of pregnancy
o If women with chronic hypertension are suspected of developing pre-eclampsia

Diagnosing pre-eclampsia in women with pre-existing hypertension
• Difficult to diagnose in women with pre-existing hypertension, esp. if there is pre-existing renal disease with proteinuria
• Under these circumstances, pre-eclampsia can present
o In the second half of pregnancy
o Surge in BP or proteinuria
o Other features e.g. thrombocytopenia, increased LFTS, reduced fetal growth

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3
Q

Management of mild-moderate gestational hypertension

What is considered mild/moderate gestational hypertension?
How often should BP be monitored?
What investigations need to be carried out?
How should it be managed?

A
Mild = 140-149/90-99
Moderate = 150-159/100-109

BP monitoring
1-2/7 until BP is 135/85mmHg or less

Other investigations
• At presentation then weekly – FBC, LFTs, U+Es
• 1-2/7 dipstick proteinuria testing
• PIGF-based testing on 1 occasion if there is suspicion or pre-eclampsia
• Offer fetal heart auscultation at every antenatal appointment
• USS assessment of fetus at dx, If normal repeat every 2-4/52
o USS for fetal growth
o Amniotic fluid volume assessment
o Umbilical artery doppler
o Dipstick, BP measurement
• CTG only if clinically indicated

Management
Do not routinely admit to hospital
Offer pharmacological tx if BP remains >140/90mmHg
Labetalol (alternatives: methyldopa, nifedipine)
Aim for BP of 135/85mmHg or less

Labetalol – 1st line
Nifedipine – 2nd line
Methyldopa – 3rd line

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4
Q

Management of severe gestational hypertension

What is considered severe gestational hypertension?
How often should BP be monitored?
What investigations need to be carried out?
How should it be managed?

A

Severe = >160/110 or mean arterial pressure <160/110

BP monitoring
Every 15-30 mins until BP is <160/110mmHg

Other investigations
• At presentation then weekly – FBC, LFTs, U+Es (renal function, electrolytes)
• Daily dipstick proteinuria testing while admitted
• PIGF-based testing on 1 occasion if there is suspicion or pre-eclampsia
• Offer fetal heart auscultation at every antenatal appointment
• USS assessment of fetus at dx, If normal repeat every 2/52 if severe htn persists
o USS for fetal growth
o Amniotic fluid volume assessment
o Umbilical artery doppler
• CTG at dx and then only if clinically indicated

Management
Admit, but if BP falls below 160/110 mmHg manage as for HTN
Offer pharmacological tx to all women
Labetalol (alternatives: methyldopa, nifedipine)
Aim for BP of 135/85 mmHg or less

Labetalol – 1st line
Nifedipine – 2nd line
Methyldopa – 3rd line

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5
Q

Amniotic fluid embolus investigations

A
•	CXR 	
o	Pulmonary oedema
o	ARDS
o	Right atrial enlargement
o	Prominent pulmonary artery 

• ECG
o Right heart strain
o Arrhythmia

• Echo
o High filling pressures are indicative of a failing ventricle

  • ABG – determine the degree of hypoxaemia
  • Clotting screen – very abnormal, even before any observable haemorrhage

• Post-mortem
o Fetal squamous cells + hair (lanugo) in the maternal pulmonary circulation

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6
Q

Diabetes in pregnancy

Investigations in the first antenatal clinic appointment – 10 weeks

A

Retinal assessment
Renal assessment
Measurement of HbA1c levels to determine the level of risk for the pregnancy
Self-monitoring of blood glucose or OGTT asap for women with previous gestational diabetes
Confirm the viability of the pregnancy + gestational age t 7-9 weeks

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7
Q

Diabetes in pregnancy

Investigations in 2nd + 3rd trimester

A

HbA1c to assess level of risk for the pregnancy

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8
Q

Diabetes in pregnancy

Investigations during the 16-20 weeks

A

Retinal assessment if diabetic retinopathy is present

20 weeks
Anomaly scans incl. examination of the fetal heart

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9
Q

Pre-existing Diabetes + gestational diabetes (GDM) in pregnancy

Investigations on the 28, 32, 36 weeks

A

serial growth scans
28 Foetal surveillance, retinal assessment
• OGTT if risk factors present now and no Hx of previous gestational diabetes

32 Foetal surveillance
36 Foetal surveillance

Foetal surveillance = fetal growth + amniotic fluid volume

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10
Q

Diabetes in pregnancy

Investigations on the 38th week

A

Offer tests for fetal wellbeing
Offer these tests before 38 weeks - Routine monitoring of foetal wellbeing if there is risk of foetal growth restriction

Fetal umbilical artery doppler recording
Fetal heart rate recording
Biophysical profile testing

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11
Q

Diabetes in pregnancy

Investigations 6-13 weeks post partum

A

Fasting plasma glucose to exclude diabetes

<6.0mmol/L  low probability of diabetes, need an annual test, moderate risk of developing T2DM

6.0-6.9mmol/L  high risk of T2DM

> 7.0mmol/L  50% chance of having/developing T2DM  offer diagnostic test to confirm

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12
Q

What does the combined screening test test for?

When should it be done?

What are the 3 components?

A

Combined test
Tests for T13 (Patau’s syndrome), T18 (Edward’s syndrome), T21 (Down’s syndrome)
Positive combined test can be due to T13, T18, T21

  • The combined test is testing for 2 serological markers (hCG + PAPP-A) + 1 radiological marker (nuchal translucency)
  • Should be done bn 11-13+6 weeks

The differentiating test tends to be PAPP-A – it is even lower than that which would be expected in Down’s syndrome

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13
Q

What findings would you expect to find in a positive combined test?

What do the results indicate?

A

Raised bHCG
Low PAPP-A
Thickened nuchal translucency

Positive combined test can be due to T13, T18, T21

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14
Q

Which part of the combined test can differentiate between T13 (Patau syndrome), T18 (Edward’s syndrome) and T21 (Down’s syndrome)?

A

PAPP-A is very low in trisomy 18 and 13, compared to trisomy 21

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15
Q

What is the triple test in pre-natal screening?

What is the quadruple test in pre-natal screening?

When does this testing take place?

A

Tripe test = alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, hCG
Quadruple test = alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, hCG, inhibin-A
• If women book later in pregnancy, either the triple or quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks

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16
Q

What is alfa fetoprotein?

What is inhibin A?

A
Alfa-fetoprotein 
•	Part of the triple + quadruple test
•	Produced by fetal yolk sac + liver
•	Does not test for T13
•	Low in Down’s syndrome + T18
•	Not part of the combined test 
Inhibin A 
•	Part of the quadruple test
•	produced by the placenta
•	Variable in trisomy 13 
•	Unchanged in trisomy 18
•	High in Down’s syndrome
•	Not part of the combined test
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17
Q

What is Terbutaline and where is it used?

A

Terbutaline – tocolytic from the betamimetic class of drugs – acts to prevent + slow uterine contractions in preterm labour

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18
Q

Gestational diabetes melitus GDM ix

A

• Offer women who have had GDM in previous pregnancy
o Early self-monitoring of blood glucose
o 2h OGTT asap after booking + 2h OGTT at 24-28 weeks if first OGTT is normal

Offer women with a RF for GDM* an OGTT at 24-28w
(because this is where GDM usually appears)

• Screening should be offered at booking to women with the following RF*
o BMI > 30kg/m2
o Previous macrosomic baby >4.5kg
o Previous GDM
o First-degree relative with diabetes
o Family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, black Caribbean, Middle Eastern)

• WHO recommends that HbA1c can be used as a diagnostic test for diabetes
o However it is currently not recommended for diagnosis during pregnancy
o Can be used to assess level of risk to the pregnancy (NICE)

NICE
• Fasting plasma glucose, random blood glucose, HbA1c, glucose challenge test, urinalysis for glucose should not be used to assess risk of developing GDM
• Glycosuria 2+ on one occasion or 1+ on two or more occasions - ?undiagnosed GDM – consider further testing to exclude GDM

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19
Q

Ectopic pregnancy investigations

A
  • Pregnancy test
  • TVUSS – 1st line

Definite - Adnexal mass that moves separate to the ovary, comprising a gestational sac containing a yolk sac or
An adnexal mass, moving separately to the ovary, comprising a gestational sac and fetal pole (+/- fetal heartbeat)

High probability - An adnexal mass moving separately to the ovary, with an empty gestational sac (sometimes described as a “tubal ring” or “bagel sign”, “blob sign”) or
A complex, inhomogeneous adnexal mass, moving separate to the ovary

Possible - Empty uterus or
A collection of fluid within the uterine cavity (sometimes described as a pseudo-sac)

  • Abdominal USS for women with an enlarged uterus or other pelvic pathology (e.g. fibroids, ovarian cyst)
  • MRI – 2nd line

• Pregnancy of unknown location/PUL + woman is stable - hCG levels (taken 48h apart)
However, clinical symptoms > hCG levels

 if serum Hcg levels decrease >50% after 48h – inform woman that her pregnancy is unlikely to continue but this is not confirmed - expectant management + pregnancy test 14 days after the second serum hcg – if positive, return to the early pregnancy assessment service for clinical review within 24h

 if there is a change in hCG concentration between 50% decline and 63% rise over 48 hours, then the woman should be referred for clinical review in an early pregnancy assessment service within 24h

 if there is an increase in serum hCG levels >63% after 48 hours – likely to be developing an intrauterine pregnancy. Scan to determine the location of the pregnancy between 7 and 14 days later
[• Normal pregnancy – hCG doubles every 48 hours
• Miscarriage – hCG decreases
• Ectopic – hCG hovers around a single value]

• Do not perform an internal examination if you suspect an ectopic
o Risk of rupture during palpation

Referral to hospital for urgent assessment via the early pregnancy assessment service or on-call gynaecologist out of hours
•	Pain + abdominal tenderness
•	Pelvic tenderness
•	Cervical motion tenderness
•	Vaginal bleeding
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20
Q

TVUSS findings for

o Cervical ectopic pregnancies
o Interstitial pregnancy
o Cornual pregnancy
o Heterotopic pregnancy

A

o Cervical ectopic pregnancies
 Empty uterus
 Barrel shaped cervix
 Gestational sac present below the level of the internal cervical os
 Absence of the sliding sign (negative sliding sign)
 Blood flow around the gestational sac using colour Doppler

o Interstitial pregnancy
 Empty uterine cavity
 Products of conception/gestational sac located laterally in the interstitial (intramural) part of the tube + surrounded by less than 5mm of myometrium in all imaging planes
 Presence of the interstitial line sign
 Sonographic findings in 2D can be further confirmed using 3D USS to avoid misdiagnosis with early intrauterine or angular (implantation in the lateral angles of the uterine cavity) pregnancy

o Cornual pregnancy
 Visualisation of a single interstitial portion of fallopian tube in the main uterine body
 Gestational sac/products of conception seen mobile and separate from the uterus and completely surrounded by myometrium
 Vascular pedicle adjoining the gestational sac to the unicornuate uterus

o Heterotopic pregnancy
 USS findings demonstrate an intrauterine pregnancy and a coexisting ectopic pregnancy

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21
Q

Investigations of placenta praevia

A
  • Vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks of gestation - High clinical suspicion
  • Never do a bimanual

• USS
o 20 weeks scan should include placental localisation
 Praevia = covering the os, low lying = <20mm from internal os
o 32 weeks - Follow up USS examination incl. TVUSS - to diagnose persistent low-lying placenta and/or placenta praevia
 Cannot exclude a placental abruption which is a clinical dx
 If still low-lying/praevia at 32 weeks (grade I/II) - rescan at 36 weeks
 If still present + grade III/IV – admit at 34 weeks – CS at 37 weeks (alistair)

 Grade I (vaginal delivery) (alistair)
 Still low lying or Grade III/IV (CS at 37 weeks – before allowing for spontaneous labour to occur) (alistair) (specialties guide)

o Cervical length measurement to facilitate management decisions in asymptomatic women with placenta praevia
 Short cervical length on TVS before 34 weeks of gestation - increased risk of pre-term emergency delivery + massive haemorrhage at C-section

• Other ix – depend on the context
o FBC, group and cross-match, clotting studies, U+Es, LFTs, fetal monitoring, Kleihauer test, CTG

• Scans – CTG if >27 weeks, umbilical artery doppler every 2 weeks, growth scans

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22
Q

Vasa praevia ix

A

• USS at the time of the routine fetal anomaly scan
o High diagnostic accuracy

• Transvaginal colour doppler US + transabdominal colour Doppler US
o Best diagnostic accuracy

• It is essential to confirm the presence of vasa praevia by US in the third trimester
o To avoid unnecessary anxiety/admissions/prematurity/C-section

  • Kleinhauer test
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis – identify if foetal or maternal blood (takes a long time)
  • Doppler USS
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23
Q

Placental abruption ix

A
  • Clinical dx, no sensitive/reliable diagnostic tests available
  • Tense (hypertonic), tender, “woody” feel uterus
  • Vaginal exam – cervical dilation (do not do a vaginal exam in praevia, if unsure, do not do bimanual!)
  • USS – not reliable as blood clot is not easily distinguishable from the placenta, do it to exclude Placental praevia
  • CTG – HR abnormalities due to fetal hypoxia due to abruption

• Plt count – low
o Low platelet counts may indicate a consumptive process seen in relation to significant abruption
o This may be associated with coagulopathy

• BP – may be normal, even with massive haemorrhage, as fit healthy women can tolerate significant loss prior to showing signs of decompensation

• Serial USS for fetal growth after episode of APH until term
o Increased risk of adverse perinatal outcomes incl. small for gestational age fetus, FGR (fetal growth restriction)

  • Kleihauer test
  • Bloods – FBC, clotting studies, G+S, U+E X-match
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24
Q

Which investigations are important after an episode of APH?

A

• Weekly Serial USS for fetal growth after episode of APH until term
o Increased risk of adverse perinatal outcomes incl. small for gestational age fetus, FGR (fetal growth restriction)

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25
Q

Monitoring plasma levels of AEDs during pregnancy

A

o Routine monitoring of AED levels in pregnancy is not recommended
o AED conc. In plasma can change during pregnancy
o Doses of phenytoin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine  should be adjusted on the basis of plasma-drug conc. Monitoring
o If seizures increase or are likely to increase, monitoring for AED levels may be useful when making dose adjustments (particularly levels of lamotrigine + phenytoin which may be particularly affected in pregnancy)

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26
Q

Monitoring of pregnant women on AEDs

A

o 18-20+6 weeks  neural tube defects, major cardiac defects, structural anomalies
o 11-13 weeks  scanning may allow major malformations to be detected sooner
o Serial growth scans every 4 weeks from 28-36 weeks gestation for detection of SGA + to plan further management
o Topiramate or levetiracetam  monitor fetal growth

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27
Q

UTI ix

A

• Urinalysis – performed at every antenatal visit
• Urine MC+S – MSU sent at booking visit (ideally <10w) as screening test
o Presence of bacteria
o Protein – renal disease, pre-eclampsia
o Persistent glycosuria – T1DM, T2DM, GDM
o Nitrites (UTIs)

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28
Q

Which pregnant women will need TFTs ?

A
At booking
•	Current thyroid disease
•	Previous thyroid disease
•	1st degree FHx thyroid disease
•	AI conditions (Coeliac, T1/T2DM, GDM)

Women with HG
Hyperthyroidism during pregnancy can present as hyperemesis gravidarum or as a thyroid storm – always check the TFTs
Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with abnormal TFTs which improve once it settles
HG:
o Decreased TSH (due to increased βHCG)
o If TSH is low, order serum-free T4 to exclude hyperthyroidism
o T4 - high in hyperthyroidism, normal in hyperemesis

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29
Q

Thyroid disease in pregnancy ix

A
  • TSH should be measured every 4-6 weeks in pregnant patients
  • Hyperemesis gravidarum is associated with abnormal TFTs which improve once it settles (low TSH, normal T4)

• Postpartum
o Serum TSH should be checked 6 after weeks delivery
o Once stable, TSH should be measured at least annually

• PPT (post-partum thyroiditis)
o Positive for TPO antibodies
o Normal ESR

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30
Q

Hyperthyroidism in pregnancy - monitoring

A

o TFTs every 2 weeks until the patent is stable on medication
o Then weekly after 32-24 weeks of gestation in those with poorly controlled hyperthyroidism
o Serial fetal US – IUGR, hydrops fetalis, advanced bone age, goitre, tachycardia, HF
o Check TRAb at the end of the second trimester

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31
Q

`Cardiac disorders in pregnancy ix

A

• Echo – usually performed at booking + at 28 weeks

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32
Q

Puerperal cardiomyopathy + myositis/ Peripartum cardiomyopathy ix

A

o ECG – LVH
o CXR – cardiomegaly
o Echo – recent left ventricular dysfunction
o MRI – safe + non-invasive, can help with dx + prognosis
o Endometrial biopsy – in cases of diagnostic difficulty

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33
Q

Obstetric cholestasis ix

A
•	Diagnosed when
o	Unexplained pruritus in pregnancy and
o	Abnormal LFTs (ALT, AST) and/or 
o	Raised bile acids
o	All of these occur in pregnancy and both resolve after delivery 

• Total serum bile acid
o Most sensitive + specific marker
o Fasting blood samples – can become elevated in the postprandial state
o Cut off value of 10 micromol/L
o If >40 micromol/L – risk for fetal complications increases

• Other LFTs
o Mildly elevate
o Do not exceed 2x the upper limit of normal value in pregnancy
o ALP can be elevated physiologically - In pregnancy, ALP might be raised due to placental ALP (doesn’t always mean obstruction)

• Bilirubin
o Can present in 25% of cases
o Rarely exceeds 6mg/dl

• Coagulation screen
o High prothrombin time
 Can present because of vitamin K deficiency (decreased fat soluble vitamins)
 PPH is rare

  • Fasting serum cholesterol – high
  • Hepatitis C serology – increased risk of OC in hep C

• CTG – check baby
o RCOG – US + CTG are not reliable methods for preventing fetal death in obstetric cholestasis

34
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy ix

A
•	LFTs
o	 conjugated bilirubin 
o	 AST
o	Profoundly  ALP
	In pregnancy, ALP might be raised due to placental ALP (doesn’t always mean obstruction) but in AFLP it is profoundly raised 
•	FBC
o	 WBC – persistent lymphocytosis 
o	There may also be neutrophilia and thrombocytopenia 
•	Hypoglycaemia 
•	Elevated uric acid 
•	Clotting
o	Abnormal clotting with coagulopathy
o	Prolongation of prothrombin + partial thromboplastin times
o	Depression of fibrinogen levels 
•	Biopsy
o	Diagnostic but coagulation levels often preclude it 
•	USS
o	Fatty liver – hypoechogenic 
•	CT/MRI
o	May show reduced attenuation in the liver
35
Q

HELLP syndrome ix

A

• Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
o Blood film – Haemolysis with schistocytes
o  LDH >600 IU/L
o  bilirubin
• Liver injury
o  AST,  ALT > 70 IU/L
o Plasma glutathione S-transferase-a1 (α-GST or GST-a1) – very sensitive marker for early liver damage but not widely available
• Low platelets
o <100 x10^9 /L
o Due to activation and increased consumption
• Levels associated with increased maternal morbidity + mortality
o AST or ALT >150 IU/L
o LDH >1400 U/L
o Uric acid >7/8 mg/100ml (>460 μmol/L)
• Any woman who has had HELLP syndrome should be screened for APL syndrome

36
Q

Anaemia in pregnancy ix

A

• Offer screening for anaemia at booking and at 28 weeks of gestation
• FBC
o Hb >110g/L – adequate in the first trimester
o Hb >105 g/L – adequate in the second and third trimesters
o If the results of the FBC show a low Hb and low MCV check their ferritin level
 Check the ferritin level in all people with an MCV less than 95 femtolitres
 Normal MCV (76-96fl) + low Hb  typical of pregnancy
 Low MCV (<76 fl)  probable cause is iron deficiency
 Low MCV (<76 fl) + other signs of anaemia +  RBC  possible B2-thalassaemia – estimate HbA2 + use Hb electrophoresis
• 2-3 week trial of oral iron + subsequent improvement in Hb level  confirms diagnosis of iron deficiency
• Serum ferritin
o The biochemical test which most reliably correlates with relative total body iron stores
o Not required as a routine test – should be checked in women with haemoglobinopathy or where the cause is in doubt
o Considered to be a reliable indicator of iron deficiency in the first trimester – in the absence of infection or inflammation
o Low levels indicate low iron stores except in women who are in the 2nd or 3rd trimester of pregnancy
 2nd + 3rd trimester – serum ferritin levels fall independently of iron stores
o Serum ferritin concentration <15 μg/L – iron depletion all stages of pregnancy
o Serum ferritin concentration <30μg/L – indicates early iron depletion which will continue to fall unless treated, treatment should be considered (NICE)
o Serum ferritin concentration <30μg/L – indicates iron deficiency (BSH)
o Non-anaemic women where serum ferritin may be necessary
 High risk of bleeding during pregnancy or at birth
 Women for whom providing compatible blood is challenging
 Women declining blood products e.g. Jehova’s Witnesses
• Blood film
o Microcytic hypochromic RBC
o Pencil cells
• For milder cases of iron deficiency, the MCV may not fall below the normal range
• Check vitamin B12 + folate levels if the pregnant lady is anaemic + vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is suspected
o E.g. if the pregnant woman has not taken any folate supplementation in pregnancy

37
Q

o Ix to detect B2-thalassaemia major

A

o Ix to detect B2-thalassaemia major
 CVS – first ¼ of pregnancy
 Fetal cord blood sampling under US guidance – second ¼ of pregnancy

38
Q

Iron
TIBC/transferrin
Ferritin

in pregnancy
in iron deficiency anaemia
in anaemia of chronic disease

A

pregnancy
Iron - high
TIBC/transferrin - high
Ferritin - normal

iron deficiency anaemia
Iron - low
TIBC/transferrin - high
Ferritin - low

anaemia of chronic disease
Iron - low
TIBC/transferrin - low
Ferritin - high

39
Q

DVT, PE ix

A

o LMWH Should be commenced in clinically suspected DVT or PE until the dx is excluded by objective testing, unless treatment is strongly contraindicated

o DVT – duplex USS

o PE
o PE
 General – ABG (hypoxia or hypercapnia), ECG (sinus tachycardia or S1Q3T3)
 Imaging – CXR, duplex USS (if both negative do V/Q or CTPA)
– CTPA > V/Q scan
 Bloods – before anticoagulation – FBC, UE, LFT, clotting

https://els-jbs-prod-cdn.jbs.elsevierhealth.com/cms/attachment/5a13d9b9-b296-476d-aaa3-8928660f9f3f/gr1_lrg.jpg

40
Q

Ix before commencing an anticoagulant therapy

A

o Blood should be taken for an FBC, coagulation screen, U+E, LFTs

41
Q

P-PROM ix

A

• Do not routinely perform a digital vaginal examination – this will increase the risk of ascending infection
• Diagnosis of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (P-PROM)
o Maternal history + Sterile Speculum examination
 Check for liquor – Seeing amniotic fluid draining from the vagina after the woman has been lying down for 30 mins
 Check for the umbilical cord
 If pooling of amniotic fluid is observed  do not perform diagnostic test, offer care consistent with woman having P-PROM
 If pooling of amniotic fluid is not observed  Test for insulin-like growth factor binding protein 1 (IGFBP-I) or placental alpha macroglobulin-I (PAMG-I)
o Test for insulin-like growth factor binding protein 1 (IGFBP-I) or placental alpha macroglobulin-I (PAMG-I)
 Alternative to fetal fibronectin
 If on speculum examination no amniotic fluid is observed
 May aid the diagnosis
 Should not be considered in isolation
 Do not perform if labour becomes established
 Positive test  do not use the test result alone to decide what care to offer the woman, tke into account her clinical condition, her medical and pregnancy history and GA and either  offer care consistent with the woman having P-PROM or re-evaluate the woman’s diagnostic status at a later time point
 Negative test  do not offer AN prophylactic abx, explain that P-PROM is unlikely
• Vaginal swab for microbiological testing - ?GBS
• Monitoring for infection
o Clinical assessment
 Fetal tachycardia using CTG
 Mother – Pulse, BP, mild increase in maternal temperature, offensive vaginal discharge)
o Maternal blood tests – CRP, WCC
o Educate women about symptoms of clinical chorioamnionitis – lower abdominal pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, fever, malaise, reduced fetal movements
• CTG
o To establish the well-being of the fetus
o Monitor contractions - >1 contraction every 10 minutes is significant
• US – gestation + liquor volume
o Presence of oligohydramnios supports the clinical dx of PPROM
• Temperature monitoring at least 12 hourly for ascending infection
o High vaginal swab
o If infection is suspected – FBC (WCC), CRP, MSU, blood cultures
o Start appropriate abx treatment if tests + clinical signs confirm intrauterine infection

42
Q

Oligohydramnios ix

A

• Test for RF
o SLE – causes immune-mediated infarcts in the placenta + placental insufficiency
o Hypertension, Diabetes

• USS
o Confirms the diagnosis
o Suspicion – discrepancies in sequential fundal height measurements or fetal parts that are easily palpated through the maternal abdomen
o Normal-appearing fetal kidneys + fluid filled bladder – rule out renal agenesis, cystic dysplasia, ureteral obstruction
o Check fetal growth to rule out IUGR leading to oliguria
o If you suspect placental insufficiency – rule out by doppler

• Measurement of AFV using US
o Measurement of the maximum vertical pocket depth
 Pockets should be free of fetal limbs + the umbilical cord
 Artificially increased measurement = transducer not maintained perpendicular to the floor
 Artificially reduced measurement = excessive pressure on the maternal abdomen with the transducer
 <2cm = oligohydramnios
 >8 cm = polyhydramnios
o Measurement of the amniotic fluid index (AFI) = Summation of the depths of the largest vertical pocket in each quadrant
 Pregnant abdomen is divided into quadrants using the umbilicus + linea nigra
o The assessment of AFV is important in pregnancies complicated by abnormal fetal growth or IUGR

• Sterile speculum examination
o Should be performed to check for ROM
 Amniotic fluid pool in the vagina
 Ferning pattern – observed when fluid from the posterior vault is dried and examined under a microscope
 Cervical mucus/sperm/blood may cause false positive results
 Nitrazine paper/stick turns blue

  • The amniotic fluid is more alkaline (pH 6.5-7.0) than normal vaginal discharge (pH 4.5)
  • CTG to assess foetal wellbeing
43
Q

Polyhydramnios ix

A

USS
• 2 methods to quantify amniotic fluid volume
o Amniotic fluid index (AFI) or four-quadrant method
 The uterine cavity is divided into 4 quadrants or pockets
 The largest vertical pocket in each quadrant is measured in cm + the total volume is calculated by adding the four together
 >24cm = polyhydramnios
o Single deepest pocket (SDP) method
 The deepest pocket is measured vertically
 <2cm = oligohydramnios
 >8 cm = polyhydramnios
o By both methods, the measurement can then further define polyhydramnios as mild, moderate or severe
o The higher the measurement, the higher the likelihood of fetal abnormality
• Laboratory tests – to exclude associated diseases
o Blood glucose or OGTT
o Maternal infection screen
o If fetal anaemia or hydrops fetalis is suspected
 Screen for maternal antibodies against fetal RBC
 Screen for cytomegalovirus, syphilis, rubella, toxoplasmosis, parvovirus 19
 Genotyping
• Amniocentesis and fetal karyotyping may be considered
• Fetal growth, umbilical artery dopplers, exclude foetal anomalies

44
Q

Syphilis ix in mother

A

• Swab from lesion
• HIV testing
• Treponemal serology tests
o A patient with a positive treponemal test will remain positive for life – a positive result alone cannot distinguish between an active or past infection
o Use treponemal test as the initial serological test, followed by a non-treponemal test to confirm dx + provide evidence of active disease or re-infection
o Serum treponemal enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
o Serum treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TPPA)
o Serum treponema pallidum haemoagglutination (TPHA)
o Serum fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)
o Immunocapture assay
o Line immunoassay (LIA) serological test
• Non-treponemal serology test
o Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
o Venereal disease reference laboratory (VDRL)
• LP + CSF analysis indications
o Clinical evidence of neurological involvement
o Syphilis of unknown duration + HIV co-infection
o Congenital syphilis + neurological symptoms or signs
o Neurological involvement -  CSF WBC (>10cells/mm3),  CSF protein (>50mg/dl) +ve CSF VDRL, +ve CSF TPHA/TPPA/FTA-ABS
• Fetal USS
o Performed on all pregnant women with syphilis/suspected of having syphilis
o Hepatomegaly, ascites, hydrops fetalis, IUGR

45
Q

Syphilis ix in infant

A

• Infant
o Positive IgG – passive transfer of maternal antibodies
o Positive anti-treponemal EIA IgM
o Serological tests may be negative in infants infected late in pregnancy – should be repeated
o RPR/VDRL testing + IgM test
 At birth + at 3 months of age
 Then 3-monthly until negative
• Suspected congenital syphilis
o HIV test
o FBC (anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, neutrophilia)
o LFTs (if clinical findings suggest hepatomegaly – AST, ALT increased)
o Long-bone XR – osteochondritis

46
Q

Parvovirus ix

A

• History
o Gestation, EDD
o Date of onset, clinical features, and type and distribution of any rash and associated illness
o PMH of infection, IgG antibody testing, and MMR vaccination status (with dates/places)
o Known contact with any person with a potentially infectious rash or illness (with dates of contact)
• Contact with suspected B19V
o Investigate for asymptomatic parvovirus B19 infection
o IgG +ve, IgM -ve – reassurance
o IgG -ve, IgM -ve – test 1 month after contact – if still -ve – reassurance
o IgG -ve, IgM +ve – further serum collected + tested  if IgM +ve – treat

• Parvovirus B19 specific IgM
o On the first serum obtained from the day after rash onset
o Not detectable – excludes infection in the 4 weeks prior to collection of the serum – infection cannot be excluded if ix commences >4w after onset of rash illness
• Confirmation by an alternative assay
o B19V DNA
o IgG seroconversion using an antenatal booking blood
o Change in IgM reactivity
• Test for rubella infection at the same time as B19V unless there is previous documented laboratory evidence that the woman is rubella immune

47
Q

GBS ix for pregnant mother

A

• NHS does not routinely offer all pregnant women screening for GBS - swabs taken if clinically indicated
• If GBS found in a previous pregnancy – Bacteriological testing in late pregnancy (35-37w gestation of 3-5 weeks prior to the anticipated delivery date)
• Lower vaginal + anorectum swab – a single swab (vagina then anorectum) or 2 different swabs can be used
o After collection swabs should be placed in a non-nutrient transport medium (amies or stuart)
o Specimens should be transported and processes asap
o If processing is delayed, specimens should be refrigerated
o However, standard tests using swabs and urine samples are not very efficient at picking up GBS
• Enriched culture medium (ECM) test – more accurate
• MSU

48
Q

GBS ix for infant

A
  • Blood test or LP – if it is thought that the newborn baby has an infection, to determine whether GBS is the cause
  • When starting treatment in babies who may have ear-onset neonatal infection perform a blood culture, CRP
  • LP if there is strong suspicion of early onset neonatal infection or if there are clinical sx suggesting meningitis
49
Q

When should you not take a fetal blood sample?

A
  • During or immediately after a prolonged deceleration
  • If there is an acute event (e.g. cord prolapse, suspected placental abruption, suspected uterine rupture)
  • If the whole clinical picture indicates that the birth should be expedited
  • If CI are present, incl. risk of maternal-to-fetal transmission of infection or risk of fetal bleeding disorders
  • Be aware that for women with sepsis or significant meconium, fetal blood sample results may be falsely reassuring + always discuss with a consultant obstetrician whether fetal blood sampling is appropriate + any results from the procedure if carried out
50
Q

Fetal blood sampling indications

A

• If the CTG is still pathological after implementing conservative measures:
– obtain a further review by an obstetrician and a senior midwife
– offer digital fetal scalp stimulation + document outcome
– If digital fetal scalp stimulation leads to an acceleration in the FHR baby is healthy
• If CTG is still pathological after fetal scalp stimulation
– consider fetal blood sampling
– consider expediting the birth
– take the woman’s preferences into account

51
Q

Asthma in pregnancy ix

A

• Peak flow, pulse oximetry, ABF, FBC (?infection), CRP, U+Es, blood/sputum cultures
• Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO)
o >40 ppb
• Spirometry
o Obstructive picture
o FEV1/FVC <70%
• Bronchodilator reversibility test (BDR)
o Offered in adults with obstructive spirometry
o Improvement in FEV1 of >12%
o Increase in volume of >200 ml
• Peak flow variability (PFV)
o Monitored for 2-4 weeks if there is diagnostic uncertainty after initial assessment and a FeNO test + they have either a) normal spirometry or b) obstructive spirometry, positive BDR but FeNO <39 ppb
o Variability >20%
• Direct bronchial challenge test with histamine or methacholine
o Offered if there is diagnostic uncertainty after
 Normal spirometry + FeNO >40 ppb + no PFV
 Normal spirometry + FeNO <39 ppb + PFV
 Obstructive spirometry + no BDR + FeNO 25-39 ppb + no PFV
o PC20 <8 mg/ml (provocative concentration of methacholine causing a 20% fall in FEV1)

52
Q

What else do you have to test for if you are suspecting rubella infection in a pregnant patient

A

• In pregnancy, rubella is indistinguishable from parvovirus B19
o Both may be checked in pregnant women who come into contact with either
o “if you are pregnant and come into contact with an illness that might be rubella then unless it is confirmed by blood tests, it might be due to parvovirus B19”

53
Q

Rubella infection ix in mother

A

o Specific IgM in saliva samples
o Blood serology – IgG, IgM (active; or 4x increase in IgG titre)
o Serological/PCR testing

54
Q

Rubella infection ix in baby

AN
PN

A

o AN
 Amniocentesis
 USS fetal anomalies

o PN – fetal blood sampling
 IgM antibodies (do not cross the placenta, indicate a recent infection acquired after birth)
 Unexpected persistence of rubella IgG (does not drop at 2-fold dilution/month as maternal IgG does – which is cleared by six months)
 PCR

55
Q

Rublella contracted >20w mx

A

> 20 w
• Reassure woman that there have been no reported cases of CRS >20 week
• If non-immune – rubella immunisation should not be administered in pregnancy – may be given post-partum (live vaccine)

56
Q

Suspected/confirmed Rubella infection in pregnancy mx

A

• Self-care – rest + drink adequate fluids
• Stay off work, avoid contact with other pregnant women
o For 5 days after initial development of rash
• Follow general infection control measured (cover mouth and nose when sneezing, se disposable tissues, wash hands) to reduce the risk of transmission to others
• Seek urgent medical advice if symptoms do not settle as expected or features suggestive of complications of rubella develop (e.g. haemorrhagic complications, encephalitis)
• Advise the woman to inform their midwife, GP or obstetrician urgently if they develop a rash at any time in pregnancy
• Refer to feotal medicine unit + notify the Health protection unit (HPU) (notifiable condition)

  • Positive IgM in the first 16 w – offer TOP
  • Cochlear implant
  • Cardiac surgery
  • Special education provision

• Human normal immunoglobulin
o Not routinely used for post-exposure protection
o Not recommended for the protection of pregnant women exposed to rubella
o Should only be considered when TOP is unacceptable

57
Q

Rubella in pregnacy prevention

A
  • Immunisation of adolescents and women
  • Laboratory testing of all suspected cases
  • Preconception counselling – check rubella immunity, vaccinate if not immune
  • A history of having the disease is not a reason to forgo immunisation
58
Q

Contact with rubella in pregnanxy mx

A
  • Bloods – done however weeks pregnant the pt is, even though congenital rubella syndrome does not develop if >20w
  • There is no effective treatment to prevent the development of congenital rubella syndrome
59
Q

CMV ix in mother

A

• Serological testing for CMV is only offered to women who have developed influenza-like symptoms, symptoms of glandular fever (with negative test results for EBV) or hepatitis (with negative test results for Hep A, B, C virus) or in whom routine US detects fetal abnormalities suggestive of possible CMV infection (ventriculomegaly, microcephaly, calcifications, intraventricular synechiae, intracranial haemorrhage, periventricular cysts, cerebellar hypoplasia, cortical abnormalities, echogenic bowel, SGA, pericardial effusion, ascites, fetal hydrops)
• Primary CMV infection in pregnancy
o Do not use IgM alone (IgM can persist for months, a single IgM value alone is insufficient to diagnose CMV primary infection)
o Positive CMV IgG in a woman who was previously seronegative (seroconversion) or
o Detection of specific IgM antibody associated with low IgG avidity
 Low IgG avidity index (<30%) – highly suggestive of a recent primary infection (i.e. within the past 3 months)
 High avidity index (>60%) – highly suggestive of past (>3 months) or secondary infection

60
Q

CMV ix in baby

A

• Fetal infection
o Amniocentesis  Identification of virus or viral DNA in the amniotic fluid via rt PCR
o 6-9 weeks after primary infection
o Should be performed after 20 weeks gestation when fetal urination in well-established (appearance of virus in the amniotic fluid is dependent on excretion of the virus in fetal urine)
• When fetal CMV infection has been confirmed by amniocentesis
o US/MRI  Investigation of the fetal brain (CNS lesions) of a CMV +ve fetus
o Serial US examination of the fetus should be performed every 2-3 weeks until delivery (incl. detailed assessment of the fetal brain)*
o Cerebral MRI at 28-32 weeks (+ sometimes repeated at 3-4 weeks later)
• If infected fetus with intermediate prognosis (noncerebral fetal anomalies)  fetal blood sampling (check plt count)*
• Congenital CMV infection should be confirmed at birth
o Detection of CMV in body fluids in the first 21 days of life, ideally with two independent samples – positive result after 21 days will not confirm congenital CMV
o Urine or oral swab for CMV PCR within 3 weeks of birth
o Viral DNA detection by PCR in dried blood spots (Guthrie card) collected in the first days of life

61
Q

CMV US findings in baby

Asymptomatic
Mild/moderately symptomatic
Severely symptomatic

A

*Based on imaging + biological abnormalities
• Asymptomatic – no US abnormalities, normal cerebral MRI, normal biological parameters (in particular plt count in fetal blood). Good prognosis, residual risk of hearing loss

  • Mild/moderately symptomatic – isolated biological abnormalities (on fetal blood sampling) either without brain abnormalities on ultrasound or with isolated ultrasound abnormalities, such as hyperechogenic bowel, mild ventriculomegaly or isolated calcifications. Uncertain prognosis. Discuss option of TOP.
  • Severely symptomatic fetuses - severe cerebral ultrasound abnormalities (e.g.microcephaly, ventriculomegaly, white matter abnormalities and cavitations, intracerebral haemorrhage, delayed cortical development) + thrombocytopenia. Poor prognosis. Discuss option of TOP
62
Q

HIV in pregnancy ix

A

• Screening – all women are recommended screening for HIV infection, syphilis, HBV and rubella in every pregnancy at their booking visit
o Regular viral load, CD4 count
o If a woman declines and HIV test, explore reasons + re-offer test at 28 weeks
o Baseline indication tests – FBC, UE, LFT, lactate, blood glucose

• Pregnant women who are newly diagnosed with HIV do not require any additional baseline investigations compared with non-pregnant women living with HIV other than those routinely performed in the general AN clinic
o Fetal US imaging should be performed regardless of maternal HIV status
o Combined screening test for fetal aneuploidies + NIPT for high risk – will minimise the number of women who may need invasive testing
o Invasive prenatal diagnostic testing
 Should not be performed unless the HIV status of the woman is known
 Should ideally be deferred until the HIV viral load has been adequately suppressed to <50 HIV RNA copies/ml
 If not on cART and invasive diagnostic procedure cannot be delayed until viral suppression is achieved  commence cART to include raltegravir + single dose nevirapine 2-4h prior to procedure
o ECV
 Can be offered to women with plasma viral load <50 HIV RNA copies/ml

• Assessment of depression
o Booking
o 4-6 weeks PP
o 3-4 months PP

• Sexual health screening

• Women conceiving on cART - minimum
o CD4 cell count at baseline
o CD4 cell count at delivery

• Women commencing cART in pregnancy
o CD4 cell count at initiation of cART
o LFTs at initiation of cART + with each routine blood test
o HIV viral load performed – 2-4 weeks after commencing cART, at least once every trimester, at 36 weeks, at delivery
o CD4 cell count at delivery (even if starting at CD4 >350 cells/mm3)

• <28 weeks – HIV resistance testing + results prior to initiation of treatment

• Urgent HIV test  women presenting in labour/ with SROM/ requiring delivery without documented HIV result
o Reactive/positive results  must be acted upon immediately + initiation of interventions to prevent vertical transmission of HIV without waiting for further/formal serological confirmation

• Fetal blood sampling is contraindicated (even if woman has undetectable load)

63
Q

Non breastfed infants born in mothers with HIV ix

A

• Molecular diagnosis for HIV infection should be performed (direct viral amplification by PCR)
o During the first 48h
o Prior to hospital discharge
o If high risk at delivery  2 weeks of age
o At 6 weeks (or at least 2w after cessation of infant prophylaxis)
o At 12 weeks (or at least 8w after cessation of infant prophylaxis)
• HIV Antibody testing
o On the first sample received from infant if the mother’s ab status is not documented
o Age 22-24 months  check HIV antibody testing for seroconversion
o Engagement in care + F/U of infant until at least 18 months  Even if HIV antibody test negative before this

64
Q

breastfed infants born in mothers with HIV ix

A

Breastfed infants
• Molecular diagnosis for HIV infection should be performed
o During the first 48h
o Prior to hospital discharge
o At 2 weeks of age
o Monthly for the duration of BF
o At 4 and 8 weeks after cessation of BF
• HIV Antibody testing
o On the first sample received from infant if the mother’s ab status is not documented
o Age 22-24 months or at a minimum of 8 weeks after cessation of BF (if this is later)  check HIV antibody testing for seroconversion. Engagement in care should continue until this time

65
Q

Listeria infection in pregnancy ix

A

• Culture – amniotic fluid, blood, CSF
o Bacteria grow in 24-48h
o Small rounded colonies
o Beta haemolytic reaction on blood agar
• Other ix depend on presentation – CXR, LP, MRI, CT
o MRI>CT for CNS disease, especially brainstem
• Transoesophageal echocardiography - ?endocarditis

66
Q

Toxoplasmosis in pregnancy ix

A

• Sabin Feldman Dye Test
o No staining – positive result
o Blue – negative result
o https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sabin%E2%80%93Feldman_dye_test
• Bloods – IgM (active – may persist for months/years after), IgG (immunity)
• USS
o Fetal anomalies
• Other – amniocentesis and PCR to detect fetal infection
o Done if USS raises suspicion

67
Q

HSV in the mother ix

A

• Clinical diagnosis + STI screen
• Viral PCR
• Viral culture
• For women presenting with a first episode of genital herpes in the third trimester (particularly within 6 weeks of expected delivery)
o Type-specific HSV antibody testing (IgG antibodies to HSV-1, HSV-2)
 Presence of antibodies of the same type as HSV isolated from genital swabs  confirms recurrent infection  ELCS would not be indicated to prevent neonatal transmission
• A non-primary first episode – first presentation of symptoms in a person who has serological evidence of infection (shown by the presence of type-specific antibodies) with the other type of HSV in the past

Onset of labour in a woman with primary/recurrent genital lesions
• No time for confirmatory testing
• Viral swab from lesion should be taken – result may influence management of the neonate

68
Q

Ix for a neonate born to a mother with HSV

A

• If baby born by CS in mothers with primary HSV infection in 3rd trimester
o Conservative management (no ix, neonatal examination at 24h of age)
• If baby born by SVD in mothers with a primary HSV infection within the previous 6 weeks
o If baby is well
 Swabs of – skin, conjunctiva, oropharynx and rectum for HS PCR
o If baby is unwell
 Swabs of – skin, conjunctiva, oropharynx and rectum for HS PCR
 LP performed even if CNS features are not present
• If baby born to mothers with recurrent HSV infection in pregnancy +/- active lesions at delivery
o Conservative management (no ix)
• Concerns regarding the neonate (clinical evidence of sepsis, poor feeding)
o Consider bacterial sepsis, HSV infection
o Surface swabs and blood – HSV culture, PCR

69
Q

HDN haemolytic disease of the newborn, rhesus disease ix for prevention

A

• Father status
• Maternal blood type
o All Rh-ve pregnant women are at potential risk of alloimmunisation + erythroblastosis
• Maternal serum Rh antibody screen
o Indirect Coomb’s test (Group and Save)
 Booking + 28 weeks in all rhesus-negative women in the UK
 Detects anti-D antibodies in the mother
 If positive – antibody titres should be monitored with serial samples
 [[Direct Coomb’s test  Detects the presence of antibody bound to the RBC surface (indirect detects presence of antibodies in serum i.e. mother anti-D)]]
• Maternal serum antibody titres
o Each lab should report the titre below which severe fetal Rh incompatibility is unlikely (1:16) + above which further investigations and monitoring are indicated
o If titres are positive but <1:16 (or below the value considered critical by the local blood bank)  titres measured more frequently (usually every 4 weeks throughout pregnancy)
o If titres >1:16 (or above the value considered critical by the local blood bank)  Doppler for fetal MCA blood flow at intervals of 1-2 weeks
 Purpose is to detect high-output heart failure
o Higher = worse
• Fetal blood typing (cff DNA testing/foetal genotyping)
o Can be done at 12w
o Non-invasive rhesus genotyping of the fetus using free cell fetal DNA obtained from the maternal blood or amniotic fluid for women who have allo-antibodies
o If paternity is reasonably certain and the father is likely to be heterozygous for RhoD
o Identifies the fetus’ Rh type
o Identifies pregnancies at risk of sensitisation
o Possible for D, C, c, E, e and K antigens
o Can be reliably done + is available in the UK but not currently universal practice
• Anti-D, anti-c, anti-K levels should be measured
o Every 4 weeks up to 28 weeks gestation
o Then every 2 weeks until delivery
• For all other antibodies – retesting at 28 weeks
• Generate an assessment of risk for HDFN
o Cause of alloimmunisation
o Relevant past history
o Pregnancy outcomes
• Rosette test
o Can be used to rule out significant FMH
o Performed when one knows the fetus is Rh+ve
o Only a qualitative test
• Kleihauer test (feto-maternal haemorrhage test)
o Used after maternal injury to identify fetal blood in the maternal circulation
o Only >20 weeks + at delivery
o Quantitative test, can be used regardless of fetal Rh type
o Determines need for more anti-D
o Ratio of fetal: maternal cells is recorded  allow calculation of the volume of fetal blood leaked to the maternal circulation
o Performed on Rh negative mothers to determine the required dose of RhIg (anti-D) to inhibit formation of Rh antibodies in the mother and prevent Rh disease in future Rh-positive children

70
Q

HDN haemolytic disease of the newborn, rhesus disease ix if suspecting

A

• Antenatal US
o May detect signs of hydrops fetalis
 Fluid in serous cavities of the fetus is easily detected with US
 May show SC oedema, ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion – findings consistent with severe anaemia in an affected fetus
o Doppler US of the MCA (middle cerebral artery)
 Initial test for the detection of anaemia (replaced fetal blood sampling)
 Measured doppler sonography with estimation of peak systolic velocity in the fetal MCA
 Can be used to predict moderate to severe anaemia in the fetus
 MCA peak systolic velocity (MCA PSV) increased in fetuses with significant anaemia (>1.5 MoM/above 1.5 multiple of median)
 Elevated blood flow for gestation age  percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (if anaemia is strongly suspected)
• Fetal blood sampling
o If doppler scan confirms anaemia
o Sample taken at the side of cord insertion or from the hepatic vein
 Intrahepatic site causes less fetal distress but is technically more difficult
o Done under guidance of US imaging
o Miscarriage – 1-20%, depends on site of sampling and condition of fetus
• FBC
o Anaemia,  nucleated RBC
o Reticulocyte count as high as 40% in severe cases
o If extensive DIC  schistocytes, burr cells, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia
• Biochemical analysis
o Hypoglycaemia – may be the results of islet cell hyperplasia and hyperinsulinism secondary to the release of metabolic byproducts from lysed RBC

71
Q

HDN haemolytic disease of the newborn, rhesus disease post natal ix

A

• Postnatal diagnosis
o Immediately after birth of any baby to a rhesus-negative woman – take blood from umbilical cord or from the baby – check for
 ABO and Rh blood group
 Direct Coomb’s test
 Hb + baseline bilirubin
o Support the diagnosis – positive Coomb’s test in the presence of ABO or Rh incompatibility

72
Q

Multiple pregnancy ix

A

• First trimester USS (11+0-13+6 weeks when CRL 45-84mm – dating scan)
o To estimate gestational age
 From the largest baby in a twin or triplet pregnancy to avoid the risk of estimating it from a baby with early growth pathology
o To determine chorionicity and amnionicity
 Number of placental masses
 Presence of amniotic membrane(s) and membrane thickness
 The lambda or T- sign
• Examine junction between the inter-fetal membrane and the placenta
• Lamda
o dichorionic diamniotic
o triangular placental tissue projection into base of the membrane
• T
o monochorionic diamniotic
o no placental tissue projection into the base of the membrane
 Discordant fetal sex (if the woman presents after 14+0 weeks)
o To screen for chromosomal abnormalities (DS)
o Assign nomenclature to babies (e.g. Upper and Lower, left and right)
 Document this clearly in the woman’s notes to ensure consistency throughout pregnancy
• Chorionicity and amnionicity
o chorionicity – refers to the type of placentation (this is the most important feature)
o If it is not possible to determine these by US at the time of detecting twin/triplet pregnancy
 Seek a second opinion form a senior sonographer
 Refer the woman to a healthcare professional who is competent in determining chorionicity and amnionicity by US asap
 If it is still difficult to determine these  manage pregnancy as a monochorionic pregnancy until proved otherwise
o If transabdominal US scan views are poor because of a retroverted uterus or a high BMI  use a TVUS
o Do not use 3-D USS
• Anomaly scan (18-21 w)
• Anaemia screening at booking + 20 + 24 + 28 weeks
o FBC
o To identify women who need early supplementation with iron or folic acid
o Due to increased risk of anaemia in multiple pregnancy
o (in routine antenatal care for singleton pregnancies, screening for anaemia is only done at booking and 28 weeks)
• Arrange serial growth and doppler USS
o Monitoring for IUGR and TTS
o 2-4 weekly depending on chorionicity and amnionicity
o See table under “schedule of specialist antenatal appointments”

look at scans in notes

73
Q

AN appointments for multiple pregnancies

A

From 16 weeks
Every 2 weeks
- Monochorionic diamniotic twin pregnancy
- Monochorionic or dichorionic triamniotic triplet pregnancy

From 20 weeks
Dichorionic diamniotic twin pregnancy - every 4 weeks

Trichorionic Triamnitotic triplet pregnancy - every 2 weeks

Monochorionic twins or monochorionic/dichorionic triplets should be scanned every 2 weeks from 16 weeks gestation until birth to detect FFTS

74
Q

SGA screening

A

• History
o Assess women at booking for RF for SGA fetus/neonate to identify those who require increased surveillance
o Re-asses risk at 20-24 weeks in the light of additional screening information e.g. DS markers, 18-20w anomaly scan, pregnancy complications

• Clinical examination
o Method of screening for fetal size
o Abdominal palpation  Unreliable in detecting SGA fetuses
o SFH
 At each AN appointment from 24 w
 Plotted on a customised chart rather than population-based chart – this may improve prediction of a SGA neonate
• A customised SFH chart is adjusted for maternal characteristics (maternal height, weight, parity, ethnic group)
 Single SFH <10th centile or serial measurements demonstrating slow/static growth by crossing centiles  refer for US measurement of fetal size
 If SFH is inaccurate (BMI >35, large fibroids, polyhydramnios)  serial assessment of fetal size using US

75
Q

Ix for cases of SGA

A

• Karyotyping
o In severely SGA fetuses with structural anomalies
 Incidence of chromosomal abnormalities in severe SGA – 19%
o In those detected <23 weeks gestation, especially if uterine artery Doppler is normal
o <26 weeks – triploid was the most common chromosomal defect
o >26 weeks – trisomy 18 was the most common chromosomal defect
 Trisomy  fetus has an extra chromosome (47 chromosomes instead of 46)
 Triploidy  fetus has three sets of chromosomes or 69 chromosomes
• Screening for infections
o Severe SGA
 Congenital CMV
 Toxoplasmosis
o High risk populations
 Syphilis
 Malaria (significant cause of PTL + LBW worldwide)

76
Q

Surveillance tests in SGA

A

o CTG
 Should not be used as the only form of surveillance in SGA fetuses
 Interpretation of the CTG should be based on short-term FHR variation from computerised analysis
• FHR variation is the most useful predictor of fetal wellbeing in SGA fetuse
o Doppler
o USS

• MCA doppler
o Preterm SGA fetus – MCA doppler has limited accuracy to predict acidaemia + adverse outcome – should not be used to time delivery
o Term SGA fetus (>32 weeks) with normal umbilical artery Doppler – an abnormal MCA ( (pulsatility index) PI <5th centile) has moderate predictive value for acidosis at birth – should be used to time delivery
 Cerebral vasodilation = manifestation of the increase in diastolic flow = a sign of the brain-sparing effect of chronic hypoxia = results in decreases in doppler indices of the MCA e.g. PI
 Reduced MCA PI is therefore an early sign of fetal hypoxia in SGA fetuses

• Ductus venosus doppler (DV)
o DV doppler flow velocity pattern reflects atrial pressure-volume changes during cardiac cycle
o Has moderate predictive value for acidaemia and adverse outcome
o Should be used for surveillance in the preterm SGA fetus with abnormal umbilical artery Doppler
o Should be used to time delivery

77
Q

Breech ix

A

• Usually identified on clinical examination
o Abdominal examination
 Fetal head can be felt in the upper part of the uterus (fundus)
 Irregular mass (buttocks and legs) in the pelvis
 Fetal heart auscultated higher on the maternal abdomen
o Vaginal – soft presenting part, ischial tuberosities, anus or genitalia felt
o Footling breech – foot felt or seen through cervix
• US
o Any suspected breech needs to be confirmed by an US
o Will also identify the type of breech (flexed/extended/footling)
o Might reveal fetal or uterine abnormalities that predispose to breech presentation

78
Q

Malpresentation and malposition ix

A

• Abdominal examination
o Fetal lie – one side will feel fuller and firmer (back), knobby side (fetal limbs)
o Fetal presentation – palpate uterus above pubis symphysis with the fingers of both hands – head feels hard and round (cephalic) bottom feels soft and triangular (breech)
o Features that make it difficult to assess fetal lie + fetal presentation – high BMI, full bladder, small fetus, polyhydramnios
• Vaginal examination
o Fetal position
o During labour
o Use landmarks of the fetal head – anterior and posterior fontanelles
• USS
o Any suspected abnormal fetal lie or malpresentation should be confirmed by an USS
o USS can also demonstrate predisposing uterine or fetal abnormalities

79
Q

Obesity in pregnancy ix

A
  • During preconception counselling or contraceptive consultations – measure weight and BMI to encourage women to optimise their weight before pregnancy
  • Antenatal booking visit – calculate BMI
  • If woman is obese – reweigh during the third trimester to allow appropriate plans to be made for equipment and personnel required during labour and birth
  • Women with a booking BMI >40kg/m2 – should have a moving and handling risk assessment carried out in the third trimester of pregnancy to determine any requirements for labour and birth
80
Q

What do you need to assess in a baby that was just born

A
•	Assess baby in terms of 
o	Tone
o	Colour
o	Breathing
o	Heart rate
81
Q

What is the APGAR score

A

• Used to asses newborns 1 minute, 5 minutes and 10 minutes after birth
• Low APGAR scores – may indicate the baby needs special care
• 5 categories
o Each category receives a score of 0 to 2 points
o At most a child will receive a score of 10
o A baby rarely scores a 10 in the first few moments of life
 This is because most babies have blue hands or feet immediately after birth
• A – activity/muscle tone
o 0 points – limp or floppy
o 1 point – limbs flexed
o 2 points – active movement
• P – pulse/HR
o 0 points – absent
o 1 point - <100 bpm
o 2 points - >100 bpm
• G – Grimace (response to stimulation e.g. suctioning the baby’s nose)
o 0 points – absent
o 1 point – facial movement/grimace with stimulation
o 2 points – cough or sneeze, cry, withdrawal of foot with stimulation
• A – appearance (colour)
o 0 points – blue, bluish-gray, pale all over
o 1 point – body pink but extremities blue
o 2 points – pink all over
• R – Respiration/breathing
o 0 points – absent
o 1 point – irregular, weak crying
o 2 points – good, strong cry
• Babies that are expected to have lower Apgar scores
o Premature babies
o C-section babies
o Babies who has complicated deliveries
• Scores
o 0-3 concerning
o 4-6 moderately abnormal
o 7-10 reassuring