Obstetrics And Gynecology Flashcards

1
Q

Sinusoidal fetal heart rate tracings are typically associated ____________

A

With severe fetal anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

______ present with positional headache within 72 hours after neuraxial anesthesia often have associated nausea, vomiting and neck stiffness

A

Postural puncture headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

First line drugs for blood pressure control include ___________, __________ and ___________

A

IV Hydralazine, IV labetalol and oral nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

hCG is a hormone secreted by the synctiotrophoblast and is mainly responsible for ___________

A

The preservation of the corpus luteum in early pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_______________ is commonly administered for eclamptic seizure prevention and fetal neuroprotection.

A

Magnesium sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___________ is the first-line treatment for magnesium toxicity.

A

Calcium gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The most common cause of oligohydraminos (amniotic fluid index

A

Spontaneous rupture of membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

management of pregnant women with genital HSV or history of genital HSV

A

antiviral prophylaxis at 36 weeks gestation until delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a rare and life-threatening effect of ______ used in labor causes hyponatremia, cerebral edema and seizures.

A

excessive or prolonged oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When does the second stage arrest of labor occur

A

When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for >/= 3 hrs for nulliparous or >/= 2hrs for multiparous patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Then most common cause of arrest of second stage arrest of labor is

A

Cephalopelvic disproportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MSAFP, estriol, beta-hCG decreased and normal inhibin A

A

Trisomy 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In stress urinary incontinence in a post Partum (<6 weeks) is managed how

A

With observation and reassurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What effect does elevated progesterone in pregnancy have on the respiratory centers on the brain

A

Increased tidal volume, increased minute ventilation, increased PaO2, and a physiological chronic compensated respiratory alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contraindications to raloxifene

A

History of venous thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Function of raloxifene

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator with estrogen antagonist activity in the breast and uterus and agonist activity on the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of uncomplicated preterm prelabor rupture of membranes at < 34 weeks gestation

A

Antibiotics and corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

postpartum fever (≥38 C more than 24 hours after delivery) as well as incisional induration and erythema after cesarean delivery is suspicious of

A

Superficial surgical site infection (ie cellulitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Prepregnancy BMI (Kg/m2) of <18.5; ideal weight gain

A

28- 40lb (12.7-18kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prepregnancy BMI (Kg/m2) of 18.5-24.9; ideal weight gain

A

25-35lb (11.4-15.9 kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prepregnancy BMI (Kg/m2) of 25-29.9; ideal weight gain

A

15-25 lb (6.8-11.4kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Prepregnancy BMI (Kg/m2) of >/=30; ideal weight gain

A

11-20lb (5-9 kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Complications of inadequate weight gain in pregnancy

A
  • low birth weight

- preterm delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Complications of excessive weight gain in pregnancy

A
  • gestational diabetes mellitus
  • fetal macrosomia
  • cesarean delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The most common risk factor for pelvic organ prolapse is

A

Multiparity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Diagnosis of menopause in women without previous normal menses is confirmed by

A

An elevated serum FSH level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Abdominal pain; ascites; bilateral enlarged, cystic ovaries; and third spacing 1/2 weeks after ovulation induction for infertility treatment is most suspicious for

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Obese woman of child bearing age presents with positional headaches, pulsatilla tinnitus and papilledema

Most likely diagnosis?

A

Idiopathic Intracranial hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diagnosis of Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is with

A

MRI of the brain followed by lumbar pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does ovarian cyst rupture typically present on pelvic ultrasound

A

Thin-walled cyst with pelvic free fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The first line treatment of gestational DM is

A

Dietary modification and exercise

32
Q

Management of shoulder dystocia

BECALM

A

Breathe; don’t push
Elevate legs and flex hip, thigh against abdomen
Call for help
Apply suprapubic pressure
L- enlarge vaginal opening with epiostomy
Maneuvers: deliver posterior arm; rotate posterior shoulder; adduct fetal shoulder; mother on hands and knees; replace fetal head into pelvis for cesarean delivery

33
Q

Irregular bleeding, vaginal discharge, and a visible raised cervical lesion in a pt with history of long term tobacco use require ______

A

Immediate cervical biopsy (cervical cancer)

34
Q

Treatment of toxic shock syndrome

A

Fluid replacement and antibiotics with clindamycin and vancomycin

35
Q

First line treatment for symptomatic labial adhesions, or fused labia minora

A

Topical estrogen cream

36
Q

First line prevention of migraine during pregnancy is

A

Beta blocker eg, propanolol, metoprolol

37
Q

Best option for management of intrauterine fetal demise at >/= 24 weeks gestation

A

Induction of labor

38
Q

Severe, persistent nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that results in a weight loss of >5% of prepregnancy weight, electrolyte abnormalities and ketonuria

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum

39
Q

How can Hyperemesis gravidarum be differentiated from typical nausea and vomiting during pregnancy

A

Presence of ketones on urinalysis

40
Q

Treatment for symptomatic submucosal fibroids who desire future fertility

A

Hysterectomy myomectomy

41
Q

What do Women age < 45 with abnormal uterine bleeding who have failed medical management (eg, oral contraceptives) require

A

Endometrial biopsy

42
Q

Complications of oligohydramnios

A

Meconium aspiration
Preterm delivery
Umbilical cord compression

43
Q

Complications of polyhydramnios

A

Fetal malposition
Umbilical cord prolapse
Preterm labor
Preterm premature rupture of membranes

44
Q

Contraindications to Copper IUD and progestin IUD

A
Pregnancy 
Endometrial or cervical cancer
Unexplained vaginal bleeding
Gestational trophoblastic disease
Distorted endometrial cavity
Acute pelvic infection
45
Q

Contraindications to progestin IUD

A

Active liver disease

Active breast cancer

46
Q

First line treatment option for migraines during pregnancy

A

Acetaminophen

47
Q

2nd and 3rd line options for treatment of migraines during pregnancy

A

Acetaminophen + (low potency opioids) codeine
Antiemetics
NSAIDs (2nd trimester only)

48
Q

Management of second stage arrest of labour

A

Operative vaginal delivery

49
Q

Vulvar lichen sclerosus is a risk factor for the development of

A

Vulvar cancer

50
Q

What is the most common cause of physiologic galactorrhea

A

Hyperprolactinemia

51
Q

How should galactorrhea be evaluated?

A

Pregnancy test
Serum prolactin
TSH
Possible MRI of the brain

52
Q

Intervention for umbilical cord compression with Category I FHR tracing

A

Maternal repositioning and possible amino infusion

53
Q

Who to put on low dose Aspirin at 12 weeks gestation

A
High risk patient for preeclampsia :
Multiple gestation 
Prior preeclampsia 
Chronic hypertension 
Chronic kidney disease
Diabetes mellitus 
Multiple gestation 
Autoimmune disease
54
Q

Management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid and delivery at 37 weeks gestation

55
Q

How is diagnosis of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy confirmed ?

A

Elevated total bile acids (>10umol/L)

56
Q

How does intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy present

A

I’m third trimester with pruritus that is worst on hands and feet with no associated rash.

57
Q

define short interpregnancy interval

A

< 6-18 months from delivery to next pregnancy

58
Q

complications of short interpregnancy interval

A

maternal anemia
preterm delivery
PPROM
Low birth weight

59
Q

an intrauterine demise associated with growth restriction, multiple fractures and a hypoplastic thoracic cavity is consistent with

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

60
Q

what causes meralgia paresthetica

A

compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

61
Q

how does meralgia paresthetica present

A

pain and paresthesia over the upper outer thigh

62
Q

initial management of uterine inversion

A

manual replacement of the uterus

63
Q

what is lochia

A

lochia is physiologic vaginal bleeding after delivery due to endometrial shedding and regenetration

64
Q

for how long can lochia last

A

6-8 weeks postpartum

65
Q

screening for STI in pregnancy for high risk patients

A

initial prenatal screening

third trimester screening

66
Q

Risk factors of placenta accreta

A

Prior cesarean delivery
Advanced maternal age
History of dilation and curettage

67
Q

Ultrasound findings consistent with congenital cytomegalovirus infection

A

Bilateral periventricular intracranial calcifications, intrahepatic calcifications and fetal growth restriction

68
Q

First line treatment of stress urinary incontinence

A

Pelvic floor muscle (kegel) exercises

69
Q

Bilateral breast fullness, tenderness and warmth without fever 3-5 days after delivery when colostrum is replaced by milk

A

Breast engorgement

70
Q

Pregnancy complications of amphetamine abuse during pregnancy

A
Preterm delivery
Preeclampsia 
Abruptio placenta 
Fetal growth restriction
Intrauterine fetal demise
71
Q

Next step in management of Postmenopausal women with endometrial cells on pap testing

A

Endometrial biopsy

72
Q

The combination of dysuria and sterile pyuria is a common presentation for _______ in sexually active women

A

Chlamydia trachomatis urethritis

73
Q

What type of twin pregnancy has “T- sign” at intertwin membrane

A

Monochorionic , diamniotic

74
Q

What type of twin pregnancy has “lambda sign” at intertwin membrane

A

Dichorionic, diamniotic

75
Q

Next step after elevated MSAFP

A

Fetal ultrasound