General Flashcards

1
Q

What is the declaration of Helsinki?

A
  • Volunteers
  • Informed consent
  • Wellbeing of individuals overrides population
  • Research only if likely to benefit population
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2
Q

What are the 4 pillars of medical ethics?

A

1) beneficence 2) non-maleficence 3) equipoise 4) justice

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3
Q

Give an example of a good communication type in pre-hospital care

A

Hand’s off Handover

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4
Q

Which risk factors are on Koivuranta’s PONV score

A

female gender, non-smoking status, history of PONV, history of motion sickness, and duration of surgery >60 min

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5
Q

Describe the scoring of Koivuranta’s PONV score

A

0 = 17% (baseline) 1 = 18% 2 = 42% 3 = 54% 4 = 74% 5 = 87% ROC = 0.71

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6
Q

Describe the Apfel simplified score

A

PONV scoring system: female gender, history of PONV or motion sickness, non-smoking status, and postoperative use of opioids

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7
Q

How does the Apfel PONV score relate to PONV risk?

A

0 = 10% 1 = 20% 2 = 40% 3 = 60% 4 = 80%

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8
Q

What is the POVOC score?

A

Scoring system for PONV in children

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9
Q

What are the risk factors in the POVOC score?

A

duration of surgery ≥30 min, age ≥3 yr, strabismus surgery, and history of POV in the child or relatives

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10
Q

Provide 3 scoring systems for PONV

A

Koivuranta - Adult Apfel - Adult POVOC - Children

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11
Q

Define perioperative high risk

A

> 5% perioperative mortality

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12
Q

Why is establishing risk so important?

A

High risk patients account for 12.5% of cases but 80% of perioperative mortality

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13
Q

What were the main NCEPOD (2011) findings for “high risk” patients

A
  • “High risk” was arbitarily defined by anaesthetist
  • 20% were identified
  • 6.2% 30-day mortality
  • 1/4 had art lines
  • 5% had cardiac output monitoring
  • 22% went to HDU/ITU immediately postop
  • 50% who died never went to ITU
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14
Q

Identification methods for “High-Risk Patients”

A
  • Clinical judgement
  • ASA
  • P-POSSUM
  • Euroscore (cardiac)
  • Surgery Type
  • CPEX
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15
Q

List high risk surgical operations

A
  • Open aortic
  • Major vascular
  • Peripheral vascular
  • Urgent body cavity
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16
Q

List the highest risk perioperative co-morbidities. Give % 30 day mortality

A
  • Documented cirrhosis (8.9%)
  • CCF (8.2%)
  • Arrhythmia (5.7%)
  • CVA (4.4%)
  • Diabetes (on insulin) (4.1%)
  • Ischaemic heart disease (3.8%)
  • Cancer (3.8%)
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17
Q

What is the perioperative role of echo?

A
  • Resting - information made no difference in 1 year outcomes (40,000 patient retrospective review)
  • Dynamic - identifying inducible ischaemia improved outcomes
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18
Q

What is the role of perioperative CT angiography?

A
  • Can identify those with CAD
  • Indications for treatment remain the same as for non-surgical patients
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19
Q

How should you care for high risk patients?

A
  • Optimise medical co-morbidities
  • Plan appropriate:
    • Monitoring
    • Fluid management
    • Analgesia
  • Decide on appropraite post op care
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20
Q

What is CPEX?

A

An incremental workload stress test. A dynamic test of global cardiorespiratory function

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21
Q

What are the phases of CPEX?

A
  1. Baseline recording (3 mins)
  2. Unloaded cycline (1-3 mins)
  3. Graded increasing resistance
  4. Rest (10 mins)
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22
Q

What is pre-habilitation?

A
  • A cardiac rehab like program.
  • Increases VO2 max by 20-30%.
  • Mitigates impact on VO2 by chemotherapy.
  • Unclear if any survival benefit
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23
Q

What are positive CPEX indicators for ward level care post major surgery?

A
  • AT > 11 mL/min/kg
  • No myocardial ischaemia
  • Ve/VO2 < 35
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24
Q

What are the positive CPEX indicators for HDU care post major surgery?

A
  • AT > 11 mL/kg/min
  • Detectible myocardial ischaemia or;
  • Ve/VO2 > 35
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25
Q

What are the positive CPEX indicators for ITU care post major surgery?

A
  • Aortic or oesophageal surgery
  • AT < 11 mL/min/kg
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26
Q

Why might beta-blockers work to lower perioperative mortality?

A
  • Reduce O2 demand
    • Prevent tachycardias
    • Negatively ionotropic
  • Reduce cardiac events
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27
Q

Guidelines of perioperative beta-blockade

A
  • Continue if already on
  • intermediate/high risk for myocardial ischaemia - consider starting peri-op
  • > 2 Revised risk factors - consider starting peri-op
  • Do not start on day of surgery
  • Try to start eariler if going to do so
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28
Q

Duration of antiplatelets following coronary intervention

A
  • DES - dual for 6-12 months
  • BMS - dual for 4-6 weeks
  • Balloon angioplasty - dual for 2 weeks
29
Q

Describe bridging therapy for antiplatelet treatment

A
  • Initiated 5 days pre-op at time of stopping clopidogrel
  • Tirofiban - stop 3-6 hours pre-op
  • Eptifibadine - stop 4-12 hours pre-op
30
Q

Define Enhanced Recovery

A
  • An evidence based process for non-daycase surgery deisgned to:
    • Improve patient outcomes
    • Reduce length of stay
    • Reduce complications
    • Reduce financial burden
  • By employing:
    • Organisational change and training
    • Standardised perioperative care
    • Active patient engagement
31
Q

What are the primary outcomes demonstrated in ERAS?

A
  • Better outcomes
  • Reduced LOS
  • Increased number of patients treated
  • ? Mortality (1 orthopaedic study)
32
Q

What are the 4 elements of ERAS?

A
  1. Pre-op assessment, planning and preparation
  2. Reducing the physical stress of the operation
  3. Standardised immediate perioperative management
  4. Early Mobilisation
33
Q

What are the benefits of goal directed fluid therapy?

A
  • Reduced LOS for major abdominal, gynae and urological surgery
  • Reduced PONV
  • Reduced gut hypoperfusion
  • Redcued GI complications (ileus, delayed feeding)
34
Q

What is the FTc?

A

The duration of flow during systole corrected to a HR of 60. Normal is 330-360ms

35
Q

Causes of increased FTc?

A
  • Low afterload (i.e. vasodilated)
36
Q

Causes of decreased FTc?

A
  • Increased afterload
    • Peripheral vasocontriction
    • Underfilled
37
Q

What is Peak Velocity?

A

The highest blood velocity detected during systole, (left ventricular contractility/ionotropy).

38
Q

What are typical Peak Velocity values?

A
  • 90-120 cm/s (20 year old)
  • 70-100 cm/s (50 year old)
  • 50-80 cm/s (70 year old)

These are NOT physiological targets

39
Q

What does a low Peak Velocity suggest?

A
  • Failing left ventricle
  • Excessive afterload
40
Q

What is the general management for peri-operative diabetes?

A
  • Early identification of high risk patients
  • Day of surgery admission is default
  • Minimise starvation (consider list order)
  • Resume normal diet ASAP
  • Analgesia/Antiemesis to support early eating
  • Use the term “variable rate IV insulin infusion”
  • If missing just breakfast, modify patients own meds
  • Missing > 1 meal, place on VRIII
  • Continue long acting insulin whilst on VRIII
  • Hourly BM intra-op/post-op
41
Q

How to transfer VRIII to usual regimen

A
  • Establish normal eating / drinking
  • Restart previous regimen and dose
  • After first dose of S/C insulin, stop VRIII 30 mins later
42
Q

Pre-operative blood conservation techniques

A
  • Anaemia clinics
  • FeSO4 tablets / infusions
  • EPO
  • Stopping antiplatelets
  • Disease optimisation
  • Micro-sample collection
  • Normo-volaemia haemodilution
43
Q

Intra-operative blood conservation techniques

A
  • Meticulus surgeons
  • Warming
  • TEG
  • Aprotonin
  • Tranexamic Acid
  • Cell salvage
  • off pump surgery
  • Platelet mapping
  • Tight and dry CPB
44
Q

Post-operative blood conservation strategies

A
  • Restrictive transfusion thresholds
  • Autologus transfusions
  • Warming
45
Q

What did NAP 5 Study?

A

Accidental Awareness under GA

46
Q

What were the basic findings of NAP 5?

A
  • 300 cases reviewed (Delay 0 - 62 years)
    • 141 Certain/Probable cases of AAGA
    • 17 Awake paralysis
    • 7 AAGA in ITU
    • 32 AAGA after sedation
47
Q

What is the incidence of AAGA?

A
  • Baseline risk 1:19,000
    • 1:136,000 if not using NMB
  • High risk groups included:
    • 1:8,000 if using NMB
    • 1:8,600 Cardiothoracic anaesthesia
    • 1:670 Caesarean section
48
Q

What is the likely long term psychological impact of AAGA?

A
  • 41% experience moderate/severe long term sequelae
  • Best predictors of long term harm were:
    • Distressed at time of event
    • Sensation of awake paralysis
  • Understanding of what was happening at the time, reassurance, and early support helped to mitigate this risk
49
Q

What are the risk factors/recommendations for AAGA at induction?

A
  • Risk factors
    • Thiopental
    • RSI
    • Obesity
    • NMB
    • Difficult airway management
    • Long transfer gap from AR to OR
  • Recommendations
    • Check list following transfer
50
Q

What are the causes of/recommendations for AAGA at emergence?

A
  • Nearly all due to residual NMB
  • Recommendations
    • Ensure NMB monitors used
    • Check reversal at end of case
51
Q

What are the risk factors for AAGA?

A
  • Drug factors
    • Thiopental
    • TIVA
    • NMB
  • Patient factors
    • Women
    • Young adults
    • Obesity
    • Previous history of AAGA
  • Subspecialties
    • Obstetric
    • Cardiothoraccic
    • Neurosurgical
  • Organisational factors
    • Emergency
    • OOH
    • Junior anaesthetists
52
Q

What are the caveats to TIVA in the context of AAGA?

A
  • Less common when using TCI
  • Many cases associated with disconnection/failure of delivery
  • Transferring from volatile to TIVA particularly high risk
  • More comming in transfer of paralysed patients outside theatre
53
Q

What does NAP 5 have to say about AAGA following sedation?

A

“Reports of AAGA after
sedation represent a failure of communication
between anaesthetist and patient and should
be readily reduced or eliminated by improved
communication, management of expectations and
consent processes
.”

54
Q

How many recommendations does NAP 5 make?

A
  • 64 in total
  • 7 National
  • 12 Instituational
  • 45 Personal
55
Q

What did NAP 4 Study?

A

Major complications of airway management in the UK

56
Q

How many anaesthetics are given each year in the UK? What is their typical airway management?

A
  • Approx 2.9 million GAs/year
  • 56% - supraglottic airway device (SAD)
  • 38% - tracheal tube
  • 5% - face mask
57
Q

What were the key findings of NAP 4?

A
  • Failure to assess airway
  • Failure to act on airway assessment
  • Failure to plan for failure
  • Fixation with intubation
  • Innapropriate use of SAD
  • SAD used in difficult airways with no backup plan
  • Obese patient twice as likely to have difficult airway
  • High failure of cannula cricothyroidotomy (60%)
  • Aspiration was the single commonest cause of death
  • Failure to interpret capnography correctly
  • 1/3rd of events occurred at extubation/recovery
  • 1/4 of all major airway events was from ICU/A&E (significantly over-represented)
58
Q

What did NAP 3 Study?

A

Major Complications of Central Neuraxial Block in the United Kingdom

59
Q

What were the basic findings of NAP3?

A
  • 700,000 CNB
    • 46% Spinals vs 41% Epidurals
    • 45% Obstetric vs 44% Perioperative
  • Permanent injury following CNB
    • 1/24,000 - 1/54,000
  • Death following CNB
    • 1/50,000 - 1/140,000
  • Over-represented groups included:
    • Epidurals (60%)
    • CSEs
    • Perioperative analgesia (80%)
  • 2/3rd of injury initially judged severe resolved fully.
60
Q

How is type 2 diabetes diagnosed?

A
  • HbA1C > 48 mmol/L (>6.5%)
  • a random venous plasma glucose concentration ≥ 11.1 mmol/l or
  • a fasting plasma glucose concentration ≥ 7.0 mmol/l (whole blood ≥ 6.1 mmol/l) or
  • two hour plasma glucose concentration ≥ 11.1 mmol/l two hours after 75g anhydrous glucose in an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
61
Q

What is impaired fasting glucose?

A

Fasting glucose 6.1 - 7 mmol/L

62
Q

What are the recommendations from “The measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery” Anaesthesia 2016

A
  1. Pre-op assessment doesn’t need to measure BP if primary care has documented < 160/100 mmHg
  2. GPs should refer for elective surgery, and secondary care should accept, if BP < 160/100
  3. GPs should refer patients who are established on antihypertensives, but are refractory
  4. Elective surgery should proceed if BP <180/110 when measured in clinic
63
Q

Define and categorise Hypertension

A

Abnormally high blood pressure, categorised as:

  1. Stage 1: 140-159 / 90-99
  2. Stage 2: 160-179 / 100-109
  3. Stage 3: 180-209 / 110-119
  4. Stage 4: > 210 / > 120
64
Q

What does 15 mL (1 unit) of cryoprecipitate contain?

A
  • Fibrinogen (150-250 mg)
  • Factor VIII (80-150 IU)
  • Factor XIII (80-100 IU)
  • von Willebrand factor (50-75 IU)
  • Fibronectin
65
Q

What is the parkland formula?

A

4 ml × weight (kg) × total percentage of burns.

Half the fluid should be given in the first eight hours and the remaining fluid over the next 16 hours.

66
Q

Describe the physiological role of magnesium

A
  • Na/K ATPase co-factor
  • cAMP magnesium dependend
  • NMDA receptor antagonist
  • Decreases Ach release at NMJ
  • Inhibits clotting cascade
  • Calcium antagonist
67
Q

What is the recommended cut off patient dose for peri-operative steroid replacement?

A

10mg predniolone at any point within the past 3 months

68
Q

What are the recommendations for steroid replacement?

A
  • Minor surgery
    • 25 mg hydrocortisone at induction
  • Moderate surgery
    • Take normal steroid
    • 25 mg hydrocortisone at induction
    • 100 mg hydrocortisone over 1 day
  • Major surgery
    • Take normal steroid
    • 25 mg hydrocortisone at induction
    • 100 mg hydrocortisone/day for 3 days
69
Q

Give the equivalencies for 10 mg Prednisolone (include betamethasone, beclomethasone, cortisone acetate, hydrocortisone, methylprednisolone and deflazacort)

A
  • betamethasone = 1.5 mg
  • beclomethasone = 1.5 mg
  • cortisone acetate = 50 mg
  • hydrocortisone = 40 mg
  • methylprednisolone = 8 mg
  • deflazacort = 12 mg