Obstetric anaesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mortality of an amniotic fluid embolism?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the incidence of AFE?

A

1/8,000 to 1/80,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When does a presentation of AFE typically occur?

A

During labour or within 30 minutes of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the core features of AFE?

A
  • Bronchospasm
  • Pulmonary hypertension
  • Left ventricular failure
  • Coagulopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the most common presenting features of AFE?

A
  • Aura (restlessness, agitation, numbness) - 30%
  • Dyspnoea - 20%
  • Acute foetal compromise - 20%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the most common features of AFE?

A
  • Maternal haemorrhage - 65%
  • Hypotension - 63%
  • Shortness of breath - 62%
  • Coagulopathy - 62%
  • Aura - 47%
  • Foetal compromise - 43%
  • Cardiac arrest - 40%
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias - 27%
  • Seizures - 20%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is a diagnosis of AFE confirmed?

A

It is a clinical diagnosis, however it can only be confirmed on post mortem examination of the pulmonary vessels containing foetal squames and hair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the likely biochemical results of AFE?

A
  • ↓ fibrinogen
  • ↓ Platelets
  • ↑ fibrin degradation products
  • ↑ APTT
  • ↑ PT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is cryoprecipitate of particular use in AFE?

A

Cryoprecipitate contains fibronectin which activates the reticuloendothelial system and helps to filter antigenic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which sensory nerve roots are responsible for transmitting the pain of the 1st stage of labour?

A

T10-L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which sensory nerve roots are responsible for transmitting the pain of the 2st stage of labour?

A

S2-S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the advantages of a PCEA bolus regimen

A
  • Potentially lower motor block
  • Improved satisfaction
  • Reduced staff resources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a standard regimen for a remifentanyl PCA for labour analgesia?

A

0.3-0.5 mcg/kg 2-3 min lockout. i.e. for 60 kg patient 30 mcg bolus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define pre-eclampsia

A
  • New hypertension
  • Presenting after 20 weeks
  • Significant proteinuria.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define severe pre-eclampsia

A

pre-eclampsia with severe hypertension and/or with symptoms, and/ or biochemical and/or haematological impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mild Hypertension

A
  • SBP 140-149mmHg
  • DBP 90-99mmHg
17
Q

Moderate Hypertension

A
  • SBP 150-159mmHg
  • DBP 100–109mmHg
18
Q

Severe Hypertension

A
  • SBP > 160mmHg
  • DBP > 110mmHg
19
Q

Symptoms of Pre-eclampsia?

A
  • severe headache
  • problems with vision, such as blurring/ashing
  • severe pain just below the ribs
  • vomiting
  • sudden swelling of the face, hands or feet.
20
Q

Which patients are at increased risk of pre-eclampsia?

A
  • hypertensive disease during a previous pregnancy
  • chronic kidney disease
  • autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosis or antiphospholipid syndrome
  • type 1 or type 2 diabetes
  • chronic hypertension.
21
Q

What is the proposed therapy for those at increased risk of pre-eclampsia?

A

Aspirin daily 75 mg

22
Q

What is the success rate of epidural blood patch?

A

60-90%

23
Q

Differential diagnosis for PDPH

A
  • Simple tension headache
  • Migraine
  • Venous sinus thrombosis
  • Intracranial haemorrhage
  • Intracranial mass
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Meningitis
24
Q

What is the proceedure for epidural blood patch?

A
  • Most senior anaesthetist
  • Strict asepsis
  • 20 mL blood - stop if pressure/pain
  • Lie supine for 2 hours
  • Gradually mobilise
  • Follow up 2 hour, 24 hours, 1 week, 1 month
25
Q

Management of seizures in LA toxicity

A

benzodiazepine, thiopental or propofol in small incremental doses

26
Q

What should you do to follow up LA toxicity

A
  • transfer to appropriate clinical area (ITU)
  • Exclude pancreatitis by clinical review, daily amylase/lipase for 2 days
  • Report cases to the NPSA
  • Document lipid use at www.lipidregistry.org
27
Q

What are the doses of intralipid during LA toxicity

A
  • 1.5 ml/kg over 1 min of 20% lipid emulsion
  • Start infusion of 15 ml/kg/hr
  • Give up to 2 rpt boluses
  • Double infusion to 30 ml/kg/hr
  • Maximum cumulative dose of 12 mL/kg
28
Q

When is the peak time for teratagenicity of anaesthetic agents

A

15-56 days

29
Q

What are the treatment options for severe PET?

A
  • Labetolol (Oral/Infusion)
  • Hydralazine IV
  • Oral Nifedipine
  • Magnesium
  • Fluid Restrict
  • Expedite Delivery
30
Q

What are the features of an epidural haematoma

A
  • Backpain (75% of cases)
  • +/- fever (66% of infected cases)
  • Lower limb weakness which fails to resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion
  • Delayed presentation after weeks or months following discharge from hospital
  • Meningism